Talent Management Test Bank
Course Introduction
Talent Management explores the strategic processes organizations use to attract, develop, motivate, and retain high-performing employees. This course covers key concepts such as workforce planning, talent acquisition, onboarding, performance management, succession planning, and employee engagement. Students will analyze best practices and contemporary approaches to building a competitive workforce, addressing challenges in global and diverse contexts. Through case studies and practical exercises, participants will learn to align talent management strategies with business goals and develop the skills required for effective human capital management.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 14th Edition by Robert L. Mathis
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Chapter 1: Human Resource Management in Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specialized research capabilities, patents, information systems, designs, operating processes, and copyrights are classified as intellectual capital.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following is a specialized human resource organization?
A) WorldatWork Association
B) Organization for Economic Cooperation
C) Ethics Resource Center
D) U.S. Small Business Association
Answer: A
Q3) The Organization for Economic Cooperation has recommended that global multinational firms establish and implement stricter ethical standards to aid business development.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Human Resources Strategy and Planning
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Q1) Discuss current and future jobs audit and the key questions that are addressed during internal jobs assessment.
Answer: The starting point for evaluating internal workforce strengths and weaknesses is an audit of the jobs that need to be done in the organization. A comprehensive analysis of all current jobs provides a basis for forecasting what jobs will need to be done in the future. Much of the data required for the audit should be available from existing staffing and organizational databases. The following are key questions that are addressed during the internal jobs assessment:
What jobs exist now and how essential is each job?
How many individuals are performing each job?
What are the reporting relationships of jobs?
What are the vital KSAs (knowledge, skills, and abilities) needed in the jobs?
What jobs will be needed to implement future organizational strategies?
What are the characteristics of those anticipated jobs?
Q2) Define organizational mission.
Answer: Organizational mission is the core reason for the existence of the organization and what makes it unique.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Equal Employment Opportunity
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Q1) List five ways preventing charges of retaliation.
Answer: To prevent charges of retaliation, the following actions are recommended for employers:
1. Create and disseminate an antiretaliation policy.
2. Train supervisors on what retaliation is and what is not appropriate.
3. Review all performance evaluation and discipline records to ensure consistency and accuracy.
4. Conduct a thorough internal investigation of any claims and document the results.
5. Take appropriate action when any retaliation occurs.
Q2) The _____ requires employers to verify the employment status of all employees, while not discriminating because of national origin or ethnic background.
A) Civil Rights Act
B) Rehabilitation Act
C) Immigration Reform and Control Act
D) Older Workers Benefit Protection Act
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Workforce, Jobs, and Job Analysis
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Q1) Jill, who works with SunFun LLC, is responsible for handling the job analysis in her organization. She has developed job descriptions and job specifications. Which of the following will typically be Jill's next step?
A) Preparing for and introducing job analysis
B) Maintaining and updating job descriptions and job specifications
C) Planning the job analysis
D) Conducting the job analysis
Q2) A duty is a distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Job design refers to organizing tasks, duties, responsibilities, and other elements into a productive unit of work.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Reviewing drafts with managers and employees is a subtask of _____.
A) developing job descriptions
B) conducting the job analysis
C) planning the job analysis
D) preparing for and introducing the job analysis
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Chapter 5: Individualorganization Relations and Retention
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Q1) Discuss a few strategies to improve retention in organizations.
Q2) _____ is defined as the percentage of employees at the beginning of a period who remain at the end.
A) Retention rate
B) Turnover rate
C) Absenteeism ratio
D) Productivity rate
Q3) What are the expectations that are usually recognized by psychological contracts?
Q4) Jane quit Cover Corp. without completing a high-priority project that she was handling. Due to her unavailability, the four remaining members of her team had to work overtime and they demanded adequate compensation to justify their extra hours of work. In this case, the amount subsequently paid to them best exemplifies:
A) separation costs.
B) vacancy costs.
C) replacement costs.
D) training costs.
Q5) Describe the main differences between engaged and disengaged employees in an organization.
