Therapeutic Interventions and Pharmacology Exam
Materials
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of therapeutic interventions and pharmacological agents used in the treatment of various health conditions. Students will examine the principles of drug action, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics, as well as the indications, contraindications, side effects, and interactions of commonly prescribed medications. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practice, patient safety, and the integration of pharmacological with non-pharmacological therapies. Practical applications are illustrated through case studies that address patient assessment, medication administration, monitoring, and evaluation of therapeutic outcomes across diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles D. Ciccone
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007 Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) When two drugs are compared,the drug that requires a lower dosage to produce the same effect as a higher dose of the second drug is said to
A) be more potent
B) be impotent
C) have a great maximal efficacy
D) have a greater therapeutic index
E) be pharmacosuperior
Answer: A
Q2) Prescription use of a drug to treat conditions other than those that the drug was originally approved to treat (off label prescribing)
A) is illegal and punishable by revoking a physician's license
B) is legal only if the Center for Disease Control provides written permission to the physician
C) is legal only if the drug is not a controlled substance
D) is legal and quite common in the United States
E) is legal only after the patent for a drug has expired
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and Distribution
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19950
Sample Questions
Q1) Carrier specificity,expernditure of energy,and ability to transport substances against a concentration gradient are all characteristics of
A) simple, passive diffusion
B) facilitated diffusion
C) active transport
D) endocytosis
E) exocytosis
Answer: C
Q2) Drug developers are exploring nanotechnology (i.e.,the use of very small particles with specific physical properties)as a way to
A) target and deliver drugs to specific tissues within the body
B) facilitate drug absorption from the GI tract
C) enable drugs to cross the blood brain barrier more easily
D) all the above
E) none of the above
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) Drug oxidation occurs when ______ the original compound.
A) oxygen is added to
B) hydrogen is removed from
C) an endogenous substance such as acetyl coenzyme is coupled to D) all of the above are true
E) only A and B are true
Answer: E
Q2) Drugs and their metabolites are excreted from the body primarily by A) the liver
B) the kidneys
C) the lungs
D) skeletal muscle
E) adipose tissue
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19952
Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of a drug to bind to its receptor can be influenced by local chemicals such as guanine nucleotides,ammonium ions,and divalent cations.These local regulators are commonly known as _____.
A) competitive agonists
B) noncompetitive agonists
C) allosteric modulators
D) partial antagonists
E) chelators
Q2) A drug that binds to a receptor and directly initiates a change in the function of the cell is referred to as
A) an agonist
B) an antagonist
C) a synergist
D) a compliment
Q3) In contrast to an agonist,a pharmacologic antagonist
A) has affinity for the receptor, but lacks efficacy
B) is also known as a "blocker"
C) can be used prevent endogenous chemicals from overstimulating the receptor
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19953
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following substances are considered central nervous system neurotransmitters EXCEPT
A) monoamines such as norepinephrine
B) second messengers such as cyclic AMP
C) amino acids such as glycine
D) hormones such as vasopressin
E) acetylcholine
Q2) Drugs that must cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain to exert therapeutic effects will be clinically useful if
A) they are lipophilic
B) they are hydrophilic but are able to enter the brain by active transport or facilitated diffusion
C) they are not subject to active transport enzymes (efflux pumps) that move the drug out of the brain and back into the systemic circulation
D) all the above
E) none of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 7
Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19954
Sample Questions
Q1) When certain sedative-hypnotics are suddenly discontinued,sleep disturbances may actually increase.This situation is known commonly as
A) tardive dyskinesia
B) anterograde amnesia
C) rebound insomnia
D) malignant hyperthermia
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Benzodiazepines such as diazepam (Valium)act by increasing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter
A) acetylcholine
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
Q3) Drugs used to relax the patient and promote sleep are classified as
A) sedative-hypnotics
B) antidepressants
C) antipsychotics
D) neuroleptics
E) antidyskinetics
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19955
Sample Questions
Q1) Certain newer or second-generation antidepressants such as fluoxetine (Prozac),paroxetine (Paxil),and sertraline (Zoloft)have received attention because of their ability to selectively affect ______ reuptake at certain CNS synapses.
