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Introduction
Technology and Innovation Management explores the strategies, processes, and tools organizations use to foster technological advancements and drive innovation. The course examines the role of technology in shaping competitive advantage, the management of research and development activities, and the challenges of bringing new products and services to market. Students analyze case studies to understand best practices in innovation, learn how to assess and manage technological risk, and explore frameworks for capturing value from new technologies. Emphasis is placed on both established firms and startups, providing insights into how organizations can build a culture of innovation and sustain growth in fast-changing environments.
Recommended Textbook
New Products Management 10th Edition by C. Merle Crawford
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1103 Verified Questions
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Q1) The new products team ideally is self-directed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Firms with a global innovation culture have the most effective global new product programs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Research has shown that at least 40 percent of firms assign a marketing manager whose job it is to manage the phased new products process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Products that are inventions are called:
A)new-to-the-world products.
B)new category entries.
C)addition to product lines.
D)product improvements.
Answer: A

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Q1) In which phase of the new products process is the marketing plan sketched and gradually fleshed out?
A)Concept generation
B)Opportunity identification and selection
C)Concept / Project evaluation
D)Development
Answer: D
Q2) In this phase of the new products process,the opportunities are carefully and thoroughly described,then analyzed to confirm that a sales potential does,indeed,exist.Identify the phase in discussion.
A)Concept generation
B)Opportunity identification and selection
C)Concept / project evaluation
D)Development
Answer: B
Q3) Services are mass produced.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) User and end-use are not alike.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Given below are examples of corporate strengths that managements have asked be used to differentiate the firm's new products.Which of these have a market focus?
A)Herman Miller: Utilize our fine furniture designers
B)IBM: Be for all people in computers,not just techie type
C)Braun: Utilize innovative design in every product
D)White Consolidated: Be made on our assemble lines
Answer: B
Q3) Goals are short-term,specific measures of progress / accomplishment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Typically,the product innovation charter is prepared by team leaders. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following techniques of encouraging creativity is followed by the 3M Company?
A)Not imposing any rules on creative people.
B)Giving group rewards for innovation.
C)Not transferring creative people so that they get to understand various aspects of only the department they are working for.
D)Allowing free time for innovation.
Q2) Generally the "best" sequence for new product development is to progress from technology,to benefits,and then to the finished form.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following inputs,in the case of a service,required by the creation process can be BEST described as the sequence of steps by which the service will be created?
A)Form
B)Technology
C)Benefit
D)Conceptualization
Q4) Discuss the advantages and risks of open innovation.
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Q1) The end result of the problem-based concept generation process is:
A)a detailed situation analysis.
B)the selection of one or more problem identification techniques.
C)the development of concept statements for further evaluation.
D)a rank-ordered list of potential problems.
Q2) In static leap studies,the focus is on what changes must be made between now and then if the leap scenario is to come about.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following techniques can be used to identify those problems that customers or end users do not know they have at this time?
A)Focus group
B)Scenario analysis
C)Role playing
D)Product function analysis
Q4) Sorting and ranking problems according to their severity or importance uses the extent of the problem and the frequency of its occurrence.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The data obtained from users using customer attribute ratings is used for creating an OS perceptual gap map.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The data obtained from users using overall similarities are used to produce _____ GAP maps.
A)OS perceptual
B)AR perceptual
C)SA perceptual
D)determinant
Q3) Product attributes used in gap analysis,which differentiate between offerings and are important in consumer purchase decisions,are called _____ attributes.
A)purchase
B)consumer
C)developmental
D)determinant
Q4) Product attributes include features,functions,and benefits.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The displacement template,presented by Goldenberg and Mazursky,involves removing one of the components of the product and replacing it with one from another environment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of the following types of conjoint analyses is the respondent shown several alternative product choices and asked which one he / she would prefer?
A)Discrete choice analysis
B)Adaptive conjoint analysis
C)Choice-based conjoint analysis
D)Bayesian analysis
Q3) Checklists are one of today's most widely used idea-generating techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The simplest format for studying relationships is the ____.
A)attribute ratings perceptual gap map
B)two-dimensional matrix
C)morphological matrix
D)multidimensional matrix

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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the cumulative expenditure curve?
