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Team Dynamics explores the fundamental principles of how individuals interact, communicate, and collaborate within groups to achieve shared objectives. The course examines key factors that influence team effectiveness, including leadership styles, group roles, decision-making processes, conflict resolution, diversity, and motivation. Students will engage in both theoretical analysis and practical exercises to understand group development stages, foster cohesion, and address challenges commonly encountered in team environments. Through case studies, discussions, and team-based projects, participants will develop essential skills for building and leading high-performing teams in academic, professional, and personal contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior 18th Edition by Stephen
P. Robbins
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Q1) According to Mintzberg, how does the monitor role differ from the disseminator role?
Answer: The monitor role involves collecting information from external organizations and institutions, typically by scanning the news media including the Internet, and talking with other people to learn of changes in the public's tastes, what competitors may be planning, and so forth. On the other hand, the disseminator role comprises transmitting information received from outsiders or from other employees to members of the organization.
Q2) What is withdrawal behavior? Explain.
Answer: Withdrawal behavior is the set of actions that employees take to separate themselves from the organization. There are many forms of withdrawal, ranging from showing up late or failing to attend meetings to absenteeism and turnover. Employee withdrawal can have a very negative effect on an organization. The cost of employee turnover alone has been estimated to run into the thousands of dollars, even for entry-level positions. Absenteeism also costs organizations significant amounts of money and time every year. Withdrawal behavior may result in the workflow being disrupted and important decisions being delayed. In today's changing world of work, reasonable levels of employee-initiated turnover improve organizational flexibility and employee independence, and they can lessen the need for management-initiated layoffs.
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Q1) Women being assigned marginal job roles that do not lead to promotion is an example of the ________ form of discrimination.
A) hazing
B) gaslighting
C) coercion
D) exclusion
E) battery
Answer: D
Q2) Diversity management refers to being unbiased by overlooking the differences between individuals in an organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Inductive reasoning is the ability to identify a logical sequence in a problem and then solve the problem.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Describe a workplace example of how people seek consistency among their attitudes and their behavior by reducing cognitive dissonance. Then, sort your example into the three main components of attitudes.
Answer: Student examples may vary. The following is a sample response. Harry, working for a tobacco company, can ignore the scientific information that tobacco is harmful because he receives high rewards in the form of a high salary. This allows him to reduce the cognitive dissonance between his feelings of discomfort with his company's product and his job satisfaction. The cognitive part of Harry's attitude is the evaluation that tobacco is harmful. The affective part of the attitude is feeling certain discomfort knowing that he works for a company that is harming people. The behavioral component of Harry's attitude is ignoring the information to continue to receive the high salary.
Q2) People seek consistency between their attitudes and their behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Ben Ervin often experiences emotions in a much stronger manner than most of his other colleagues. Events that do not provoke any significant emotional response from another person send him into fits of happiness, anger, or depression. In view of such a situation, Ervin is displaying a high level of ________.
A) intelligence quotient
B) sentience quotient
C) intellectual giftedness
D) butterfly effect
E) affect intensity
Q2) Surface acting deals only with ________ emotions.
A) negative
B) weak
C) cognitive
D) strong
E) displayed
Q3) Moods are more intense than emotions and invariably arise because of a specific event acting as a stimulus.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Esther Lugo has gone for an interview at an advertising firm in Manhattan and has been asked to complete a self-report survey to help interviewers understand if she is the right candidate for the job. From the interview, they have found that she is extroverted, empathic, scrupulous, and cooperative in nature, which are key characteristics needed for the job. These characteristics about Lugo indicate her ________.
A) talent
B) skill
C) knowledge
D) genealogy
E) personality
Q2) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people with an ENTP personality type are most likely to be ________.
A) illogical
B) innovative
C) intuitive
D) skeptical
E) stubborn
Q3) Briefly describe the five key traits in the Big Five model.
Q4) Describe the typical characteristics associated with a proactive personality.
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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to a situation in which a person inaccurately perceives another person and the resulting expectations cause the other person to behave in ways consistent with the original perception?
A) confirmation bias
B) self-fulfilling prophecy
C) attribution theory
D) contrast effect
E) bandwagon effect
Q2) Which of the following terms best describes the tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others?
A) fundamental attribution error
B) bandwagon effect
C) contrast effect
D) emotional dissonance
E) self-fulfilling prophecy
Q3) What is escalation of commitment? Explain.
Q4) Explain hindsight bias.
Q5) What is perception? Discuss the factors that influence perception.
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Q1) The investment of an employee's physical, cognitive, and emotional energies into job performance is called ________.
A) vicarious modeling
B) self-determination
C) job engagement
D) management by objectives
E) job analysis
Q2) Which of these five employees is most likely to be suitable for a new assignment that involves a high degree of personal responsibility and feedback?
A) Joe
B) Mary
C) Tim
D) Sarah
E) Doug
Q3) According to goal-setting theory, a specific goal will produce a higher level of output than a generalized goal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the three key elements in the definition of motivation.
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Q1) On an organizational level, job design and the extrinsic rewards of pay and benefits are the only ways to motivate employees.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An arrangement that allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job is called ________.
A) flextime
B) job sharing
C) gainsharing
D) telecommuting
E) job rotation
Q3) Which of the following is the distinct characteristic of participative management programs?
A) joint decision making
B) representative participation
C) performance norms
D) establishment of work councils
E) autocratic decision making
Q4) What are the various dimensions of the job characteristics model?
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Q1) Groupthink is a phenomenon that relates to the consensus norms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Studies show that groups tend to experience a transition precisely halfway between a first meeting and the official deadline.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The development of temporary work groups with finite deadlines is best understood in terms of three sequences in the group development process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the relationship between role conflict and reference groups.
