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Systems Analysis and Design introduces students to the fundamental concepts, methodologies, and tools used in the development of information systems. The course covers the entire systems development life cycle, including requirement gathering, feasibility analysis, system modeling, design techniques, and implementation planning. Students learn to analyze business processes, document system requirements, create data flow diagrams, and develop logical models. Practical assignments and case studies help students gain hands-on experience in using contemporary software tools to design effective, efficient, and user-centered information systems. The course emphasizes teamwork, project management, communication skills, and ethical considerations relevant to systems development.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Systems Analysis and Design 7th Edition by Jeffrey A. Hoffer
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Q1) The amount of time and effort devoted to maintenance depends a great deal on the performance of the previous phases of the life cycle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Sometimes the systems development life cycle is iterative.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) In many cases,organizations do not run applications in-house,choosing instead to use an application on a per-use basis by accessing through an application service provider.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Extreme Programming is an example of Rapid Application Development (RAD).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Baan is a software testing and abstracting service that periodically evaluates software and collects user opinions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) ________ periodically evaluate software and collect user opinions,thus providing a range of opinions about possible software packages. Answer: Independent software testing services
Q3) Reuse refers to the use of previously written software resources,especially objects and components,in new applications.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) When considering off-the-shelf software,the two most important criteria are ________ and ________.
Answer: vendor support,vendor viability
Q5) ________ refers to how easy it is for you,or the vendor,to customize the software. Answer: Flexibility
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Q1) When a project manager works closely with customers to assure project deliverables meet expectations,he/she is performing a customer relations activity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) If an activity's optimistic time is 4 weeks,its realistic time is 6 weeks,and its pessimistic time is 8 weeks,then its estimated time would be 6 weeks.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Critical path scheduling is a scheduling technique in which order and duration of a sequence of task activities directly affect the completion date of a project.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) ________ is the amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the project.
Answer: Slack time
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement regarding a planning-based approach?
A)An emphasis is placed on identifying the procedure that is required to solve a particular problem as it exists today.
B)The difficulty with this approach is that the required organizational procedures are likely to change over time as the environment changes.
C)A major advantage of this approach is that an organization's informational needs are less likely to change (or will change more slowly)than its business processes.
D)One of the benefits of this plan is that an organization does not need to analyze its information needs and plan its projects carefully.
Q2) Which of the following possible project sources most often reflects the broader needs of the organization?
A)user department
B)development group
C)IS manager
D)top management
Q3) ________ and ________ are the two general classes of Internet EC applications.
Q4) Define and briefly discuss information systems planning.
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Q1) At a walkthrough meeting,the person who reviews the work product in terms of future maintenance activities is referred to as the:
A)coordinator
B)user
C)maintenance oracle
D)standards bearer
Q2) The analysis technique that finds the amount of time required for the cumulative cash flow from a project to equal its initial and ongoing investment is referred to as:
A)return on investment (ROI)
B)break-even analysis (BEA)
C)net present value (NPV)
D)future value (FV)
Q3) An ________ is a benefit derived from the creation of an information system that cannot be easily measured in dollars or with certainty.
Q4) ________ are costs resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system.
Q5) Briefly identify and define the six major categories of feasibility.
Q6) Referencing a walkthrough meeting,the ________ ensures that the work product adheres to organizational technical standards.
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of closed-ended questions?
A)Interviews based on closed-ended questions do not necessarily require a large time commitment,so more topics can be covered.
B)Closed-ended questions enable the analysts to explore information that does not quite fit defined answers.
C)The analyst can obtain previously unknown information.
D)Closed-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.
Q2) Finding the best solution to a business problem or opportunity describes the attention to details characteristic that a systems analyst should exhibit during the requirements determination phase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Prototyping is most useful for requirements determination when:
A)user requirements are well understood
B)communication problems have existed in the past between users and analysts
C)possible designs are simple and require an abstract form to fully evaluate
D)multiple stakeholders are involved with the system
Q4) Define disruptive technologies.Identify eight disruptive technologies and how they have eliminated long-held organizational rules.
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Q1) The decomposition of Process 1.1 is shown on a level-1 diagram.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Assume condition one has two values,condition two has five values,condition three has three values,and condition four has two values;the number of rules required for the decision table is sixty.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Logic modeling graphically represents the processes that capture,manipulate,store,and distribute data between a system and its environment and among components within a system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the deliverables for process modeling.
Q5) A decision table is simplified by:
A)removing extended entries
B)removing any rules with impossible actions
C)removing simple entries
D)removing any rules with static actions
Q6) What is gap analysis? Why is gap analysis useful?
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Q1) Universal data models and industry-specific data models are two types of packaged conceptual data models.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A ________ is an assertion or rule that governs the validity of data manipulation operations such as insert,update,and delete.
Q3) The characteristics of data captured during data modeling are crucial in the design of databases,programs,computer screens,and printed reports.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The goal of conceptual data modeling is to capture as much of the meaning of data as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q5) One way to handle repeating data within an entity is to separate the repeating data into another entity,called a weak entity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) During logical modeling,the normalized data requirements from all user interfaces are combined into one consolidated logical database model.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Define each of the following terms: relation,functional dependency,foreign key,and normalization.
Q3) ________ is a single attribute name that is used for two or more different attributes.
Q4) A ________ is the smallest unit of named application data recognized by system software.
Q5) A data model that represents data in the form of tables or relations is called a:
A)hierarchical database model
B)network database model
C)relational database model
D)hybrid database model
Q6) Discuss the rules for normalization.
Q7) A ________ represents data as a set of related tables or relations.
Q8) ________ refers to a particular relationship between two attributes.
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Q1) The ________ general design guideline for usability of forms and reports specifies that outputs should be self-explanatory and not require users to remember information from prior outputs in order to complete tasks.
