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This course explores the principles and practices essential to effective teamwork and leadership within organizations. Students will examine the stages of team development, roles within teams, and strategies for managing group dynamics and conflict. Topics include motivation, communication, decision-making, diversity, and ethical leadership. Through case studies, group projects, and self-assessment exercises, participants will develop skills to enhance team performance, foster collaboration, and lead diverse groups toward shared goals in various professional contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior 10th Edition by Robert Kreitner
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18 Chapters
1914 Verified Questions
1914 Flashcards
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the characteristics of past managers and 21<sup>st</sup> century managers.
Answer: Past managers saw themselves as order-givers who relied on formal authority as a source of influence. Communication patterns were typically vertical in nature and information was restricted. Employees were often viewed as a source of problems and competitive interpersonal relationships. 21<sup>st</sup> century managers see themselves as facilitators and coaches. They rely on technical and interpersonal knowledge as a power base. Communication flows in multiple directions and information is shared. Employees are viewed as a valued resource and partners in cooperative interpersonal relationships.
Q2) E-business has evolved into e-commerce i.e. using the Internet to facilitate every aspect of running a business, including the management of virtual teams.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The three levels of OB analysis are individual, business, and strategic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

Page 3
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104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ethnocentrism represents the feeling that one's cultural rules and norms are superior or more appropriate than the rules and norms of another culture.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) According to the information/decision-making theory:
A)female employees face the glass ceiling to a greater extent than do minority employees.
B)minority employees face the glass ceiling to a greater extent than do female employees.
C)homogeneous work groups will outperform heterogeneous work groups.
D)heterogeneous work groups will outperform homogeneous work groups.
E)gender and racial diversity lead to negative outcomes.
Answer: D
Q3) Equal access to training and learning opportunities when it comes to new technology will help to keep older workers engaged and committed to working.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which of the following organizational cultures values stability, and focuses on achieving effectiveness with measures of timeliness, efficiency, and safety?
A)Market culture
B)Entrepreneurial culture
C)Clan culture
D)Adhocracy culture
E)Hierarchy culture
Answer: E
Q2) A vision represents:
A)a long-term goal that describes "what" an organization wants to become.
B)outlines an organization's long-term goals and the actions necessary to achieve these goals.
C)the set of shared, taken-for-granted implicit assumptions that a group holds and that determines how it perceives, thinks about, and reacts to its various environments.
D)a plan that has the organization's template for hiring procedures.
E)the history of an organization.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the most important work-related value for Protestants.
A)Employer effectiveness
B)Consideration
C)Continuity
D)Social responsibility
E)Professional challenge
Q2) Culture usually remains above the threshold of conscious awareness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is the belief that one's native country, culture, language, and behavior are superior to others.
A)Ethnocentrism
B)Cultural cringe
C)Geocentrism
D)Collectivism
E)Cultural affectivity
Q4) Most cultural lessons are learned by observing and imitating role models.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe the nine cultural dimensions from the GLOBE project.
Page 6
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a person's belief about his or her chances of successfully accomplishing a specific task.
A)Self-esteem
B)Self-efficacy
C)Self-monitoring
D)Cognition
E)Personality
Q2) Some employees at Harley-Davidson factories have had the company logo tattooed on their bodies. This example is an indication of _____.
A)strong organizational identification
B)low self-esteem
C)high self-monitoring
D)low self-efficacy
E)high emotional intelligence
Q3) Self-efficacy is functionally the same thing as self-esteem.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Successful performance depends solely on skill.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Attitudes have affective, cognitive, and behavioral components.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Kim lives and works in a small town, even though she prefers life in a bigger city. She is quite dissatisfied with her current job and is thinking of leaving the organization. She is worried, however, about her ability to find other employment that pays as well as her current job. Additionally, she is concerned about finding another organization that offers medical benefits. Based on this information, Kim is experiencing _____.