A) norepinephrine
B) dopamine
C) acetylcholine
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) gama-amino butyric acid (GABA)
Q2) The cornerstone of drug treatment for bipolar syndrome (manic-depression)consists of
A) tricylic antipressants
B) monoamine oxidase inhibitors
C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D) lithium
E) dopamine agonists
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19956
Sample Questions
Q1) Newer or "atypical" antipsychotics are often preferred because
A) they bind more effectively to dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia
B) they offer a greater chance of curing schizophrenia
C) they are less expensive than traditional agents
D) they have a reduced risk of causing motor side effects
E) they are available without prescription
Q2) Tardive dyskinesia is often the most feared motor side effect of antipsychotic drugs because
A) it is associated with muscle atrophy
B) it is associated with osteoporosis
C) it can cause cardiac dysrhythmias
D) it can cause peripheral neuropathies
E) it may be irreversible
Q3) Antipsychotics are often used in Alzheimer disease and other cases of dementia
A) to improve cognition and memory
B) to improve balance
C) to help control aggression and agitation
D) to increase vomiting and diarrhea
E) none of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 10
Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19957
Sample Questions
Q1) Antiseizure drugs attempt to control neuronal activity via all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
A) decreasing the effects of excitatory amino acids (glutamate, aspartate)
B) increasing the excitatory effects of acetylcholine in the CNS
C) decreasing sodium entry into rapidly firing neurons
D) increasing the inhibitory effects of gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
E) decreasing the excitatory effects of calcium ions in the CNS
Q2) Neuropathic pain and certain other chronic pain syndromes may respond to treatment with _____,presumably because these drugs reduce excitation in specific pain pathways in the CNS.
A) amphetamines such as dextroamphetamine
B) antiseizure drugs such as gabapentin (Neurontin) and pregabalin (Lyrica)
C) anticholinergic drugs such as atropine
D) all the above
E) none of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19958
Sample Questions
Q1) Parkinson disease typically occurs because of the slow,progressive degeneration of specific _______-secreting neurons in the ______.
A) acetylcholine; cortex
B) norepinephrine; cerebellum
C) dopamine; basal ganglia
D) serotonin; limbic system
E) glutamate; brain stem
Q2) Drugs such as selegiline (Eldepryl)and rasagiline (Azilect)that inhibit the monoamine oxidase type B (MAOB)enzyme may be helpful in Parkinson disease because
A) they increase dopamine absorption from the GI tract
B) they increase the conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the bloodstream
C) they decrease the movement of levodopa across the blood-brain barrier
D) they decrease the breakdown of dopamine in the brain
E) they increase the breakdown of acetylcholine in the brain
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
12
Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19959
Sample Questions
Q1) Adipose tissue is a primary site for the absorption and temporary accumulation of general anesthetics because
A) adipose tissues are highly perfused by the bloodstream
B) general anesthetics are very water soluble
C) general anesthetics are very lipid soluble
D) adipose tissue is the primary site where general anesthetics are metabolized
E) none of the above are true; general anesthetics are not absorbed by adipose tissue
Q2) When general anesthetics are administered by the inhalation route,a major advantage is they
A) take effect slowly
B) take effect rapidly
C) permit better control over the level of anesthesia
D) allow the patient to spend more time in Stage I of anesthesia
E) allow the patient to spend more time in Stage II of anesthesia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19960
Sample Questions
Q1) Local anesthetics inhibit action potential propagation along neuronal axons by blocking the opening of ________ channels.
A) potassium
B) sodium
C) chloride
D) calcium
E) magnesium
Q2) Absorption of local anesthetics into the system circulation is dangerous because these drugs can
A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction
B) cause bradycardia
C) inhibit respiratory control centers in the CNS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Local anesthetics can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermally
B) subcutaneous infiltration
C) direct injection into the epidural space
D) direct injection into the third ventricle of the brain
E) direct injection into the subarachnoid space
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19961
Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle relaxant that directly inhibits acetylcholine release from presynaptic terminals at the skeletal neuromuscular junction is
A) baclofen
B) botulinum toxin
C) dantrolene sodium
D) tizanidine
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Long term use of diazepam (Valium)as a muscle relaxant is often limited due to problems with
A) sedation
B) tolerance
C) physical dependence
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Botulinum toxin is used to treat spasticity by injecting this drug
A) intravenously
B) intrathecally
C) subcutaneously
D) directly into the spastic muscle
E) none of the above are true; botulinum toxin is not used to treat spasticity
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19962
Sample Questions
Q1) Opioid analgesics are also known commonly as _______ because they tend to have sedative or sleep-inducing side effects and high doses can produce a state of unresponsiveness and stupor.