A)The early expenditure curve initially slopes downward and then starts sloping upward.
B)The late expenditure curve is representative of product development in technical fields such as optics.
C)The late expenditure curve initially slopes upward and then starts sloping downward.
D)The early expenditure curve is usually observed in the field of pharmaceuticals.
Q2) The evaluation issue during the launch phase in the new product process is whether the firm has proven itself able to make and market the item on a commercial scale.This issue is usually resolved by some form of ____.
A)market testing
B)prototype development
C)development protocol
D)iteration analysis
Q3) What are the important reasons for new product failure?
Q4) Discuss the risk / payoff matrix.Explain go error and drop error.
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Q1) Which of the following adopter groups are the most important for concept testing of new products and,probably,market acceptance?
A)Early majority and late majority
B)Early majority and laggards
C)Innovators and early adopters
D)Innovators and laggards
Q2) Concept testing will most likely work for which of the following types of product?
A)Concepts related to consumer packaged goods.
B)Concepts embodying new art and entertainment.
C)Concepts embodying some new technology that users cannot visualize.
D)Concepts related to a product whose prime benefit is a personal sense.
Q3) Concept testing can be used for developing an idea,not just for testing it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The BASES Group is the largest supplier of _____ tests.
A)market
B)concept
C)prototype
D)product use
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Q1) In reference to the screening model based on Project NewProd,which of the following is included in the "must-meet" criteria?
A)Strategic importance
B)Good strategic alignment between project and strategy
C)Product advantage to the customer
D)Market attractiveness
Q2) Full screening is most accurately done by using net present value analysis,which can give absolutely accurate financial estimates even in the earliest stages of the new product development process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following techniques can be used by a product champion to ensure that the concept gets a fair hearing at all turns?
A)By deciding the weights for the factors included in a scoring model
B)By selecting the appropriate scoring model
C)By establishing culling factors
D)By providing all favorable information
Q4) Discuss the NewProd screening model.
Q5) Explain the analytic hierarchy process.
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Q1) A firm may approve too many new product projects if:
A)simple financial hurdles are not the only criterion.
B)resource constraints are included in NPV calculations.
C)management does not overemphasize small,quick-hit projects.
D)low-quality work reduces the quality of information used for decision making.
Q2) Most common forecasting methods are extrapolations and work well on established products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many of the very successful product developing firms have realized that only focusing on financial analysis for a new product project is not enough.One must also reconsider the _____ and the strategic criteria it implies.
A)NPV
B)PIC
C)IRR
D)EPA
Q4) The A-T-A-R model is the basis of many simulated test markets.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the top-down and bottom-up approaches to strategy development.
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Q1) Technical people often come up with _____ for a new product first,based on technologies they have.
A)performance
B)features
C)functions
D)benefits
Q2) Most successful product development systems are _____ in nature and implementation.
A)linear
B)sequential
C)concurrent
D)non-repetitive
Q3) Product positioning can be facilitated to a large extent by quality function deployment which provides key information on desirable positioning options for products.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss product positioning.
Q5) Discuss the general purposes of the product protocol statement.
Q6) What are the three types of product attributes?
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Q1) What are derivative products?
Q2) BMW has designed disassembly and recycling into its cars.Used plastic parts are sorted,recycled,and made into new parts.Other components are either recycled or rebuilt,while unusable parts are incinerated to create energy.Here,BMW's cars can be best described as being designed:
A)for the environment.
B)for ease of manufacture.
C)to build or support corporate identity.
D)for price promotion.
Q3) Design consolidation seeks to bring together the best parts of each ideation to produce a single design.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ergonomics can be best defined as studying unmet customer needs with the help of perceptual gap mapping.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly define product architecture.What steps are involved in this process?
Q6) What is a prototype? What types of prototypes may be used,and for what purposes?
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Q1) GDTs use e-mail and phone to discuss design changes,but these tools are limited in that team members cannot work easily with three-dimensional models.
A)True
B)False
Q2) People who excel at interacting with people from other departments / firms are called _____.
