Systemic Pathology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Systemic Pathology is a comprehensive course that examines disease processes as they affect specific organ systems throughout the body. Building on foundational knowledge in general pathology, the course explores the etiology, pathogenesis, morphological changes, and clinical manifestations of diseases in systems such as the cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, urinary, and nervous systems. Emphasis is placed on correlating structural and functional abnormalities with clinical presentation, employing case-based learning and laboratory analyses. The course prepares students to understand the mechanisms underlying systemic diseases, enabling integration of pathological findings with clinical practice for effective diagnosis and management.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pathology 9th Edition by Vinay Kumar
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23 Chapters
265 Verified Questions
265 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1129 Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Injury, Cell Death, and Adaptations
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22166
Sample Questions
Q1) Uptake of bacteria into the cytoplasm of neutrophilic leukocytes is called
A) Autophagocytosis
B) heterophagocytosis
C) exocytosis
D) pinocytosis
E) involution
Answer: B
Q2) A 90-year-old man died in a nursing home. During the past 10 years, he was unable to care for himself and was mentally incoherent. He had no memory and could not hold a conversation. He was unaware of his surroundings. At autopsy, the brain showed signs of Alzheimer disease, and there were neurons containing numerous neurofibrillary tangles. These cytoplasmic structures are formed from which component of the neurons?
A) Nucleus
B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) Mitochondria
E) Cytoskeleton
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bradykinin is produced from a high-molecular weight kininogen circulating in the blood. This reaction is mediated by
A) coagulation factor X
B) kallikrein
C) Hageman factor
D) complement C3
E) protein C
Answer: B
Q2) C-reactive protein binds to the surface of microbes in tissues acting as
A) a caspase
B) a peroxidase
C) an opsonin
D) an anaphylatoxin
E) a membrane attack protein
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolism, and Shock
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common site for arteriolar thromboembolization?
A) Brain
B) Heart
C) Kidneys
D) Lower extremities
E) Eyes
Answer: D
Q2) In the antiphospholipid syndrome of systemic lupus erythematosus, arterial thrombi occur most often in the arteries of the
A) brain
B) heart
C) kidneys
D) intestines
E) bronchi
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Diseases of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antigen-antibody reaction in polyarteritis nodosa is characterized by which form of necrosis of the arterial wall?
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Fibrinoid necrosis
C) Liquefactive necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
E) Caseous necrosis
Q2) In addition to T-helper lymphocytes, which other cells serve as a major reservoir for the human immunodeficiency virus in lymph nodes?
A) B lymphocytes
B) Pre-B and pre-T lymphocytes
C) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
D) Follicular dendritic cells
E) Plasma cells
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Chapter 5: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following carcinomas is locally invasive but rarely forms metastases in lymph nodes and distant sites?
A) Basal cell carcinoma of the skin
B) Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
C) Oat cell carcinoma of the lung
D) Transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder
E) Adenocarcinoma of the stomach
Q2) Homogeneous staining regions (HSR) of chromosome 2p, the site of the N-mycgene, are adverse prognostic signs if found in neuroblastoma cells. HRS are evidence of gene
A) deletion
B) amplification
C) point mutation
D) translocation
E) inversion
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Pediatric Diseases
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common solid malignant tumor in children younger than the age of 1 year?
A) Retinoblastoma
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Hepatoblastoma
D) Wilms' tumor
E) Medulloblastoma
Q2) Which of the following diseases is caused by a trinucleotide repeat mutation?
A) Marfan syndrome
B) Achondroplastic dwarfism
C) Fanconi syndrome
D) Fragile X syndrome
E) Hemophilia B
Q3) Which disease is caused by prolonged exposure of premature infants to oxygen at a high concentration?
A) Retrolental fibroplasia
B) Coloboma
C) Retinitis pigmentosa
D) Blepharitis
E) Keratomalacia
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Chapter 7: Environmental and Nutritional Diseases
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in chronic alcoholics is caused by a deficiency of
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin K
Q2) Unopposed exogenous estrogen administration in women after menopause will increase the risk of cancer of which organ?
A) Lung
B) Liver
C) Ovary
D) Cervix
E) Endometrium
Q3) Which is the most common preventable form of mental retardation in the United States?
A) Fetal rubella infection
B) Fetal toxoplasmosis
C) Fetal alcohol syndrome
D) Fetal cytomegalovirus infection
E) Fetal herpesvirus infection
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Chapter 8: General Pathology of Infectious Diseases
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppurative nail infection (paronychia) and abscesses of fingertips ("felons") are most likely caused by
A) Escherichia coli
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) Which of the following is a preventable cause of blindness in Africa?
