Therapeutic Exercise Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Therapeutic Exercise focuses on the systematic implementation of movement and physical activity interventions designed to remediate impairments, improve functional performance, and enhance overall health and well-being. The course covers principles of exercise prescription, assessment, and progression for individuals across the lifespan with various musculoskeletal, neurological, and cardiopulmonary conditions. Students will learn to develop, modify, and safely monitor individualized exercise programs, emphasizing both preventative and rehabilitative strategies within clinical and community settings.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 6th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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25 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3856
Page 2
Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Awareness of safety measures during exercise protects the patient and the therapist.All of the following measures should be routinely taken to prevent injury to the patient and/or therapist except:
A) Do not initiate any exercise program with a patient who is taking medication that might impair their balance or tolerance for physical activity.
B) Maintain proper body mechanics while applying manual resistance,stretching,or joint-mobilization techniques.
C) Assess the physical environment for adequate space and equipment.
D) Provide the necessary feedback and education for proper performance of therapeutic exercise.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following terms is synonymous with aerobic fitness and is associated with aspects of physical function that can be modified by therapeutic exercise?
A) Cardiopulmonary resistance
B) Cardiopulmonary endurance
C) Cardiopulmonary stability
D) Cardiopulmonary strength
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Prevention, health, and Wellness
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following risk factors are common to both coronary artery disease (CAD)and osteoporosis except:
A) Prolonged use of corticosteroids
B) Smoking
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Family history
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following best describes the target audience for a program of physical activity designed for primary prevention of childhood obesity?
A) A group of morbidly obese children who have been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
B) A group of mildly obese children who are identified as being "at risk" for type 2 diabetes
C) A group of mildly obese children
D) A group of sedentary children whose weight is within normal limits
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Optimal duration per day on a CPM for maximal patient compliance and most gained range of motion is:
A) 2-4 hours.
B) 4-8 hours.
C) 8-12 hours.
D) 18-22 hours.
Answer: B
Q2) Self-feeding requires functional ROM of any of the following motions except:
A) Shoulder flexion.
B) Shoulder abduction.
C) Elbow flexion.
D) Forearm pronation.
Answer: D
Q3) According to the authors,the suggested number of repetitions for AROM to any given joint is:
A) 2-3.
B) 3-5.
C) 5-10.
D) 15-20.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Stretching for Impaired Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following in NOT a precaution for stretching interventions?
A) Patient with suspected osteoporosis
B) Soreness after previous session that lasted 4 hours
C) Edematous tissue
D) Patient who has been on prolonged bed rest
Q2) Safe and effective stretching to increase ROM requires all of the following except:
A) Proper alignment and patient positioning.
B) Stabilization of the proximal attachment of the muscle.
C) Use of gained ROM in active function.
D) Strengthening of the agonist.
Q3) The type of stretching technique that utilizes a high-speed,high-intensity,and short-duration stretch force is called a:
A) Ballistic stretch.
B) Static stretch.
C) Cyclic stretch.
D) Mechanical stretch.
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Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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30 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moving the proximal row of carpals on the radius in a volar direction increases which wrist motion?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Radial deviation
D) Ulnar deviation
Q2) A normal accessory joint movement that occurs with roll is:
A) Sliding.
B) Swing.
C) Distraction.
D) Compression.
Q3) Your patient has a forward shoulder posture with associated joint restrictions throughout the shoulder complex.In which of the following directions should you apply mobilization of the sternoclavicular joint to improve the patient's posture?
A) Anterior
B) Inferior
C) Posterior
D) Superior
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Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient who has an inflammatory muscle disease such as polymyositis engages in a vigorous resistance training program,it is possible that irreversible progressive deterioration,rather than improvement,in muscle strength can occur.The term that best describes this phenomenon is:
A) Overwork weakness.
B) Progressive muscle fatigue caused by overtraining.
C) Muscle overload.
D) Delayed-onset myopathy.