A) narcotics
B) narcoleptics
C) neuroleptics
D) naturopathics
E) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Q2) Preliminary studies on animals suggest that opioids can exert analgesic effects when administered directly into peripheral tissues (e.g.,injected into an inflamed joint)because
A) opioids decrease the production of inflammatory substances in peripheral tissues
B) opioids increase vasodilation in peripheral tissues
C) opioids cause vasoconstriction in peripheral tissues
D) opioids may bind to receptors located on the distal (peripheral) ends of primary afferent (sensory) neurons.
E) there is no evidence that opioids can produce analgesic effects outside to the CNS
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19963
Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin and acetaminophen are different because
A) acetaminophen is less toxic to the liver than aspirin
B) acetaminophen is more toxic to the stomach than aspirin
C) acetaminophen does not have antipyretic effects
D) acetaminophen does not have anti-inflammatory effects
E) none of the above are true; aspirin and acetaminophen are virtually identical in terms of therapeutic effects and side effects
Q2) Prostaglandins are
A) small proteins that inhibit cellular inflammation
B) a specific type of lymphocyte involved in the inflammatory process
C) carbohydrates that regulate cell division
D) steroids that increase cellular metabolism
E) none of the above are true
Q3) High doses of acetaminophen (e.g.,15 g)can be especially toxic to the:
A) heart
B) liver
C) kidneys
D) stomach
E) brain
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19964
Sample Questions
Q1) By producing analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects,_____ is/are usually considered the first line of defense in treating rheumatoid arthritis.
A) acetaminophen
B) NSAIDs
C) opioids
D) leukotriene inhibitors
E) anabolic steroids
Q2) Early and aggressive use of ______ can slow the progression of rheumatoid arthritis in many patients before there is extensive damage to affected joints.
A) NSAIDs
B) acetaminophen
C) anabolic steroids
D) disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs
E) drugs that increase bone and cartilage destruction
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19965
Sample Questions
Q1) Patient controlled epidural analgesia (PCEI)is achieved by administering drugs directly into the
A) superior vena cava
B) right atrium of the heart
C) third ventricle of the brain
D) subarachnoid space
E) none of the above are true
Q2) The use of a single large dose of pain medication to establish analgesia prior to patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)is known as
A) the loading dose
B) the demand dose
C) the background infusion rate
D) the postoperative sedative
E) none of the above are true
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19966
Sample Questions
Q1) Alpha and beta receptors are the two primary subcategories of
A) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C) dopamine receptors
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) adrenergic
Q2) All preganglionic neurons and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are said to be _____ in nature because of the presence of ______ at their respective synapses.
A) adrenergic; norepinephrine
B) cholinergic; norepinephrine
C) adrenergic; acetylcholine
D) cholinergic; acetylcholine
E) adrenergic; epinephrine
Q3) A drug that inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors will selectively
A) increase sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
B) decrease sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
C) increase parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
D) decrease parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
E) increase responses in all tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19967
Sample Questions
Q1) Because Alzheimer disease is associated with loss of cortical neurons that release acetylcholine,_____ may be helpful in improving cognition and memory during the early stages of this disease.
A) direct cholinergic stimulants
B) indirect cholinergic stimulants
C) direct adrenergic stimulants
D) indirect adrenergic stimulants
E) there are no drugs that are useful during any stage of Alzheimer disease
Q2) Cholinergic antagonists can be useful in the treatment of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) motion sickness
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) overactive urinary bladder
D) tachycardia
E) Parkinson disease
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19968
Sample Questions
Q1) Adrenergic antagonists that are selective for the beta-1 subtype (i.e.,beta-1 blockers)can be useful in the treatment of
A) high blood pressure
B) heart failure
C) certain cardiac arrhythmias
D) recovery from myocardial infarction
E) all the above are true
Q2) Stimulation of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors on spinal interneurons typically results in a _______ in excitability of ______ supplied by these interneurons.
