Talent Acquisition and Retention Test Questions
Course Introduction
Talent Acquisition and Retention explores the strategies and best practices organizations use to identify, attract, select, and retain top talent in a competitive marketplace. The course covers key topics including workforce planning, employer branding, sourcing techniques, recruitment metrics, onboarding processes, and legal considerations. Additionally, it examines effective retention strategies such as employee engagement, career development, performance management, and succession planning. Students will analyze real-world case studies and develop practical skills to design and implement comprehensive talent acquisition and retention programs that align with organizational goals.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 11th Edition by
Leslie W. Rue
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19 Chapters
1140 Verified Questions
1140 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Human Resource Management: a Strategic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human resource management is seen as being much narrower and more clerically oriented than personnel management.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Continuous and proactive assessment of mission-critical work and its staffing requirements is known as ____.
A) crowdsourcing
B) rightsizing
C) downsizing
D) outsourcing
Answer: B
Q3) Explain the terms human resource generalist and human resource specialist.
Answer: A human resource generalist is a person who devotes a majority of working time to human resource issues,but does not specialize in any specific areas of human resource management.A human resource specialist is a person specially trained in one or more areas of human resource management (e.g.,labor relations specialist,wage and salary specialist).
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Chapter 2: Equal Employment Opportunity: The Legal Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following entities is NOT covered under the provisions of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
A) Employers with fewer than 15 employees
B) Labor unions that have more than 25 members
C) State and local governments
D) Labor unions that maintain and operate a hiring hall
Answer: A
Q2) Provisions of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)do NOT apply to:
A) employment agencies.
B) labor organizations.
C) private employers of fewer than 20 employees.
D) state and local governments.
Answer: C
Q3) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act covers employees between 40 and 69 years of age.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Implementing Equal Employment Opportunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preferential treatment can be given to Native Americans in certain kinds of employment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following is a valid bona fide occupational qualification exception?
A) Refusing to hire a woman because women are considered to be less capable of aggressive salesmanship
B) Refusing to hire a woman as an airline pilot based on her age
C) Refusing to hire a man because men are believed to be less capable of assembling intricate component parts
D) Refusing to hire a woman based on the assumption that turnover rate among women is higher than men
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Job Analysis and Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Telecommuting refers to a practice where:
A) two or more part-time individuals perform the work of one full-time individual.
B) employees work for longer hours per day to reduce the number of days in a work week.
C) two or more employees form a group and exchange each other's work to eliminate monotony.
D) employees are able to interact with the office when working at home or while travelling.
Q2) Alisha has worked as a receptionist in different companies.Irrespective of the organization she works for,her job requires similar skills,effort,and responsibility.Thus,being a receptionist may be viewed as a(n)____.
A) occupation
B) task
C) element
D) duty
Q3) Define the terms job scope and job depth.
Q4) Briefly describe a results-only work environment (ROWE)?
Q5) Define the terms job description and job specification.
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Chapter 5: Human Resource Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Delphi technique and management estimates method are both statistical methods for forecasting human resource.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Short-term performance objectives generally have a time schedule and are expressed quantitatively.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following steps is involved in scenario analysis?
A) An intermediary presents each expert's forecast and assumptions to the others and allows the experts to revise their positions if they desire.
B) Internal practices and procedures are examined and measured against the ways other successful organizations operate.
C) Top-level managers estimate the human resource needs, and this information is then passed down to the lower-level managers.
D) Once the forecast for future workforce needs is crystallized, line managers and human resource managers then work backward to identify key change points.
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Chapter 6: Recruiting Employees
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Social Security Act requires all eligible individuals to register with a(n)____ before they can receive unemployment compensation.
A) temporary help agency
B) employee leasing company
C) state employment agency
D) professional employer organization
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about a campus recruitment process?
A) Campus recruiting activities are usually coordinated by the university placement center.
B) The first step of campus recruitment is that all applicants go through an adjustment program at the company office.
C) The recruiters are paid employees of the college placement center.
D) Campus recruiting activities help fill high-level, or executive, positions within organizations.