Q2) Which of the following is the most efficient way to neutralize the effects of muscle fatigue during an exercise session?
A) Perform unresisted exercises during the rest interval between sets
B) Stop all exercise and rest completely between sets
C) Apply cold to the muscle/muscle groups between sets
D) Massage the muscles between sets
Q3) Each of the following is characteristic of delayed-onset muscle soreness except:
A) Tends to peak 48 to 72 hours after the conclusion of high-intensity exercise.
B) Increased soreness during passive lengthening of the involved muscle groups.
C) Occurs more frequently after eccentric exercise than isometric exercise.
D) Is believed to be caused by postexercise muscle spasm.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mary is 30 lb overweight and wants to start exercising for fitness and to lose weight before her high school class reunion next year.For motivation,she has set a specific goal to run a 10K race in 6 months.The best method of training for this event would be:
A) Bicycling 2 days a week and fast walking 4 days a week.
B) Fast walking,progressing to running 5 to 6 days a week.
C) Bicycling and running 3 days a week for each activity.
D) Swimming 1 day a week,bicycling 2 days a week,and running 3 days a week.
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct about the use of arm exercises (upper extremity ergometry)versus leg exercises (treadmill walking,bicycling)in a cardiac rehabilitation program?
A) There are no differences in responses of the cardiopulmonary system with arm exercises versus leg exercises.
B) Myocardial O<sub>2</sub> consumption (heart rate \(\times\) systolic blood pressure)is higher with arm exercises than leg exercises.
C) Myocardial efficiency is lower with arm exercises than with leg exercises.
D) Patients with coronary artery disease typically are able to complete less work with leg exercises than arm exercises before symptoms occur.
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Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The semicircular canals of the vestibular system would contribute the most to balance control during which of the following activities?
A) Standing and quickly turning the head to look at a person
B) Sitting in a chair reading a newspaper
C) Standing on a bus that suddenly accelerates forward
D) Standing on an elevator that suddenly accelerates downward
Q2) To improve a patient's dynamic postural control using visual and vestibular inputs,the most appropriate activity for the patient to perform is:
A) Standing on a foam surface with feet apart and eyes open.
B) Marching in place on a firm surface with the eyes open.
C) Walking with a narrowed base of support on foam with eyes open.
D) Walking with a narrowed base of support on a firm surface with eyes closed.
Q3) When a hip strategy is used for balance control in response to a posterior displacement of the support surface,which muscle groups are activated and in what sequence?
A) Abdominals followed by the quadriceps
B) Quadriceps followed by the abdominals
C) Hamstrings followed by the paraspinals
D) Paraspinals followed by the hamstrings
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difficulty of exercises can be controlled with the depth of immersion and the body's physiological response to hydrostatic pressure.According to Barbosa and colleagues,which of the following best describes a proper progression of a patient's exercise program in order to increase physiological demands?
A) Land exercises to aquatic chest depth to hip depth
B) Aquatic hip depth to neck depth to land exercises
C) Alternate land exercises with aquatic chest depth exercises
D) Aquatic chest depth to hip depth to land exercises
Q2) If a patient has lower extremity edema,which of the following principles associated with hydrotherapy (an aquatic environment)will assist with decreasing the edema?
A) Viscosity
B) Buoyancy
C) Surface tension
D) Hydrostatic pressure
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11
Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury,repair,and Management
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms refers to the degeneration of a tendon due to repetitive microtrauma?
A) Tendinitis
B) Tenosynovitis
C) Tenovaginitis
D) Tendinosis
Q2) Which of the following stages of soft tissue healing is characterized by remodeling and maturation of collagen in the scar?
A) Chronic stage
B) Early subacute stage
C) Late subacute stage
D) Acute stage
Q3) Overuse syndromes occur:
A) As the result of repetitive,submaximal stress of a muscle or tendon.
B) As the result of a severe blow to a muscle.
C) As a result of prolonged immobilization.
