
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Team Dynamics explores the principles and processes that influence how individuals interact and collaborate within groups to achieve common goals. The course examines theoretical frameworks and practical strategies for understanding group formation, roles, communication patterns, leadership, conflict resolution, and decision-making. Students will analyze factors that impact team effectiveness, such as diversity, motivation, trust, and organizational culture, and will engage in activities and case studies to develop skills for building and leading high-performing teams in a range of professional settings.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Organizational Behavior 2nd Edition by Terri A. Scandura
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1582 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the relevance of applied social psychology to organizational behavior research.
Answer: Applied social psychology studies how people interact in groups and can address significant challenges that organizational leaders face today. Trends such as organizational restructuring and changes in technology have resulted in the need to lead through change. Through the many types of organizational changes, an understanding of social psychology can help leaders understand followers' motivation, needs, and well-being, as well as maintain productivity and minimize turnover. By understanding psychology, leaders can solve problems and lead change more effectively.
Q2) The scientific method process is just as important in OB research as it is in any other research field.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q3) A primary research area for OB scholars is biology.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Type ABCD personality theory, which type is more relaxed and easygoing?
A) Type C
B) Type A
C) Type B
D) Type D
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is not generally impacted by managerial intervention?
A) job attitudes
B) personality
C) work life balance
D) work relationships
Answer: B
Q3) Andrea has been reading about psychological capital. Which of the following can she expect through implementing an effective psychological capital training program?
A) reduced performance
B) lower satisfaction.
C) empowerment and engagement
D) improved work-life balance
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moods are ______.
A) related to something that happens to a person
B) less enduring than emotions
C) general feeling states
D) intense enough to interrupt thought patterns at work
Answer: C
Q2) Affect-driven behaviors are different from judgment-driven behaviors because they ______.
A) are driven by more long-term attitudes
B) have (relatively) immediate consequences
C) do not impact coworkers
D) do not impact behaviors
Answer: B
Q3) Sean has been told he has negative affect. Which of the following is likely to be true about him?
A) lower productivity
B) higher performance
C) generally happy all the time
D) better working relationships
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is defined as the moral obligation to stay with the organization--because it is the right thing to do?
A) normative commitment
B) job commitment
C) continuance commitment
D) affective commitment
Q2) Which of the following is defined as the investments of an individual's complete self into a role?
A) perceived organizational support
B) employee engagement
C) job involvement
D) organizational commitment
Q3) Which of the following are most likely to focus on their future with the organization?
A) Lone Wolves
B) Institutional Stars
C) Corporate Citizens
D) Apathetics
Q4) Why is it important to understand employees' job satisfaction?
Q5) Describe which component of organizational commitment is most important.
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Q1) Which of the following occurs when people are asked to generate their own explanations of factual statements presented to them?
A) imaginative interrogation
B) restrictive interrogation
C) elaborative interrogation
D) biased interrogation
Q2) Which of the following is defined by linking the information you need to remember to something familiar and easily retrievable?
A) rehearsal
B) coding
C) imaging
D) availability bias
Q3) What is defined as flaws in perception due to mental shortcuts?
A) attribution
B) judgment bias
C) perceptual errors
D) hindsight bias
Q4) How can you use your knowledge of employability to increase your chance of getting hired?
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Yukl's definition of leadership, leadership is a ______.
A) trait
B) skill
C) behavior
D) process
Q2) Most followers are completely dependent on their boss.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to research on LMX theory, having high-quality relationships with one's leader is positively related to ______.
A) higher performance
B) decreased satisfaction
C) less commitment
D) increased turnover intentions
Q4) According to a global survey by Edelman, how many people criticize distrusted companies on line?
A) 58%
B) 38%
C) 42%
D) 8%

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Q1) Define power and influence and provide an example of each.
Q2) Apparent sincerity is appearing to others as genuine and honest.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research has found potential causes of POP including ______.
A) job security
B) increased trust
C) ample resources
D) job ambiguity
Q4) The ability to adapt influence strategies to different situations is called ______.
A) networking ability
B) social astuteness
C) interpersonal influence
D) apparent sincerity
Q5) A precursor to high POP can be ______.
A) job ambiguity
B) job satisfaction
C) turnover intentions
D) unethical leadership
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Q1) The role of leaders in the goal setting process is important for ______.
A) aligning the goals set for the employee with the organization's goals
B) job satisfaction
C) accountability for results
D) micromanaging goal attainment
Q2) The value of goals or outcomes is called ______.
A) expectancy
B) valence
C) self-efficacy
D) instrumentality
Q3) Which of the following is the drive to meet our fullest capacity (e.g., growth and feeling fulfilled as a person)?