A) Giardiasis
B) Onchocerciasis
C) Filariasis
D) Cryptosporidiosis
E) Schistosomiasis
Q3) Which of the following is the most common form of herpesvirus-induced eye infection?
A) Blepharitis
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Iridocyclitis
D) Keratitis
E) Retinitis
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Chapter 9: Blood Vessels
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aneurysms caused by weakening or destruction of the arterial wall by bacteria are called
A) berry aneurysms
B) fusiform aneurysms
C) saccular aneurysms
D) mycotic aneurysms
E) cirsoid aneurysms
Q2) Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies showing widespread cytoplasmic staining of neutrophils in an indirect immunofluorescence test (c-ANCA) are found in high titers in which disease?
A) Microscopic polyangiitis
B) Wegener granulomatosis
C) Churg-Strauss syndrome
D) Goodpasture syndrome
E) Kawasaki syndrome
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Chapter 10: Heart
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22175
Sample Questions
Q1) A transplanted heart must be monitored periodically to detect rejection. Accordingly, the patient must have periodic tests performed. Which is the most reliable test for detecting cardiac transplantation rejection?
A) Endomyocardial catheter biopsy
B) Cytologic thin needle aspiration biopsy through the pericardium
C) Electrocardiography
D) Serologic testing for T and B cells in blood
E) Testing for troponin I
Q2) The most common cause of sudden cardiac death, defined as occurring within 1 hour after onset of the first symptoms, in 50-year-old men is
A) aortic valve stenosis
B) mitral valve prolapse
C) atherosclerotic coronary heart disease
D) cardiomyopathy
E) hypertensive heart disease
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Chapter 11: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common cause of microcytic hypochromic anemia in American women aged 20 to 50 years?
A) Autoimmune hemolysis
B) Iron deficiency
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency
D) Thalassemia minor
E) Viral infection
Q2) Which test is abnormal in hemophilia A?
A) Bleeding
B) Platelet count
C) Prothrombin time
D) Partial thromboplastin time
E) Clot retraction
Q3) Terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase is a marker of
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Precursors of B and T lymphocytes
D) Plasma cells
E) Natural killer cells
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Lung
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old man was found to have atypical pneumonia that was accompanied by elevation of cold agglutinin in the serum. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this pneumonia?
A) Parainfluenza virus
B) Influenza virus
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Coxiella burnetii
E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q2) Bronchospasms in patients with nonatopic asthma who have normal IgE blood levels are most often precipitated by
A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) fungi
D) aspirin
E) exercise
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Chapter 13: Kidney and Its Collecting System
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis caused by mixed cryoglobulinemia is most often secondary to which of the following diseases?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Membranous nephropathy
D) Amyloidosis
E) Human immunodeficiency virus infection
Q2) Which kidney disease characterized by nephrotic syndrome, microscopic hematuria, and glomerular deposits of C3 complement and properdin is caused by an autoantibody called C3 nephritic factor?
A) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type II
B) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C) Membranous nephropathy
D) IgA nephropathy
E) Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis
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Chapter 14: Oral Cavity and Gastrointestinal Tract
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In adults, which part of the intestine is most often involved in volvulus?
A) Jejunum
B) Ileum
C) Cecum
D) Transverse colon
E) Sigmoid colon
Q2) Carcinoma of the esophagus most often presents on gross examination as a
A) polypoid exophytic lesion
B) flat induration of the mucosa
C) volcano-like excavated lesion
D) diffuse narrowing of the esophageal lumen
E) linitis plastica
Q3) Protein-losing gastroenteropathy will most likely develop in patients who have
A) acute erosive gastritis
B) chronic Helicobacter pylori-related gastritis
C) autoimmune atrophic gastritis
D) hypertrophic gastropathy
E) gastric peptic ulcer
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Chapter 15: Liver, Gallbladder, and Biliary Tract
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) HELLP syndrome (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets) occurs typically in
A) autoimmune hepatitis
B) Budd-Chiari syndrome
C) primary sclerosing cholangitis
D) primary biliary cirrhosis
E) preeclampsia
Q2) Which genetic liver disease results from the mutation of multidrug resistance protein 2 (MRP2) and is characterized by massive accumulation of pigmentary granules in hepatocytes and dark discoloration of the liver?
A) Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I
B) Gilbert disease
C) Dubin-Johnson disease
D) Rotor syndrome
E) Galactosemia
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Chapter 16: Pancreas
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
A) Alcohol
B) Thiazide diuretics
C) Viruses
D) Trauma
E) Vascular thrombosis
Q2) Which of the following genes is the most frequently mutated oncogene in ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?