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Chapter 6: Recruiting and Labor Markets
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Q1) Job fairs are primarily useful for:
A) rapid hiring of large numbers of people.
B) maintaining a continuous presence in a local labor market.
C) passive recruiting.
D) keeping out unemployable applicants.
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of school and college recruiting?
A) Vocational colleges and technical schools often have cooperative programs with employers that funnel quality students into regular jobs.
B) College recruiting is one of the least expensive recruitment methods.
C) Companies who target minority students before they graduate are likely to be violating EEO laws.
D) School and college recruiting is a type of internal recruitment.
Q3) Calculating the average time from contact to hire allows a firm to most accurately:
A) calculate the cost per hire.
B) estimate the efficiency of recruiters.
C) calculate the "float time" in the recruiting process.
D) target the most time-efficient recruiting sources.
Q4) Define the term employment brand.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Selecting Human Resources
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Q1) HR professionals are least likely to make the final hiring decisions when _____ positions are filled.
A) clerical
B) contract
C) entry-level
D) middle-management
Q2) EEO laws require employers to collect data on race, sex, and other demographics about their applicants but, legally, employers are not allowed to use this information in making hiring decisions except in very limited circumstances.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is legal for an employer to check a person's Social Security number, motor vehicle records, and military records when performing a background check on an applicant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the types of global employees that need to be considered when selecting candidates for international assignments?
Q5) What are the key competencies for successful global employees?
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Chapter 8: Training Human Resources
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Q1) An artificial surgical environment in which a surgeon could practice a new type of operation without harming a human being or sacrificing a laboratory animal would be called:
A) simulation.
B) blended learning.
C) cross training.
D) self-guided training.
Q2) Orientation is the planned introduction of new employees to their jobs, coworkers, and the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The fire fighters of Lake Hogan Fire Department train constantly to keep their skills honed so that they can respond quickly to sudden changes in an emergency situation. This best exemplifies:
A) behavioral modeling.
B) overlearning.
C) reinforcement and immediate confirmation.
D) spaced practice.
Q4) Why does informal training occur?
Q5) What is an orientation program? Why is it important?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Talent, Careers, and Development
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Q1) How do off-the-job techniques help individuals? Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of sabbaticals.
Q2) The _____ provisions have added more demands that boards do CEO succession planning.
A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
B) Sarbanes-Oxley Act
C) Employee Retirement Income Security Act
D) Congressional Accountability Act
Q3) Gerald is confused as to why his 28-year-old daughter is changing jobs for the third time since she graduated from college. His daughter tells him that she has learned everything she could from her current job and that it is time to move on. Gerald's daughter is in the stage of her career where most people's needs and concerns are:
A) to identify interests and acquire capabilities.
B) to focus on making as high a salary as possible because this affects their earning potential for the rest of their lives.
C) to achieve personal integrity and incorporate their values into their work life.
D) to establish their political power base within their organization.
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Chapter 10: Performance Management and Appraisal
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Q1) An informal appraisal is used when a system is in place to report managerial impressions and observations on employee performance and feature a regular time interval.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ recognizes that for many jobs, employee performance is multidimensional and crosses departmental, organizational, and even national boundaries.
A) Outsider rating
B) Self-rating
C) Peer rating
D) 360-degree rating
Q3) Which of the following is typically the first stage in implementing a guided self-appraisal system using MBO?
A) Continuing performance discussions
B) Development of performance standards
C) Setting of objectives
D) Job review and agreement
Q4) Define behaviorally anchored rating scales.
Q5) Describe the developmental uses of performance appraisals.
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Chapter 11: Total Rewards and Compensation
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Q1) The home-country-based approach compensates the expatriate at the same level as workers from the country where the expatriate has been sent from the headquarter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is typically the immediate next step after job analysis in the compensation administration process?
A) Compensation philosophy
B) Job evaluation
C) Internal focus
D) External focus
Q3) Describe the entitlement philosophy of employee compensation.
Q4) Compa-ratio = _____.
A) total pay divided by the total number of employees
B) pay level divided by the midpoint of the pay range
C) total pay divided by the midpoint of the pay range
D) pay level divided by the total number of employees
Q5) Differentiate between exempt employees and nonexempt employees.
