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Sustainability Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the complex interactions between human, environmental, and engineered systems to address the challenges of sustainable development. This course introduces students to key concepts, frameworks, and methods used to analyze the causes and consequences of global environmental change, resource scarcity, and socio-economic inequalities. Through case studies and real-world examples, students learn to assess strategies that promote resilience, equity, and well-being while considering ecological limits, technological innovation, and policy interventions. The course emphasizes the importance of systems thinking, stakeholder collaboration, and adaptive management in designing solutions for a sustainable future.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Environmental Science For A Changing World 3rd Edition by Susan Karr
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Q1) Why are nonliving things included in the definition of an environment?
Answer: Nonliving things-such as rocks,water,and oxygen-are included in the definition of an environment because although they are not living,they still have a tremendous impact on the organic beings that do live in that environment.Imagine an environment that contains several species of fish,some of which suddenly start to die off.Now let's say this die-off is caused by the temperature of the water rising in this environment.If we didn't consider water to be part of an environment,we would not know to test the water for the possible cause of the fish dying.
Q2) Which of the following choices is NOT an example of an anthropocentric worldview?
A)clear-cutting a forest to sell timber
B)testing a nuclear bomb
C)large commercial fishing ships processing tons of fish per day
D)purchasing a rice product stored in a recycled cardboard container instead of one stored in a plastic container
E)clearing land to build shopping malls
Answer: D
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Q1) What is TRUE about establishing environmental policy?
A)It is easy and straightforward to establish good environmental policy.
B)Stakeholders all agree on the same way to deal with an environmental issue.
C)Policies need to wait until we have all the data on an issue.
D)Policies must be flexible and adapt to new scientific findings.
E)Policies need to address only the environmental problem.
Answer: D
Q2) Refer to Infographic 1.What are the possible outcomes after using the scientific method to analyze the data?
Answer: The hypothesis is either rejected (develop and test alternate hypotheses),modified,or accepted (published in a peer-reviewed journal and used to test new predictions or hypotheses).
Q3) In this chapter it has been made clear that the process used to obtain a body of knowledge (facts and explanations)is more important than the body of knowledge itself.Why is this?
Answer: Facts may change as additional information is collected through the scientific process.Consequently,it is important that the entire process be open-ended and that the investigators be open-minded to change.
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Q1) Which type of source is the most likely to perpetuate errors that have previously appeared?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)review
E)report
Answer: C
Q2) What kind of studies were conducted by Hanna-Attisha and Edwards that correlated lead levels in water with lead levels in children?
A)toxicological
B)biomagnifying
C)epidemiological
D)demographical
E)environmental
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a way humans disrupt the carbon cycle?
A)deforestation
B)using excessive fertilizers
C)burning fossil fuels
D)burning forests to clear land
Q2) If matter and energy in ecosystems on Plant Y function the same as they do on Earth,which of the following would be true?
A)Matter cycles through the biosphere,and energy can enter and leave the planet.
B)Matter can enter and leave the planet,and energy can cycle through the biosphere.
C)Matter and energy can both cycle through the biosphere.
D)Matter and energy can both enter and leave the planet.
Q3) Denitrifying bacteria convert nitrate into ________,thus returning nitrogen to
A)ammonia; its most stable form
B)nitrogen gas; the atmosphere
C)proteins; a usable form
D)ammonia; its least stable form
E)nitrogen gas; the soil
Q4) If no new matter enters the system,how can Earth continue to exist?
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Q1) Early in the colonization of a new habitat,a population will show _____________,shifting to _____________ as the density of the population increases.
A)resistance; biotic potential
B)exponential growth; logistic growth
C)logistic growth; exponential growth
D)biotic potential; overshoot
E)exponential growth; logistic growth.
Q2) Habitat destruction,the number-one reason that species become endangered today,likely acts as which kind of regulator?
A)top-down regulation
B)bottom-up regulation
C)global warming
D)boom-and-bust regulation
E)keystone species pressure
Q3) Why might a minimum viable-population not be an ecologically effective population?
Q4) With global warming having increasing effects on the environment,which type of species (r or K)would you think would be better suited to survive such a global disturbance? Why?
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Q1) Which species would you often find in areas of primary succession?
A)grasses
B)shrubs
C)moss
D)trees
E)herbs
Q2) One food chain seen in site 1 is: seeds deer mice bobcat
What trophic level would the bobcat be on?
A)producer
B)primary consumer
C)secondary consumer
D)tertiary consumer
Q3) What is an indicator species,and why is it easier for scientists to study them as a measure of the health of an ecosystem rather than an entire ecosystem as a whole?
Q4) Why are decomposers and detritivores essential members of any ecosystem?
Q5) Which community do you think would be more resilient to a perturbation: a community with high species richness and low species evenness or one with low species richness and high species evenness? Why?
Q6) Why are invasive species so damaging to ecosystems?
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Q1) A species is considered _______ to an area if it is not found anywhere else on Earth.
A)extinct
B)extirpated
C)exiled
D)endemic
E)elected
Q2) The relationship between the bird and the butterflies would be described as ____________.