A) physiological
B) self-actualization
C) esteem
D) safety
Q4) What limitations would you put on job crafting? What are the dangers of no limitations on job crafting?
Q5) How can a leader identify growth needs in his or her followers?
Q6) Explain why feedback is important for the goal setting process.
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Q1) Amanda knows that motivation is important in the workplace. As a manager, she is trying to understand the concept of reinforcers. Amanda should know that a reinforcer is
______.
A) an event that only weakens the behavior it follows
B) an event that only strengthens the behavior it follows
C) an event that strengthens or weakens behavior that precedes it
D) an event that strengthens or weakens behavior it follows
Q2) A study suggests that followers will accept feedback when they are rated lower than their peers if they have a trusting and high-quality relationship with their boss and
A) Image maintenance and enhancement
B) Ego-defense enhancement
C) Accuracy in self-view
D) A voice during the process.
Q3) According to recent research, cash bonuses are more effective motivators than small personalized gifts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the principles of reinforcement theory.
Q5) Compare and contrast intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The punctuated equilibrium effect appears to be most prevalent in which of the following types of teams?
A) Permanent teams with ongoing deadlines.
B) Temporary teams with fixed deadlines.
C) Permanent teams with fixed deadlines.
D) Temporary teams with ongoing deadlines.
Q2) Which of the following stages of the five-stage development model for teams is when team members may experience stress due to the uncertainty of not knowing the other team members and understanding their role on the team?
A) adjourning
B) storming
C) forming
D) norming
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of a high-performing team?
A) Team members are deeply committed to their individual growth and development.
B) High-performing teams typically arise during the storming phase.
C) High-performing teams are essential for organizations.
D) High-performing teams are common.
Q4) Compare and contrast two models of team development.
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Q1) Which of the following conflict-handling styles reflects an inability to deal with conflict in which the person withdraws from the conflict situation?
A) obliging
B) avoiding
C) compromising
D) integrating
Q2) Which of the following is described as conflict that engenders strong emotions such as anger or disgust?
A) supervisory conflict
B) process conflict
C) affective conflict
D) substantive conflict
Q3) Helena is a person who resolves conflict between two or more parties. When she is brought in to resolve conflict, her decision is legally binding on both parties. Helena can best be called a(n) ______.
A) mediator
B) facilitator
C) arbitrator
D) judge
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Q1) Due to noise and communication barriers, it is important for the receiver of a communication to provide feedback to the sender to ensure that the communicated message was understood correctly. This can be accomplished through ______.
A) active listening
B) acronyms
C) slang
D) medium
Q2) Nick consistently uses the Internet for personal reasons during work hours. Which of the following best describes what Nick is doing?
A) cyberslacking
B) social loafing
C) social networking
D) grapevining
Q3) The pattern in which communication flows in organizations can be referred to as ______.
A) communication linkages
B) communication systems
C) communication networks
D) communication grids
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Q1) Despite years of cynicism, the ______ generation are "pro-business."
A) boomer
B) Gen Z
C) millennial
D) Gen Xer
Q2) A study of Standard & Poor's firms over a 15-year period showed that having women in top management teams improves firm performance for firms whose strategy is focused on ______.
A) creativity
B) innovation
C) growth
D) global strategy
Q3) Which of the following dimensions of Hofstede's cultural values is risk aversion?
A) relationship orientation
B) uncertainty avoidance
C) power distance
D) collectivism-individualism
Q4) Identify and describe Hofstede's five dimensions of national culture.
Q5) Compare and contrast high-context and low-context cultures.
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Q1) What is the process of welcoming and orienting new organizational members to facilitate their adjustment to the organization, its culture, and its practice?
A) acculturation
B) assimilation
C) indoctrination
D) onboarding
Q2) Define organizational culture in your own words.
Q3) Identify and describe the three general subcultures that exist in most organizations.
Q4) Which aspect of ethical climate is typified by the statement, "each person in this company decides for themselves what is right and wrong"?
A) caring
B) instrumental
C) independence
D) rules
Q5) Identify and describe the four organizational culture values that appear to be important in most cultures.
Q6) Identify and describe the four ways that employees learn organizational culture.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe some ways to deal with stress, and propose a plan that you think works for you.
Q2) Brandi has just been given a new project to work on that will require a lot of overtime but is directly related to her MBA research thesis. Brandi is experiencing ______.
A) performance stress
B) challenge-related stress
C) Goal stress
D) hindrance-related stress
Q3) Incremental changes are typically swift and dramatic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The combination of greater psychological job demands and lower job control is the definition of ______.
A) cognitive dissonance
B) change uncertainty
C) psychological job strain
D) organizational stress
Q5) Describe the action Yum! Brands, Inc., took to implement a proactive and radical cultural change.
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