A)inequity
B)withdrawal cognitions
C)emotional detachment
D)affective dissonance
E)unmet expectations
Q3) Job involvement is the extent to which an individual is immersed in his or her present job.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is an attitude? Explain the three components of attitudes. How are attitudes related to cognitive dissonance?
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Sample Questions
Q1) High consistency implies that a person performs a certain task better than others.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Johnnie had difficulty reading even in grade school. His teachers felt he would "never able to improve," and on numerous occasions, told him so. Even when they didn't say it directly, Johnnie knew how they felt. Since his teachers thought there was no hope for Johnnie, they didn't spend any time to improve his reading skills. Soon, he began to hate going to school, and his grades also suffered. Which of the following best explains Johnnie's situation?
A)The self-serving bias
B)The Golem effect
C)Kelly's model of attribution
D)Inaccurate information storage and retention
E)Selective attention and comprehension
Q3) Attention is the process of becoming consciously aware of something or someone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the process by which stereotypes are formed and maintained.
Q5) Explain the practical applications of the attribution models in the workplace.
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Q1) What is the primary managerial implication of Maslow's theory?
A)Job-security pledges have no motivational impact.
B)Safety needs can be satisfied using status symbols.
C)A satisfied need may lose its motivational potential.
D)Greater job autonomy satisfies the esteem need.
E)Greater job responsibility satisfies the love need.
Q2) Carol is a recent high-school graduate with an excellent grade point average. After much thought, she has decided that she wants to pursue a graduate degree in physics after she finishes her undergrad degree and eventually become a professor. To attain this goal, she realizes that she must first study hard and do well in her undergraduate classes, then take the graduate entrance exam and apply to the best graduate programs in her field. Along the way, she wants to obtain an internship, as this will help her get into a quality graduate program. Which motivational mechanism of the goal setting process does this scenario demonstrate?
A)Directing attention
B)Regulating effort
C)Increasing persistence
D)Fostering strategies and action plans
E)Receiving feedback
Q3) Explain the factors of Herzberg's motivator-hygiene theory.
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Q1) Joshua used to run into heavy traffic every day while driving to work. One morning, he left his home earlier than usual and did not run into heavy traffic. Again the next morning, he left earlier and avoided heavy traffic. His behavior of leaving earlier enabled him to avoid heavy traffic and reach office on time. Which of the following processes did Joshua engage in?
A)Positive reinforcement
B)Extinction
C)Punishment
D)Negative reinforcement
E)Intermittent reinforcement
Q2) Employees with a clear _____ understand the organization's strategic goals and know what actions they need to take, both individually and as team members.
A)performance appraisal system
B)job satisfaction
C)line of sight
D)job description
E)regulation
Q3) Discuss the general steps to follow when implementing a goal-setting program.
Q4) Why do extrinsic rewards too often fail to motivate employees?
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a manager decide the optimum size of a work group?
Q2) Role ambiguity occurs when others have inconsistent or conflicting expectations from the focal person.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Norms tend to be enforced by group members when they help individuals avoid embarrassing situations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A group member who says _____ is performing a maintenance role.
A)"What is the real issue here? We don't seem to be going anywhere."
B)"Let's accept and praise the various points of view."
C)"We can do this. We've met difficult goals before."
D)"Last week we decided to table this agenda item. Are we ready to address it again?"
E)"A goal of 150 per week sounds reasonable."
Q5) What are the key issues in each stage of the Tuckman's group development process?
Q6) Distinguish between roles and norms. Why do norms exist in organizations?
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Q1) Cooperation with intergroup competition promotes higher achievement and productivity than cooperation without intergroup competition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Trust is defined as reciprocal faith in others' intentions and behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Production teams require a high degree of technical specialization and a low degree of coordination with other work units.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ is a sense of "we-ness" that helps groups stay together.
A)Reciprocity
B)Collaboration
C)Cooperation
D)Cohesiveness
E)Viability
Q5) What is team building? What do team-building activities strive for? Briefly describe a few team-building activities.
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ style causes people to have a hard time saying no to others and to have difficulty making difficult decisions.