D) Only if there is impaired circulation to soft tissue.
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Chapter 11: Joint,connective Tissue,and Bone Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has osteoarthritis of the left hip and states he experiences hip and thigh pain after walking for more than 20 to 30 minutes.As a therapist,which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for you to recommend?
A) A period of complete rest or immobility
B) Application of heat and massage after periods of walking
C) Measures to decrease the mechanical stresses on the hip joint,such as use of a cane when walking over an extended period of time
D) Use of anti-inflammatory medication
Q2) A patient with a diagnosis of osteoporosis wishes to participate in a fitness program at her local community center.All of the following describe precautions that she should adhere to during exercise except:
A) Avoid high-impact,repetitive exercises,such as jumping and bouncing.
B) Avoid high-velocity movements of the spine and extremities.
C) Avoid strength training with free weights or on weight machines regardless of the intensity of exercise.
D) Avoid end-range resisted movements of the spine combining flexion and rotation.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following soft tissue repairs are most commonly immobilized in a relative position of tension (elongation)postsurgically?
A) Tendon Z lengthening and ligament tears
B) Muscle fasciotomy and tendon realignments
C) All repairs of muscles and tendons
D) Muscle and ligament complete ruptures
Q2) Which of the following is a correct statement about osteochondral mosaicplasty?
A) The procedure is indicated for management of advanced (late-stage)arthritis of a joint.
B) The term is synonymous with autogenous chondrocyte implantation.
C) The procedure involves transplantation of small plugs of intact articular cartilage and some subchondral bone from a donor site to the site of an articular cartilage lesion.
D) Small drill holes into subchondral bone are made at the site of the articular lesion to stimulate regrowth of joint cartilage.
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Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient complains of numbness in the hand and forearm whenever working for prolonged periods at the computer;the hand also develops a puffy sensation and occasionally turns blue.Adson's maneuver reproduces these symptoms.All of the following should directly help your patient with this problem and will be part of your treatment approach except:
A) Stretch the scalene muscles.
B) Teach posture correction.
C) Teach relaxed diaphragmatic breathing.
D) Apply mechanical traction at 20 lb for 20 minutes.
Q2) Following nerve injury,motor retraining exercises:
A) Begin as soon as signs of voluntary muscle action are detected.
B) Begin as soon as the patient tolerates electrical stimulation.
C) Are used to desensitize the areas of hypersensitivity.
D) Cannot be used until the chronic phase of healing in order to avoid further trauma to the nerve.
Q3) Nonoperative management of carpal tunnel syndrome emphasizes:
A) Vigorous stretching to gain mobility of the structures in the carpal tunnel.
B) Activity modification and joint,nerve,and tendon mobilization.
C) Strengthening exercises,especially to the muscles of the thenar eminence.
D) Immobilization.
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Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, function, and Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spinal stability is provided by:
A) Elasticity of passive restraints.
B) Interaction of passive restraints and muscle control.
C) Interaction of muscle control modulated by the central nervous system and passive restraints.
D) Muscle activity maintaining balance in the neutral zone.
Q2) The spinal muscles that are activated first with rapid arm movements are the:
A) Erector spinae and rectus abdominis.
B) Internal and external obliques.
C) Multifidus and internal obliques.
D) Transversus abdominis and multifidus.
Q3) All of the following are true of the nucleus pulposus except:
A) It is the axis of motion for the functional units of the spine.
B) It takes on and/or releases water in response to compressive loads.
C) It is centrally aligned within the annulus fibrosis at all levels of the spine to provide uniform shock absorption.
D) It is covered superiorly and inferiorly by a cartilaginous endplate.
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Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) One day following onset of pain and muscle guarding in the low back region,your patient stands with lumbar flexion and a sciatic scoliosis.Repeated flexion tests increase pain into the buttock.Repeated extension done after side-gliding increases the pain in the midback and decreases the pain in the buttock.You begin treatment by:
A) Positioning the patient supine and having him bring both knees to his chest.