A) increase; motor neurons
B) decrease; motor neurons
C) increase; sensory
D) decrease; sensory
E) alpha-2 receptors are not located in the spinal cord
Q3) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 22
Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19969
Sample Questions
Q1) Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors can help _____ blood pressure by _____ the formation of angiotensin II.
A) increase; increasing
B) increasing; decreasing
C) decreasing; increasing
D) decrease; decreasing
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Sympatholytic drugs such prazosin and doxazosin can directly decrease vascular resistance by
A) stimulating alpha-1 receptors on the arteriole
B) blocking alpha-1 receptors on the arteriole
C) stimulating alpha-2 receptors on the arteriole
D) blocking alpha-2 receptors on the arteriole
E) stimulating beta-1 receptors on the arteriole
Q3) Beta blockers are said to be cardioselective if they bind preferentially to
A) beta-1 receptors
B) beta-2 receptors
C) beta-3 receptors
D) all the above are true
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19970
Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin and other antiplatelet drugs are often administered to people with angina pectoris to
A) prevent headache
B) decrease myocardial oxygen demand
C) prevent coronary artery infarction
D) all the above are true
Q2) Nitrates such as nitroglycerin exert their primary beneficial effects in people with angina pectoris because these drugs ______ myocardial oxygen demand by vasodilating the ______.
A) decrease; coronary arteries
B) increase; coronary arteries
C) decrease; peripheral vasculature
D) increase; peripheral vasculature
E) decrease; cerebral vasculature
Q3) To avoid the first pass effect,nitroglycerin can be administered
A) sublingually
B) buccally
C) via transdermal patches
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19971
Sample Questions
Q1) While attempting to control one type of arrhythmia,antiarrhythmic drugs can exert "proarrhythmic" effects,which are indicated by
A) a delay of 4 to 6 weeks before these drugs become effective
B) common musculoskeletal abnormalities such as skeletal muscle fasciculations
C) their ability to aggravate or initiate other cardiac rhythm abnormalities
D) their ability to aggravate the proton pump in the stomach, resulting in gastric ulcers
E) their ability to increase body temperature and cause fever
Q2) Calcium channel blockers are useful in treating certain cardiac arrhythmias because they
A) decrease the rate of discharge of the SA node
B) increase conduction velocity through the AV node
C) block the effects of catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine) on cardiac tissues
D) inhibit the ability of sodium to excite cardiac membranes
E) none of the above are true; calcium channel blockers are not used to treat arrhythmias
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
25
Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19972
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary cardiac problem in digitalis toxicity is
A) decreased coronary blood flow
B) increased coronary oxygen demand
C) decreased cardiac intracellular sodium concentration.
D) arrhythmia
E) isolated systolic hypotension
Q2) Cardiac glycosides such as digitalis are used to treat heart failure because these drugs exert
A) a positive inotropic effect
B) a negative inotropic effect
C) a positive dromotropic effect
D) a negative dromotropic effect
E) a positive chronotropic effect
Q3) Digitalis exerts its primary mechanical effect by _____ the sodium-potassium pump on the myocardial cell membrane,which leads directly to an _____ intracellular sodium concentration.
A) stimulating; increase
B) inhibiting; increase
C) stimulating; decrease
D) inhibiting; decrease
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26
Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19973
Sample Questions
Q1) Because of its ability to inhibit platelet activity,aspirin is used to prevent A) myocardial infarction
B) ischemic stroke
C) hemorrhagic stroke
D) all the above are true
E) A and B only are true
Q2) A patient is in the process of having a heart attack due to the sudden formation of an arterial thrombus in his coronary artery.To break up the clot and save the patient's life,the best drug to use is
A) a low-molecular weight heparin (e.g., enoxaparin)
B) a fibrinolytic drug (e.g. streptokinase or tPA)
C) a fibrinolysis inhibitor (e.g., aminocaproic acid)
D) warfarin (Coumadin)
E) vitamin K
Q3) Drug management in hemophilia consists of giving drugs that
A) inhibit thrombin formation.