Q5) A group's last meeting is usually characterized by a great deal of inactivity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Norms can cover any aspect of group behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain group polarization.
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Q1) Conscientiousness and openness to experience are two personality dimensions of the Big Five personality model that predict better performance in teams.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ teams are defined as groups of employees who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors.
A) Independent
B) Self-managed work
C) Cross-functional
D) Problem-solving
E) Traditional
Q3) People scoring high on ________ are valuable in teams because they're good at backing up fellow team members and at sensing when their support is truly needed.
A) conscientiousness
B) positivity
C) emotional stability
D) agreeableness
E) openness to experience
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Q1) Norah Baines is one of the most devoted teachers at Oakwood Academy. She has been working with the institution for seven years and is expecting a promotion soon. However, Norah's candidacy for this promotion is passed over in favor of another less experienced male employee due to, in Norah's view, her plans to start a family soon. Consequently, Norah expresses her concerns and even complains to other teachers and expresses her frustration and disappointment. Norah's communication falls into the ________ aspect of communication.
A) management
B) feedback
C) facilitation
D) emotional sharing
E) informal
Q2) Explain how the grapevine functions and why it exists in organizational communication.
Q3) The all-channel network is practiced most commonly in ________.
A) traditional teams
B) self-managed teams
C) cross-functional teams
D) problem-solving groups
E) work groups
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the path-goal theory of leadership?
A) The theory considers leadership to be a set of attributes ascribed to leaders by followers.
B) The theory proposes only a passive and supportive role for leaders.
C) The theory considers removing obstacles to be a component of effective leadership.
D) The theory proposes that leaders must work closely with followers throughout.
E) The path-goal theory represents a laissez-faire approach to leadership.
Q2) A(n) ________ is a senior employee who sponsors and supports a less-experienced employee, a protégé.
A) intern
B) subordinate
C) supervisee
D) mentor
E) apprentice
Q3) Describe the full range of leadership model.
Q4) Describe the path-goal theory of leadership.
Q5) Describe the relationship between trust and leadership.
Q6) What are the key characteristics of charismatic leaders?
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Q1) Interviewers are rarely able to detect when an individual is engaging in impression management.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain expert power with reference to the dimensions of importance, scarcity, and nonsubstitutability.
Q3) Define political behavior and explain its features.
Q4) Research on power is likely to provide information on the most effective ________.
A) leadership styles for motivating followers
B) methods to reduce dependence on leaders
C) tactics for gaining compliance of employees
D) methods of rewarding successful employees
E) modes of assessing employee performance
Q5) Which of the following impression management techniques uses ingratiation?
A) flattery
B) exemplification
C) enhancement
D) conformity
E) apologies
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Q1) In which of the following situations is mediation most likely to be effective?
A) The conflict between the parties involved in mediation is at a moderate level.
B) One of the parties involved in the negotiation perceives the mediator as biased.
C) There is a large gap between the target points of both the parties.
D) One of the parties involved in the negotiation perceives the mediator as coercive.
E) None of the parties is willing to disclose its BATNA.
Q2) All of the following are benefits of conflict in organizations except ________.
A) increased self-evaluation and change
B) increased groupthink
C) increased creativity and innovation
D) increased curiosity among group members
E) increased opportunity to air problems
Q3) Studies demonstrate that in work settings, relationship conflicts are almost always dysfunctional. Why?
Q4) What is BATNA? Discuss the significance of BATNA.
Q5) Describe the five conflict-handling intentions that are based on the dimensions of cooperativeness and assertiveness.
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Q1) A ________ organization is a small, core organization that outsources major business functions.
A) centralized
B) virtual
C) bureaucratic
D) matrix
E) formalized
Q2) A(n) ________ model is generally synonymous with the bureaucracy in that it has highly standardized processes for work, high formalization, and more managerial hierarchy.
A) mechanistic
B) organic
C) network
D) boundaryless
E) pyramidal
Q3) In centralized organizations, top managers make all the decisions, and lower-level managers merely carry out their directives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the various characteristics of bureaucracy.
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Q1) During the socialization process, to work out any problems discovered during the encounter stage, the new member changes or goes through the ________ stage.
A) post-arrival
B) metamorphosis
C) post-encounter
D) analysis
E) evaluation
Q2) To create a truly sustainable business, an organization must develop a long-term culture and put its values into practice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe and explain the five most prevalent climate categories that comprise the ethical dimensions of organization cultures.
Q4) Subcultures act to undermine the dominant culture.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the various situations under which culture acts as a liability.
Q6) Compare and contrast dominant culture and subculture.
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Q1) Performance evaluations identify training and development needs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare and contrast unstructured interview and behavioral structured interview.
Q3) Which of the following is a forced comparison method of performance evaluation?
A) written essays
B) trait evaluations
C) group order ranking
D) critical incident method
E) graphic rating scales
Q4) You are introducing self-managed teams and implementing quality-management programs. It would be important to conduct training in ________ skills.
A) basic literacy
B) technical
C) interpersonal
D) problem-solving
E) interdependence
Q5) A formal mentoring program is an example of an off-the-job training method.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following reactions from employees is preferable as a response to change?
A) silence
B) apathy
C) resignation
D) open discussion
E) increase in the use of sick time
Q2) Who are change agents?
Q3) Benny is stressed with the new corporate reorganization. He now reports to a foreign office that has usurped many of his responsibilities, including the contract labor for his projects. Therefore, he's working with new and less qualified contractors with whom he doesn't have a relationship. However, the managers of the other departments find themselves in the same boat, and every day they are able to laugh over lunch about their new managerial impotence. ________ is helping Benny handle his stress.
A) Emotional contagion
B) Cognitive dissonance
C) Social support
D) Time management
E) Self-efficacy
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