B) Placing the patient in intermittent traction at less than half his body weight for 20 minutes.
C) Having the patient lie prone and attempting passive extension with press-ups or prone propping maneuvers after side-gliding the thorax.
D) Placing the patient on complete bed rest for at least 4 days;applying modalities and massage during that time.
Q2) Scheuermann's disease:
A) Is a rheumatic disorder.
B) Results from weakened vertebral end plates.
C) Begins with radicular signs that diminish over time.
D) Requires functionally increasing the lumbar lordosis to prevent development of kyphosis.
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17
Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positional traction is used to:
A) Allow the patient to relax the musculature and therefore get greater separation of the vertebrae.
B) Isolate a passive distraction stretch to a specific facet.
C) Substitute for mechanical traction when a traction unit is not available.
D) Apply traction when the therapist is not strong enough to apply a sufficient amount of manual traction.
Q2) Your patient is in the chronic phase of healing with decreased ROM of C4-5 resulting in activity restrictions related to flexion and rotation of her head.You perform a spinal manipulation technique consisting of small amplitude oscillations for 1-2 minutes that go through the restrictive joint barrier with a goal to improve her joint ROM.What grade of manipulation will you document?
A) Grade II
B) Grade III
C) Grade IV
D) Grade V
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18
Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pendulum (Codman's)exercises are used most effectively:
A) As a grade II oscillation technique to inhibit pain and maintain mobility.
B) As a strengthening exercise when a weight is held in the hand or placed around the wrist.
C) To stretch the shoulder musculature and increase ROM when a patient does not have antigravity control of shoulder movement.
D) As a grade III distraction technique to increase ROM when mobility of the scapula is normal but there is chronic stiffness of the glenohumeral joint.
Q2) Which of the following surgical procedures is performed for recurrent anterior instability or dislocation of the glenohumeral joint and involves reattachment and repair of the capsulolabral complex to the anterior rim of the glenoid?
A) Anterior capsular shift
B) Bankart repair
C) Hill-Sachs repair
D) Repair of a SLAP lesion
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Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about total elbow arthroplasty (TEA)?
A) A semiconstrained,linked prosthesis allows flexion and extension of the elbow but not varus,valgus,or rotational motions.
B) The typical method of fixation of the implants is all-cementless (all-biological)fixation.
C) The surgical approach most often used leaves the triceps tendon intact.
D) One of the more common,long-term complications after TEA is joint instability,particularly with unlinked implants or if the patient previously underwent excision of the radial head.
Q2) Tennis elbow may involve all of the following structures except the:
A) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
B) Extensor communis
C) Pronator teres
D) Annular ligament
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Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true about flexor tendon-gliding exercises except:
A) Maintain or develop free-gliding between the FDS and FDP tendons.
B) To perform these exercises,the patient actively moves the fingers into five different positions.
C) To perform these exercises,the therapist passively moves the patient's fingers into five different positions in a particular sequence.
D) Maintain or develop free-gliding between the FDS and FDP tendons and adjacent bones.
Q2) Prerequisites for successful PIP arthroplasty include all of the following except:
A) Adequate bone stock.
B) No history of chronic synovitis.
C) Intact neurovascular system.
D) Functioning flexor/extensor mechanism.
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Chapter 20: The Hip
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following principles is important when designing a therapeutic exercise program to correct hip muscle length/strength imbalances except:
A) When stretching the hip musculature,the spine and pelvis must be stabilized against the force.
B) Contraction of the muscle opposite the range-limiting muscle (i.e. ,contracting the antagonist of the tight muscle)to assist with the stretching maneuver has the benefit of training the antagonist muscle to function in any newly gained range.
C) Because of the functional demands placed on the lower extremities,it is more important to have full hip range of motion than to have "normal" strength of hip musculature.
D) Strengthening exercises should include closed-chain exercises to prepare for functional activities in weight-bearing postures.