Q2) Referencing form and report usability,special symbols,such as decimal places,dollar signs and +/- signs should be used as appropriate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a true statement?
A)Forms and reports are integrally related to various diagrams developed during requirements structuring.
B)Every input form will be associated with a data flow leaving a process on a DFD.
C)The contents of a form or report correspond to the data elements contained in an associated data flow.
D)The data on all forms and reports must be data elements in data stores and on the E-R data model for the application,or must be computed from these data elements.
Q4) Identify nine common errors that occur when designing the layout of Web pages.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a rule for structuring data entry fields?
A)Never require the user to enter information that is already available within the system.
B)Users should not be required to enter information that can be easily computed by the system.
C)Require users to specify the dimensional units of a particular value.
D)All data entered onto a screen should automatically justify in a standard format.
Q2) An expected values validation test checks to see if there is a quantity field on each line item of a customer order.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is a technique for showing users where they are in a Web site by placing a series of "tabs" on a Web page that shows users where they are and where they have been.
Q4) ________ is the type of data error that adds additional characters to a field.
Q5) Building dialogue prototypes and assessing usability are often optional activities.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Network PCs are examples of thin clients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) XSL-based formatting consists of methods for transforming XML documents into a generic comprehensive form and formatting the generic comprehensive form into a device specific form.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An advantage to using file servers on local area networks is the ability to centralize data control.
A)True
B)False
Q4) XSL allows designers to dictate how Web pages are displayed and the type of client device.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ________ is a LAN-based computing environment in which a central database server or engine performs all database commands sent to it from client workstations,and application programs on each client concentrate on user interface functions.
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Q1) ________ is written or other visual information about an application system,how it works,and how to use it.
Q2) A systems analyst or programmer typically does syntax checking.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process of bringing together all of the modules that comprise a program for testing purposes is referred to as:
A)unity testing
B)integration testing
C)system testing
D)implementation
Q4) This plan lays out a strategy for moving from the old system to the new,from the beginning to end of the process:
A)baseline project plan
B)installation plan
C)training plan
D)testing plan
Q5) What factors influence implementation success?
Q6) ________ and user documentation are the two basic types of documentation.
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Q1) The ease with which software can be understood,corrected,adapted,and enhanced best describes:
A)maintenance
B)maintainability
C)adaptability
D)comfort level
Q2) The last phase of the systems development life cycle is:
A)operation
B)implementation
C)maintenance
D)analysis
Q3) Changes made to a system to add new features or to improve performance best describes:
A)corrective maintenance
B)adaptive maintenance
C)preventive maintenance
D)perfective maintenance
Q4) ________ are guidelines that list the instructions to construct an executable system from the baseline source code.
Q5) ________ refers to changes made to a system to fix or enhance its functionality.
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Q1) The least amount promised to the stakeholder by a use case is called a:
A)minimal guarantee
B)bottom line
C)baseline project plan
D)none of the above
Q2) The set of functions or behaviors in a use case that follow exceptions to the main success scenario are called ________.
Q3) Which of the following defines a set of behaviors or functions in a use case that follow exceptions to the main success scenario?
A)Success Guarantee
B)Extension
C)Exemption
D)Preconditions
Q4) A use case is a depiction of a system's behavior or functionality under various conditions as the system responds to requests from users.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An extension is invoked only if its ________ condition is encountered.
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Q6) Both the ________ and ________ levels provide a summary of the use case goals.
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Q1) In an activity diagram,the fast lane represents the organizational unit responsible for a certain action.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An activity diagram should only be used when it adds value to the project.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss when it is appropriate to use activity diagrams in a project.
Q4) An activity diagram shows the conditional logic for the sequence of system activities needed to accomplish a business process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An activity diagram can be used for all of the following except:
A)to show the links between objects
B)to depict the flow of control from activity to activity
C)model work flow and business processes
D)help in use case analysis
Q6) An activity diagram clearly shows parallel and alternative behaviors.
A)True
B)False Page 19
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Q1) Briefly define a type of interaction diagrams.
Q2) Define sequence diagram.
Q3) Sequence diagrams can be presented in:
A)instance or generic form
B)logical or physical form
C)sequential or nonsequential form
D)specific or nonspecific form
Q4) A ________ is a type of message in which the caller has to wait for the receiving object to finish executing the called operation before it can resume execution itself.
Q5) What is meant by activation? How is it shown on a sequence diagram?
Q6) Objects communicate with one another by sending messages.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A sequence diagram depicts the interactions among objects during a certain period of time.
A)True
B)False
Q9) ________ is a type of interaction diagrams. Page 21
Q8) In UML,a ________ represents dynamic models of interactions between objects.
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Q1) A swimlane is a way to visually encapsulate a process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Business Process Modeling Notation is much more simple than data flow diagrams.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In business process modeling,an action that must take place for a process to be completed is called an ________.
Q4) An event is a trigger that starts a process in business process modeling.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A flow shows the ________ of action in a process.
Q6) Business process modeling is much more ________ than data flow diagram notation.
Q7) In business process modeling,a decision point is called a(n):
A)activity
B)gateway
C)terminal
D)loop
Q8) Gateways are typically ________.
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Q1) Which of the following encompasses an object's properties and the values those properties have?
A)behavior
B)class
C)state
D)encapsulation
Q2) Multiplicity indicates how many objects participate in a given relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An ________ is a class that has no direct instances,but whose descendants may have direct instances.
Q4) An ________ is a relationship between object classes.
Q5) An object class is a logical grouping of objects that have the same attributes and behaviors.
A)True B)False
Q6) An operation is an indication of how many objects participate in a given relationship.
A)True
B)False Page 24
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