A) p53
B) K-RAS
C) MYC
D) RB1
E) SMAD4
Q3) Hereditary pancreatitis is most likely to be found in persons harboring the mutation of which of the following genes?
A) <sub>1</sub>-Antitrypsin
B) Amylase
C) Cationic trypsinogen
D) Enterokinase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
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Chapter 17: Male Genital System and Lower Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Penile carcinomas tend to metastasize first to which of the following nodes?
A) Inguinal lymph nodes
B) Obturator lymph nodes
C) Internal ileac lymph nodes
D) External iliac lymph nodes
E) Paraortic abdominal lymph nodes
Q2) Nephrotic syndrome related to minimal change disease, combined with acute renal failure related to acute interstitial nephritis, is a well-documented adverse reaction to which of the following drugs?
A) Methicillin
B) Ampicillin
C) Rifampin
D) Ibuprofen
E) Hydrochlorothiazide
Q3) Seminomas tend to metastasize first to which of the following sites?
A) Internal iliac lymph nodes
B) External iliac lymph nodes
C) Mesenteric lymph nodes
D) Retroperitoneal para-aortic lymph nodes
E) Urinary bladder
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Chapter 18: Female Genital System and Breast
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 55-year-old woman who has diabetes mellitus complains of genital itching. Examination shows whitish plaques on the mucosa of the vulva and vagina. Which of the following infectious agents most likely caused these changes?
A) Human papillomavirus
B) Herpes simplex virus type 2
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) Gardnerella vaginalis
E) Candida albicans
Q2) A 25-year-old woman had a workup for infertility. During the laparoscopic examination, the gynecologist found foci of endometriosis. Such foci are most often seen on which of the following sites?
A) Ovary
B) Uterine ligaments
C) Rectovaginal septum
D) Pelvic peritoneum
E) Appendix
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20
Chapter 19: Endocrine System
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcifications of the basal ganglia are complications associated with parkinsonian-like movement disorders and calcification of the lens with cataract formation. These complications are most often associated with which of the following conditions?
A) Parathyroid adenoma
B) Secondary parathyroid hyperplasia
C) Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
D) Parathyroid carcinoma
E) Hypoparathyroidism
Q2) A 50-year-old man who is showing signs of acromegaly is found to have an elevated concentration of growth hormone and another hormone in blood that was apparently derived from the liver. Which other hormone is most likely increased in this patient's blood?
A) Glucagon
B) Somatostatin
C) Insulin growth factor I
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin
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Chapter 20: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The autosomal dominant bone disorder caused by a mutation of fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) is characterized by short stature, rhizomelic shortening of limbs, frontal bossing of the skull, and midface abnormalities. Which of the following disorders is described by these characteristics?
A) Achondrogenesis
B) Achondroplasia
C) Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
D) Synpolydactyly
E) Holt-Oram syndrome
Q2) A 20-year-old man is being treated for a soft tissue tumor of the lower extremity. The tumor is composed of malignant spindle-shaped cells and epithelial cells that form gland-like structures. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Leiomyosarcoma
B) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
C) Primitive neuroectodermal tumor
D) Synovial sarcoma
E) Rhabdomyosarcoma
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nerves and Muscles
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1 Verified Questions
1 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is mediated by which form of immune hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Atopic IgE-mediated reaction
B) Cytotoxic IgG antibody-mediated reaction
C) Circulating immune complex-mediated reaction
D) T cell-mediated reaction
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common source of septic thromboemboli in the cerebral arteries?
A) Leg veins
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Heart
D) Aorta
E) Carotid arteries
Q2) Which of the following is the dominant protein component of neuritic plaques in the brain in Alzheimer disease?
A) Apoprotein
B) Tau protein
C) Neurofibrillin
D) Microtubules-associated protein 2 (MAP2)
E) A derived from amyloid precursor protein (APP)
Q3) Posttraumatic hydrocephalus is most often caused by which of the following?
A) Hypersecretion of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Obstruction of the aqueduct
C) Obstruction of the foramen of Luschka
D) Obstruction of the foramen of Magendie
E) Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid absorption
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Chapter 23: Skin
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skin lesions will most likely progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Actinic keratosis
B) Seborrheic keratosis
C) Seborrheic dermatitis
D) Epidermal inclusion cyst
E) Steatocystoma multiplex
Q2) Basal cell carcinoma of the skin often contains mutations of the p53 gene and the gene called PTCH (mutated in congenital nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome). These mutations are most likely the result of action of which of the following?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) G-protein signal transduction system
C) Chemical carcinogens from the environment
D) Ultraviolet light
E) Cosmic radiation
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