Q3) Job posting and bidding is an external method of recruitment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the various advantages of internal sources of recruitment?
Q5) What is a personnel requisition form?
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Chapter 7: Selecting Employees
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychomotor tests measure the job-related knowledge possessed by an applicant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following steps of an employee selection process is required only for an individual who is offered a job and the job offer is contingent on the individual passing this test?
A) Physical examination
B) Diagnostic interview
C) Preliminary interview
D) Reference checking
Q3) The Americans with Disabilities Act stipulates that a physical exam cannot be conducted until after a job offer has been extended to a job candidate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The first step in the employee selection process is:
A) employment testing.
B) completing an employment application form.
C) reference checking.
D) conducting a preliminary interview.
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Chapter 8: Orientation and Employee Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is important for all organizations to require employees to sign a form indicating they have received and read the orientation kit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A needs assessment is a systematic analysis of the specific training activities an organization requires to achieve its objectives.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The profit margin of an organization is one of the topics covered during a departmental and job orientation program.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the purpose of classroom training.
Q5) Explain the four areas of evaluation of a training program.
Q6) Training objectives should state what impact training will have on the employees and the organization when it is completed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Management and Organizational Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Industrial psychologists are rarely used as assessors in assessment centers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe web-based training as a method of management development.
Q3) Training needs surveys focus on the knowledge and skills required to perform a job.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A management inventory can be used to develop a management succession plan.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the various advantages and disadvantages of the case study method of training?
Q6) Training needs surveys are precise,specific,and easy to validate.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A weakness of lectures as a management development method is that students are often passive learners.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Career Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carla works as an assistant manager at a software development company.She has identified her career goals and developed a plan for achieving those goals.The process Carla is involved in is referred to as ____.
A) career development
B) career counseling
C) career planning
D) career plateauing
Q2) Online career development centers developed by companies provide access to a wide variety of services to help employees manage their careers and,in some instances,even find jobs outside their present company.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Successful career development requires actions from three sources: the organization,the employee,and the employee's:
A) friends outside the organization.
B) clients or customers.
C) previous employers.
D) immediate manager.
Q4) List the career-related myths held by managers.
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Chapter 11: Performance Management Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a suggestion for making performance appraisal systems more legally acceptable?
A) Derive the content of the appraisal system from job analyses
B) Emphasize personal traits rather than work behaviours
C) Ensure that the results of appraisals are not divulged to employees
D) Ensuring that personnel decisions are separated from performance appraisals
Q2) Behaviorally anchored rating scales are designed to reduce halo,leniency,and central tendency errors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the checklist appraisal method,a rater indicates judgments using:
A) a six-square grid.
B) descriptive paragraphs.
C) yes-or-no responses.
D) a seven-point scale.
Q4) One method to make performance appraisal systems more legally acceptable is by emphasizing work behaviors of the employee being assessed rather than his or her personal traits.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: The Organizational Reward System
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Q1) In the context of employee compensation,which of the following is an appropriate compromise on the issue of pay secrecy?
A) Asking employees to sign non-disclosure agreements
B) Disclosing pay ranges for various job levels within an organization
C) Divulging exactly what a particular employee is receiving as compensation
D) Avoiding collective bargaining within an organization
Q2) Job satisfaction has been shown to always result in a high level of job performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the context of organizational rewards,social relationships are an example of:
A) intrinsic rewards.
B) incentives linked to performance.
C) extrinsic rewards.
D) benefits planned and controlled by the organization.
Q4) Discuss the concept of pay secrecy.
Q5) Formal rewards provided by organizations are almost always determined by performance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Base Wage and Salary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary method for determining the relative worth of jobs to an organization is termed:
A) job evaluation.
B) job positioning.
C) job scoping.
D) job enrichment.
Q2) Characteristics of jobs that an organization deems important to the extent that it is willing to pay for them are termed:
A) compensable factors.
B) hygiene factors.
C) point values.
D) motivators.
Q3) The most widely acknowledged shortcoming of wage and salary surveys is that it is difficult to find jobs that are directly comparable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the primary objective of any wage and salary system?