A)genetic drift
B)the bottleneck effect
C)stabilizing selection
D)coevolution
Q3) What are four observations that natural selection is based on?
Q4) Random events that play a role in evolution typically _________ genetic diversity.
A)increase
B)decrease
C)do not affect
D)increase then decrease
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Q1) Which type of diversity provides the raw material that allows populations to adapt to their environment?
A)ecosystem
B)species
C)genetic
D)community
E)population
Q2) The varieties of apples in the produce section of the grocery store would be an example of ____________ diversity.
A)ecosystem
B)genetic
C)species
D)artificial
E)community
Q3) Which island would have the highest number of endemic species?
A)A
B)B
C)C
Q4) Why do tropical areas typically have more biodiversity than colder or drier climates?
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Q1) Which of the following is classified as a protected area?
A)wilderness area
B)national park
C)nature preserve
D)wildlife refuge
E)All of these answer choices are classified as protected areas.
Q2) What are some tactics utilized in single-species conservation efforts?
A)captive breeding programs
B)release of animals back into the wild
C)use of charismatic species-that is,those that garner attention and funds from the public
D)fieldwork to monitor species and habitat health
E)all of these answer choices are correct
Q3) With which other conservation efforts could conservation genetics collaborate with?
A)ecosystem conservation
B)single-species conservation
C)landscape conservation
D)remediation
E)All of these answer choices are correct.
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Q1) Which of the following countries would have a per capita footprint comparison similar to the United States?
A)Canada
B)Thailand
C)India
D)Nigeria
Q2) In which stage of the demographic transition does most population growth occur?
A)preindustrial
B)industrializing
C)mature industrial
D)transitional industrial
E)postindustrial
Q3) The discovery of penicillin,the first antibiotic,changed the face of disease management and treatment.For the first time,people were surviving infections that before would have killed them.How would you think antibiotics such as penicillin affect a population's growth rate?
Q4) Why would airlifting crates of condoms and dropping them over African countries with high total fertility rates not be a successful strategy at slowing global population growth rates? What factors need to be considered,beyond making contraceptives available?
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Q1) The movement to rejuvenate communities,improve the quality of life,and reduce ecological footprints using such strategies as establishing urban boundaries to preserve open space and directing development toward existing communities is referred to as
A)smart growth
B)urbanization
C)infill development
D)urban flight
E)suburban sprawl
Q2) Which of the following demonstrates how green spaces and community gardens in a city improve the physical and psychological health of people who live near them?
A)decreasing space for people to exercise
B)releasing pollutants from the air
C)increasing rainwater that could carry trash into the river
D)decreasing opportunities for relaxation
E)providing a healthy food option
Q3) What is a green building? Describe three design features that help make a building green,and explain the benefits of such choices.
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Q1) Why is the eradication of Guinea worm disease (GWD)possible?
Q2) Which of the organisms listed below causes disease in humans?
A)fungi
B)bacteria
C)viruses
D)worms
E)fungi,bacteria,viruses,and worms
Q3) Why do you think such a high proportion of diarrheal diseases can be attributed to environmental factors?
Q4) Why is Guinea worm disease (GWD)not a zoonotic disease?
Q5) Which of the following is an observation (result)based on this data?
A)Factors that cause diarrheal diseases could also be linked to malnutrition.
B)The incidence of asthma and lung infections is going up.
C)Schistosomiasis is more strongly influence by the environment than malaria is.
D)Dengue causes twice as many deaths as malaria,lung infections,or asthma.
Q6) Why does urbanization sometimes lead to an increased incidence of waterborne pathogen infections?
Q7) How might washing your hands lead to a human health threat?
Q8) What do you think has had the greatest impact on eradicating Guinea worm disease? Page 14
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Q1) Which category would be most affected by increasing the number of cars on the highways?
A)cultural benefits
B)ecosystem regulation and support
C)human provisions
Q2) Why would nutrient cycling be considered such a valuable ecosystem service to humans?
Q3) By ignoring the ________,economies create a false idea of the _______ of particular choices.
A)internal costs; external cost
B)true costs; external cost
C)external costs; true cost
D)true costs; circular system
E)internal costs; true cost
Q4) What is meant by the term "sustainable"?
A)capable of being continued indefinitely
B)consuming more than the environment is able to renew
C)not caring about resources future generations need
D)following the law in terms of the environment
E)making less expensive products for consumers
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Q1) The 1987 Montréal Protocol involved the regulation of ___________.
A)ozone-depleting substances
B)global warming
C)whaling
D)endangered species
E)overfishing
Q2) Which of the following is true of international environmental policy?
A)The process is slow and incremental.
B)Many meetings,negotiations,and votes are required.
C)Specific targets are identified.
D)Science helps to inform policy.
E)All of these answer choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is CORRECT regarding U.S.environmental policy prior to the 1960s?
A)Environmental issues were focused on addressing pollution.
B)A key objective was mitigating environmental damage.
C)Environmental issues were handled primarily at the federal level.