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Chapter 21: The Knee
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has only 50S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 of passive and active knee flexion (but full passive extension)2 weeks after removal of a cast for a fracture of the tibia.The bone is now radiologically healed.Each of the following techniques will be of value to increase the range of knee flexion except:
A) The hold-relax technique,with isometric contraction of the hamstrings with the knee at 45S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0,followed by relaxation,then passive movement into more flexion.
B) Low-load,long-duration self-stretching of the quadriceps.
C) Posterior glide of the tibia.
D) Caudal glide of the patella.
Q2) A quadriceps lag may be described as:
A) Patient has full active knee extension but exhibits increased time to peak torque when knee extensors are evaluated on an isokinetic dynamometer.
B) Patient has full passive knee flexion but limited passive knee extension.
C) Patient cannot actively extend the knee to full extension even though there is full passive knee extension.
D) Another term for knee extension contracture.
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Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Q1) Your patient has a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis and is developing a capsular pattern in the foot and ankle.Which joint-mobilization technique could perpetuate or worsen the impairment/deformity typically associated with RA of the foot and ankle?
A) Stabilize the mortise and glide the talus in an anterior direction
B) Stabilize the calcaneus and glide the cuboid in a plantar direction
C) Stabilize the talus and glide the navicular in a dorsal direction
D) Stabilize the talus and glide the calcaneus in a lateral direction
Q2) John is a 25-year-old active athlete and outdoorsman who suffered a severe lateral ankle injury 5 years ago,resulting in progressive subtalar arthritis,pain,and instability of the ankle and hindfoot.His quality of life and ability to work are now restricted due to the pain and instability despite repeated sessions in therapy.The surgical procedure of choice for John is most likely:
A) Arthrodesis (fusion).
B) Arthroplasty (TAA).
C) Brostrom procedure.
D) Watson-Jones procedure.
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Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Q1) Plyometric training drills are an example of an intervention to develop primarily which of the following?
A) Coordination
B) Power
C) Balance
D) Endurance
Q2) Healing of tissues and readiness to tolerate increased intensity of exercises with more resistance requires adjusting other parameters for safety and effectiveness.Which of the following describes a proper adjustment for a treatment session in which the resistance of the activity was increased for the first time?
A) Decrease repetitions
B) Increase speed
C) Position the resistance more distally
D) Reduce the rest time between repetitions
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25
Chapter 24: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) Each of the following contributes to the potential for pelvic floor muscle dysfunction following pregnancy except:
A) Planned cesarean delivery.
B) Injury to the pudendal nerve.
C) Tear/surgical laceration of the perineal body.
D) Stretch to the pelvic floor during late stage of pregnancy.
Q2) Each of the following is true about diastasis recti except:
A) A diastasis of the rectus abdominis is more prevalent in women with multiple pregnancies.
B) Manual support of the abdominals during abdominal exercises over the course of pregnancy corrects a diastasis.
C) The highest incidence of diastasis recti is during the third trimester.
D) A separation of the rectus muscle along the linea alba that is more than two finger widths is clinically significant.
Q3) During pregnancy,in which direction does the center of gravity of the body move?
A) Superior and posterior
B) Superior and anterior
C) Inferior and posterior
D) Inferior and anterior
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Q1) The treatment of lymphedema with compression therapy to the limb involves a combination of bandaging and use of compression garments.The decision of which type of compression to use depends on the phase of lymphedema treatment and the desired outcome.Which of the following is true regarding the proper utilization of compression treatment?
A) During phase II,a custom compression bandage or an Ace wrap can be used by the patient for self-management.
B) During phase I,only high-stretch bandages are used to provide continuous high resting and working pressure until limb reduction is achieved.
C) Low-stretch bandaging is used to achieve limb reduction in phase I and to continue limb reduction intervention at night during phase II.
D) Ace wraps are used during phase I to achieve limb reduction and during phase II to control limb size during vigorous activity.
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