B) inhibit Vitamin K activity
C) increase fibrinolysin activity
D) inhibit platelet function.
E) treatment consists of administering the missing clotting factor(s)
Page 27
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19974
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that inhibit the production or effects of leukotrienes are helpful in treating bronchospastic disease because
A) leukotrienes are especially important in mediating the airway inflammation that underlies bronchoconstrictive disease
B) these drugs can be combined with other drugs (glucocorticoids, beta agonists) to provide optimal management in specific patients with asthma and COPD
C) these drugs are generally safe and well tolerated
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true; drugs that inhibit the production or effects of leukotrienes are not helpful in treating bronchospastic disease
Q2) High doses and prolonged or excessive use of nasal decongestants is potentially harmful because these drugs
A) can increase heart rate
B) can increase blood pressure
C) can mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19975
Sample Questions
Q1) Proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole (Prilosec)and esomeprazole (Nexium)are useful in reducing gastric acid secretion because they
A) contain a base that chemically neutralizes gastric acid
B) block the effects of histamine on stomach H2 receptors
C) inhibit the enzyme that secretes acid from gastric parietal cells into the lumen of the stomach
D) inhibit the enzyme that transports sodium out of gastric parietal cells, and transports potassium into these cells
E) none of the above are true; these drugs are not useful in reducing gastric acid secretion
Q2) Natural and synthetic opioid drugs _____ gastrointestinal motility,and are therefore useful in treating _____.
A) increase; diarrhea
B) decrease; diarrhea
C) increase; constipation
D) decrease; constipation
E) none of the above are true; opioids do not affect gastrointestinal motility
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19976
Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids)produced by the adrenal cortex are under the control of ____ from the hypothalamus which stimulates ______release from the anterior pituitary.
A) corticotropin-releasing hormone; adrenocorticotropic hormone
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone; corticotropin-releasing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone; luteinizing hormone
D) luteinizing hormone; follicle stimulating hormone
E) thyrotropin releasing hormone; growth hormone
Q2) A toxin that selectively destroys the alpha cells of the pancreas would impair the production of
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) somatostatin
D) digestive proteases
E) digestive lipases
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19977
Sample Questions
Q1) In humans,the primary mineralocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex is _____,and the primary glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex is _______.
A) progesterone; testosterone
B) testosterone; estrogen
C) estrogen; aldosterone
D) aldosterone; cortisol
E) cortisol; progesterone
Q2) From a physical therapy perspective,the most important adverse effect seen in patients taking systemic glucocorticoid (anti-inflammatory steroid)drugs is
A) hypertension
B) aggravation of diabetes mellitus
C) aggravation of stomach ulcers
D) increased chance of infection
E) tissue catabolism (breakdown)
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19978
Sample Questions
Q1) At the onset of puberty,increased testosterone production from the testes typically produces all of the following effects EXCEPT
A) increased body mass
B) increased body hair
C) deeper voice
D) maturation of the external genitalia
E) inhibition of spermatogenesis
Q2) In postmenopausal women,estrogen replacement may provide beneficial effects on _____,but may also increase the risk of ____.
A) the heart; osteoporosis
B) bone; cardiovascular disease
C) the kidney; severe hypotension
D) the liver; Alzheimer disease
E) GI function; fibromyalgia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19979
Sample Questions
Q1) Bisphosphonates such as alendronate (Fosamax)and pamidronate (Aredia)reduce bone resorption in osteoporosis and similar conditions by
A) inhibiting osteoclast activity
B) increasing calcium absorption for the GI tract
C) decreasing calcium excretion by the kidneys
D) providing a dietary source of calcium
E) all the above are true
Q2) Parathyroid hormone ______ plasma calcium levels by ______ calcium resorption from bone.
A) increases; increasing
B) increases; decreasing
C) decreases; decreasing
D) decreases; decreasing.