A)champions
B)isolates
C)receptors
D)integrators
Q3) The members of which of the following new products organizations are most likely to be almost totally oriented / loyal to their departments?
A)Functional
B)Balanced matrix
C)Project matrix
D)Venture
Q4) What are the three categories of people based on their interrelationships outside their departments?
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Q1) Beta tests are designed to tell if original customer needs have been met.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The importance of product use testing is borne out by the fact that it supports the new product process by being involved in all of the following key concepts EXCEPT:
A)unique superior product.
B)repeat buying percentage in the A-T-A-R model.
C)guidelines in the mission statement.
D)requirements in the protocol.
Q3) The first "does it work" information is provided by _____.
A)early use experiences
B)pre-use sense reactions
C)beta tests
D)gamma tests
Q4) The _____ test is the simplest but it is less sensitive in results.
A)monadic
B)sequential monadic
C)paired comparison
D)triangular comparison
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Q1) Product cost is one of the common customer acceptance measures,used by firms as goals for individual products.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are common customer acceptance measures used by firms as goals for individual products EXCEPT:
A)revenue.
B)time to launch.
C)market share.
D)unit volume.
Q3) As the Aten Corp.introduces its new product into "upscale" stores,its "old" products are moved to "mass-merchandisers" and eventually,to discount stores.Identify the product replacement strategy being employed by the firm.
A)Splitting channels
B)Roll-in,roll-out
C)Marketing
D)Downgrading
Q4) Describe the various types of product line replacement strategies.
Q5) What is brand equity? Discuss its importance.
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Q1) When a firm removes competitors' products from customer shelves to fill them with its own products,it is known as stocklifting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following statements regarding resellers are true EXCEPT:
A)most resellers do a large volume of business in a standardized way with a small margin.
B)most goods use resellers,such as distributors and retail dealers.
C)the thinking of resellers should be represented in the product development process.
D)most resellers are willing to change their systems in order to acquire new products for distribution.
Q3) Typically,the copy strategy statement should be written by _____.
A)the finance manager
B)the product development / launch team
C)the CEO
D)copywriters
Q4) Discuss the tactics used for launching a product with low relative advantage and low compatibility.
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Q1) (p.466e)Radiant Corp. ,a manufacturer of consumer products,primarily sells its products to the consuming unit by means of catalogs and mail.It tests its new product lines,simply by listing them in some of its catalogs and counting the orders.Identify the market testing method being used by Radiant.
A)Minimarkets
B)Simulated test markets
C)Direct marketing
D)Speculative sale
Q2) Today,test marketing is used primarily to:
A)make go / no-go launch decisions.
B)fine-tune marketing plans.
C)simulate sales.
D)predict profits.
Q3) Which of the following method of market testing is least likely to be used for industrial goods?
A)Simulated test marketing
B)Speculative sale
C)Informal selling
D)Minimarketing
Q4) Discuss the various problems associated with simulated test markets.
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Q1) With reference to launch management,eyeball control refers to:
A)starting with a satisfied customer and working back from that satisfaction to determine the hierarchy of effects necessary to produce it.
B)externally validating the metrics that are used to evaluate a firm's new products process.
C)capturing the events leading up to the product launch and then trying to understand the thinking behind the actions taken.
D)moving around the market to find if problems are coming about,and then have in mind what will be done if they are.
Q2) Poor sales performance:
A)is a factor under the firm's control.
B)should automatically trigger a contingency plan.
C)should lead to a listing and tracking of causes.
D)should be tackled with the help of additional sales force.
Q3) Which of the following may be the most difficult to "shut down"?
A)New-to-the-world products
B)Product improvements
C)Repositionings
D)Me-too products
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Q1) An implied warranty is any statement of fact made by the manufacturer about a product,whether made by salespeople,retailers,or others.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Briefly trace the stages of the life cycle of a public concern.
Q3) Generally,_____ product innovation refers to either new product design or delivery that reduces negative impacts on the environment.
A)white
B)natural
C)green
D)social
Q4) In a product liability suit,lack of privity as a defense against negligence is not acceptable.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The concept of strict liability requires proof that a direct sale from the manufacturer to the injured user took place.
A)True
B)False
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