Q6) Describe performance-based pay increases.
Q7) Describe Internet-based pay information and pay surveys.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Variable Pay and Executive Compensation
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Q1) Explain the salary-only approach of sales compensation.
Q2) Group incentives are most likely to work efficiently if _____.
A) the social pressure on members of the group is high
B) the individual performance level is clear
C) the incentive plan is imposed in the absence of employee input
D) individual performance cannot be identified
Q3) Which of the following is a metric of sales programs in variable pay plans?
A) Return on investment
B) Turnover costs
C) Accident rates
D) Increase in market share
Q4) Profitsharing distributes some portion of organizational profits to employees.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the conditions necessary for the use of individual incentives.
Q6) Variable pay plans attempt to provide tangible rewards, or incentives, to employees for performance beyond normal expectations.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Why do employers use variable pay?
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Chapter 13: Managing Employee Benefits
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Q1) Which of the following is a legally-required employee benefit that employers must provide?
A) Wellness programs
B) Unemployment compensation
C) Education assistance
D) Public-service leave
Q2) What are the family oriented benefits offered by employers? Which of these are mandated by the federal government?
Q3) The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (WARN) of 1988:
A) requires employers to give 20 days' notice of mass layoff or plant closings.
B) requires employers to give 30 days' notice of mass layoff or plant closings.
C) mandates the payment of severance pay to employees.
D) does not mandate the payment of severance pay to employees.
Q4) In companies that provide defined benefit plans, if the funding is inadequate to pay the benefits promised, the employees must make up the shortfall.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How is the provision of benefits rather than wages advantageous for employees?
Q6) What are the advantages of using paid paid-time-off (PTO) plans?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Risk Management and Worker Protection
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Q1) Recovering substance abusers are not considered disabled under the ADA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Define ergonomics. How has the Occupational Safety and Health Act contributed to the field of ergonomics?
Q3) Who among the following is considered disabled under the ADA?
A) A person addicted to prescription drugs
B) A person addicted to an illegal drug
C) A person who is prone to developing an addiction to alcohol
D) A person who is prone to developing an addiction to illegal drugs
Q4) Concerns regarding pandemic diseases have led OSHA establish special guidelines for the poultry production industry because:
A) of the high rate of violence among the workers.
B) of the number of employees working in this industry.
C) of the high vulnerability of the employees of this industry.
D) of this industry's contribution to the import business.
Q5) Which organizations are covered under the OSHA? Describe the OSHA enforcement standards that were established to implement OSHA regulations in companies.
Q6) Discuss the criticisms against OSHA.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Employee Rights and Responsibilities
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Q1) Emily is an attorney who has been fired by her employer after she accidentally witnesses a senior attorney, who is also a close friend of the manager, accepting bribe from a client. Emily:
A) has no recourse because she is an at-will employee.
B) can seek legal recourse because attorneys are not bound by the EAW.
C) can sue her employer because the reason for her firing is a violation of public policy.
D) should be granted compensatory salary for two months for being fired at a short notice.
Q2) Under the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act, employers are allowed to bring in private investigators without first notifying the employees under investigation or getting their permission.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following rights does the EAW provide employers with?
A) The right to confidentiality
B) The right to demote
C) The right to establish new rules and regulations
D) The right to discriminate against minorities
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Chapter 16: Unionmanagement Relations
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Q1) A union shop requires:
A) job applicants to have a "union card" to be considered for employment.
B) employees to join the union, usually 30 to 60 days after being hired.
C) employees who refuse to join the union to pay a special fee for representative services from the union.
D) a union to represent an entire group of employees at a company, including nonmembers of the union.
Q2) The Taft-Hartley Act allows the U.S. Senate to declare that a strike presents a national emergency.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Jurisdictional strikes take place when one union chooses to express support for another union involved in a dispute, even though the first union has no disagreement with the employer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do national and international unions differ from local unions in their structures and functions?
Q5) What was the significance of the Railway Labor Act of 1926?
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