E) none of the above are true
Q3) All of the following symptoms are associated with hyperthyroidism EXCEPT
A) weight loss
B) bradycardia
C) insomnia
D) heat intolerance
E) muscle wasting
33
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19980
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary problem in type 2 diabetes is _____.
A) decreased release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells
B) increased release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells
C) decreased sensitivity of peripheral tissues to circulating insulin
D) increased sensitivity of peripheral tissues to circulating insulin
E) decreased production of antidiuretic hormone
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of type I diabetes mellitus EXCEPT
A) disease onset usually occurs in childhood
B) body weight is usually at or below normal levels
C) pancreatic insulin production is low or absent
D) tissue sensitivity to insulin is low
E) diet and exercise are used in conjunction with drug therapy to maintain optimal health
Q3) People who are on insulin therapy for diabetes mellitus are more at risk for hypoglycemia if
A) they administer too much insulin
B) they skip a meal
C) they exercise too strenuously
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Page 34
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19981
Sample Questions
Q1) Penicillin,cephalosporins,and several other commonly used antibacterial drugs exert their antibacterial effects by inhibiting the function of ______,which results in impaired production of _________ that are essential for normal membrane structure and function.
A) folic acid; nucleic acids
B) penicillin-binding proteins; ribosomes
C) folic acid; ribosomes
D) penicillin-binding proteins; peptidoglycans
E) nucleic acids; folic acids
Q2) Aminoglycosides,erythromycin,the tetracyclines,and several other antibacterial drugs affect the function of the bacterial _______,thereby impairing______ in the bacterial cell.
A) nucleus; messenger RNA transcription
B) ribosome; messenger RNA translation
C) membrane; active transport
D) ribosome; passive diffusion
E) nucleus; messenger RNA translation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19982
Sample Questions
Q1) In people infected with HIV,highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)typically consists of
A) one reverse transcriptase inhibitor at maximal dosage
B) one protease inhibitor at maximal dosage
C) two drugs, e.g. a RTI plus a protease inhibitor
D) two drugs, e.g. a nonnucleoside RTI plus a nucleoside RTI
E) three drugs, e.g. two nucleoside RTIs and one nonnucleoside RTI
Q2) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine,didanosine,and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as
A) peripheral neuropathy
B) myopathy
C) joint pain
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19983
Sample Questions
Q1) Antifungal drugs are relatively safe when administered _____,but the risk of liver toxicity and other severe side effects increases substantially when these drugs are given
A) topically; orally
B) orally; topically
C) subcutaneously; topically
D) intravenously; subcutaneously
E) systemically; locally
Q2) Severe,systemic fungal infections are more likely if
A) patients are taking systemic doses of glucocorticoids
B) patients are taking systemic doses of other antibiotics
C) patients have AIDS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19984
Sample Questions
Q1) Some of the newer cancer chemotherapy agents (e.g.,cytokines)are called biological therapies or biological response modifiers because they
A) form strong alkyl bonds within the DNA of the cancerous cell
B) act as false nucleic acid precursors during DNA biosynthesis
C) encourage the body's immune system to fight cancerous cells
D) encourage the mitotic apparatus to function more effectively
E) stimulate the supply of blood and nutrients to the developing tumor
Q2) A relatively new strategy for treating certain tumors is to prevent the formation of new blood vessels,thus impairing tumor growth by starving the tumor of oxygen and nutrients.Drugs that use this strategy are known as
A) topoisomerase inhibitors
B) angiogenesis inhibitors
C) aromatase inhibitors
D) antimetabolites
E) none of the above are true
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19985
Sample Questions
Q1) Cyclosporine,an immunosuppressant that is commonly used to prevent organ rejection,is often modified into microemulsion capsules so that
A) the drugs disperses more easily within the GI tract
B) absorption of the drug from the GI tract is more predictable
C) it is not as toxic to the kidneys and other tissues
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Drugs are used to suppress the immune system
A) to prevent rejection of transplanted organs or tissues
B) to limit immune-mediated damage to the body's tissues
C) to treat autoimmune diseases
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) All of the following drugs can be used to suppress the immune system EXCEPT
A) azathioprine
B) cyclophosphamide
C) cyclosporine
D) immunoglobulin G
E) methotrexate
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 39