Q5) Distinguish between skill-based pay and competency-based pay systems.
Q6) Discuss the job ranking method of job evaluation.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Incentive Pay Systems
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Q1) Self-directed work teams are well established in Europe and especially in Scandinavia,but are relatively new in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A gain-sharing program is also known as a performance-sharing plan.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an individual incentive plan devised by Frederick W.Taylor that pays one rate for all acceptable units produced up to some standard and then a higher rate for all pieces produced if the output exceeds the standard?
A) Differential piece rate plan
B) Dual exchange rate system
C) Time-and-a-half for overtime system
D) Commission plan
Q4) Revised data indicates that employee stock ownership plans (ESOPs)grew rather dramatically from the mid-1980s through the late 1990s.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Employee Benefits
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 401(k)retirement plan is the most popular type of:
A) defined-contribution plan.
B) defined-benefit plan.
C) flat-benefit plan.
D) final-average-pay plan.
Q2) Describe the employee benefits under social security.
Q3) Discuss the concept of flexible-benefit plans.
Q4) The financial crisis social security faces stems from:
A) unwillingness of employers to help fund the system.
B) demographic changes in our society.
C) high rates of inflation in the economy.
D) lower levels of unemployment.
Q5) Under Internal Revenue Code's Section 125 and/or the Deficit Reduction Act (DEFRA),an employer requires an employee to complete more than three years of service before becoming eligible under a flexible-benefit plan.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe unemployment compensation.
Q7) Discuss the concept of early retirement as a benefit.
Q8) Describe workers' compensation.
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Chapter 16: Employee Safety and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pearl Products Inc.wants to introduce a drug-testing program within the organization.What are the guidelines the company must follow for implementing a drug-testing program?
Q2) As per the Occupational Safety and Health Administration standards,all record-keeping forms must be retained for seven years by an organization and must be available for inspection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the most common type of employee assistance program (EAP),used by smaller employers and branch operations of large employers,diagnosis and treatment are provided in-house directly by the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss work/life programs and wellness programs.
Q5) OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Act and also for Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the purpose of Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA).
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Employee Relations
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Q1) When an employee has a complaint against management,the employee normally uses the organization's disciplinary procedure to resolve the problem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____ prohibits the use of race,color,religion,sex,or national origin as the basis of any employment condition.
A) Executive Order 11246
B) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
C) The Taft-Hartley Act
D) The due process doctrine
Q3) The internal stages of appeal in a grievance procedure are completed within one to two weeks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Falsifying an employment application is not grounds for discipline,unless discovered at the time the application was completed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the causes of disciplinary actions? Give some examples.
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Chapter 18: The Legal Environment and Structure of Labor
Unions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following acts is also known as the Wagner Act?
A) The Clayton Act
B) The Labor-management Relations Act
C) The National Labor Relations Act
D) The Labor-management Reporting and Disclosure Act
Q2) As per the Clayton Act,the labor of a human being is not a commodity or article of commerce.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Employees in the state of Arizona are protected under the right-to-work laws.What does this imply?
A) Employees are mandatorily required by the state to join a union.
B) No employer can terminate an employee based on poor performance.
C) Employees in unionized organizations are represented by a union even if they do not belong to the union.
D) Employers are required to support unions and their activities by paying a part of their initiation fees.
Q4) Explain right-to-work laws.
Q5) Explain the Wagner Act.
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Chapter 19: Union Organizing Campaigns and Collective Bargaining
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Q1) Under conventional interest arbitration,an arbitrator is restricted to selecting the final offer of one of the parties involved in a dispute.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An arrangement between an employer and a union under which the employer agrees to withhold union dues,initiation fees,and assessments from the employees' paychecks and submit this money to the union is termed as a(n):
A) lockout.
B) checkoff.
C) open shop.
D) embargo.
Q3) A group of employees in a plant,firm,or industry that is recognized by an employer,agreed on by the involved parties,or designated by the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB)or its regional director as appropriate for the purposes of collective bargaining is known as a(n):
A) community of interest.
B) focus group.
C) strategic group.
D) election unit.
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