A)Behavioral
B)Judgment
C)Directive
D)Conceptual
E)Analytic
Q2) Computer-aided decision making increases consensus roadblocks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding judgmental heuristics?
A)They are shortcuts that increase information-processing demands.
B)They refer to decisions made purely on the basis of evidence.
C)They are used by people without conscious awareness.
D)They increase the uncertainty inherent within the decision-making process.
E)They reduce systematic errors that erode the quality of decision making.
Q4) Behavioral types are supportive, receptive to suggestions, show warmth, and prefer verbal to written information.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) Mediation is a form of alternative dispute resolution that renders a decision.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Laura is head of Ryan Systems. She needs to allocate a fixed amount of funds into various projects. There are two top projects that Laura believes hold the most promise. She decides to arrange a structured debate for the two top proposals. Importantly, the assumptions of each proposal are identified, and a conflicting counterproposal is generated based on a different set of assumptions. Advocates of each position present and debate the merits of their proposal before Laura makes her decision. Which technique is Laura using to help her make a better decision?
A)Dialectic method
B)Devil's advocacy
C)Dialogic process
D)Mediation
E)Negotiation
Q3) An agreement that leaves one party feeling exploited or defeated tends to breed resentment.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of people with an assertive communication style?
A)Slumped posture
B)Threatening gestures
C)Glaring eye contact
D)The use of "I" and cooperative "we" statements
E)Swear words and abusive language
Q2) Men are more likely to take ideas stated by women and claim them as their own.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the sources of nonverbal behaviors that foster communication. Which types of nonverbal behaviors hinder communication?
Q4) Men and women interpret touching differently.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast the assertive, aggressive, and nonassertive styles of communication.
Q6) A two-way face-to-face conversation has the lowest media richness.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Compared to coalitions, networks _____.
A)are issue oriented
B)are tight associations of individuals
C)have short-term goals
D)have broader agendas
E)pivot on specific issues
Q2) Employees who are highly political run the risk of being called self-serving and losing their credibility.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is the process whereby employees play a direct role in setting goals, making decisions, solving problems, and making changes in the organization.
A)Ingratiation
B)Participative management
C)Impression management
D)Power assessment
E)Networking
Q4) Identify the nine generic influence tactics.
Q5) Compare and contrast coalitions and networks.
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the _____ theory of leadership, leadership is something that is learned. In other words, leaders are made, not born.
A)behavioral style
B)path-goal
C)trait
D)situational
E)attribute
Q2) Which of the following types of leaderships engenders trust, seeks to develop leadership in others, exhibits self-sacrifice and serves as a moral agent?
A)Trait leadership
B)Transformational leadership
C)Contingency leadership
D)Path-goal leadership
E)Leader-member exchange leadership
Q3) Consideration involves leader behavior associated with creating mutual respect or trust and focuses on a concern for group members' needs and desires.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A functional structure groups together activities related to outputs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The four basic dimensions of organizational structure are hierarchy of authority, division of labor, spans of control, and line and staff positions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding line and staff positions?
A)Staff personnel occupy formal decision-making positions within the chain of command.
B)Line personnel are responsible for supplying background research to the staff personnel.
C)On an organizational chart, generally, line positions are connected by dotted lines.
D)On an organizational chart, generally, staff positions are indicated by solid lines.
E)The president and executive directors of a company are examples of line managers.
Q4) Compare and contrast closed and open systems.
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Q1) Stress that is positive or produces a positive outcome is referred to as eustress.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a very useful control-oriented strategy for dealing with stress that can be used by everyone?
A)Escape strategy
B)Take-charge tone
C)Avoiding the problem
D)Psychological detachment
E)Confrontation
Q3) Technological advancements and market changes are external forces for change.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Kotter's research reveals that because managers most often make mistakes at the end, it is ineffective to skip steps.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Outline the key aspects to a holistic wellness approach.
Q6) What is eustress? Explain how positive events can cause stress.
Page 20
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