D)Environmental policies mostly dealt with how best to use resources.
Q4) What is the precautionary principle? How can it be used to shape policy regarding the recent changes in global climate attributed to human activity?
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Q1) What are the potential environmental consequences of disposing of waste via landfilling and incineration? What systems exist in each disposal method to try and prevent these potential problems?
Q2) Hazardous waste is __________.
A)any material that humans deem to be unwanted
B)everyday garbage or trash produced by individuals or small businesses
C)waste that is capable of being broken down by living organisms
D)waste that is incapable of being broken down under normal conditions
E)waste that is toxic,flammable,corrosive,explosive,or radioactive
Q3) Incinerators reduce the volume of solid waste by about ______________.
A)10% to 20%
B)30% to 40%
C)50% to 60%
D)70% to 80%
E)80% to 90%
Q4) What everyday changes can you make to reduce the amount of waste you produce?
Q5) What is hazardous waste,and why is it considered to be problematic? Discuss two ways the average person can reduce their contribution to the potential problems caused by hazardous waste.
Q6) What is the difference between degradable and biodegradable waste?
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Q1) What is an aquifer?
A)an area in which saltwater intrudes on freshwater supplies
B)a species of conifer that can live underwater
C)an underground region of permeable soil or rock saturated with water
D)the very top region of an underground water reservoir
E)a human-made underground water reservoir system
Q2) How do traditional wastewater treatment plants differ from wastewater treatment plants that mimic nature?
Q3) Problems associated with poor sanitation include _______________.
A)disease transmission
B)exposure to toxins
C)dehydration
D)premature death
E)All of these answer choices are correct.
Q4) Many countries have constructed dams and reservoirs as a method to solve water shortages.What are some of the problems associated with dams and reservoirs?
Q5) What are some potential impacts of global warming on aquifers?
Q6) Why are two sets of marshes used in the Arcata wetland sewage treatment system?
Q7) How might global warming and climate change affect water scarcity in the future?
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Q1) What was the goal of the Gulf of Mexico Watershed Nutrient Task Force?
A)to eliminate the hypoxic zone
B)to take the farmers along the Mississippi watershed to court for water pollution
C)to map the Gulf of Mexico watershed
D)to reduce the hypoxic zone
E)to make the water in the Mississippi River crystal clear
Q2) You are conducting a biological assessment on a stream.Which of the following would you see the most of if the stream has good water quality?
A)caddisfly larvae
B)crayfish
C)leeches
D)dragonfly larvae
E)aquatic worms
Q3) Which is NOT an aspect of the Clean Water Act?
A)regulating municipal point source pollution
B)setting pollution standards
C)allowing a small percentage of pathogens in recreational water
D)regulating industrial point source pollution
E)allowing a small percentage of pathogens in drinking water
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Q1) Coral bleaching is _________.
A)when the sun bleaches the pigment of the coral and turns it white
B)when a chemical spill causes the coral to die and the skeleton,which is white,to show through
C)when coral expel the zooxanthellae from their cells in response to stress
D)when coral turns white due to lowering water temperatures
E)when another organism colonizes the coral and turns it white
Q2) Which statement about coral reefs is FALSE?
A)Overfishing is a major cause of coral reef destruction.
B)Coral reefs serve as a source of current and potential medicines.
C)Coral reefs help protect shorelines from storms.
D)Coastal development does not affect coral reefs because they develop far away from the shore.
E)Most coral reefs are found between 30 degrees north latitude and 30 degrees south latitude.
Q3) Why is proximity to land an important factor in determining the abundance of an ocean region? Provide an example to support your reasoning.
Q4) Why do ecologists consider coral reefs a keystone species?
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Q5) What is ocean acidification? How are humans contributing to ocean acidification?

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Q1) Production of charcoal results in __________________.
A)the release of carbon dioxide and soot into the atmosphere,causing air pollution
B)severe deforestation as trees are chopped down to produce charcoal
C)a sustainable source of energy for countries like Haiti
D)All of these answer choices are correct.
E)the release of carbon dioxide and soot into the atmosphere,causing air pollution and severe deforestation as trees are chopped down to produce charcoal
Q2) What percentage of Haiti's original forests remain compared with those that existed prior to European settlement?
A)2
B)6
C)10
D)25
E)50
Q3) Where would the forests you work in be located?
A)high latitudes
B)mid latitudes
C)low latitudes
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Q1) What are some of the natural and human threats that grasslands currently face?
Q2) What were some of the problems with the concept of rotational grazing?
A)It did not help to stop desertification.
B)Savory felt it focused too heavily on limiting the number of animals allowed to graze.
C)Savory felt it focused too heavily on the amount of time the animals were allowed to graze.
D)It did not help to stop desertification,and felt it focused too heavily on limiting the number of animals allowed to graze.
E)None of these answers are correct.
Q3) Designing a process,such as grazing,so that it occurs in a way that is similar to how it happens in nature is known as ______________.
A)conservation
B)biomimicry
C)environmentalism
D)ecology
Q4) How do the grazing patterns of wild herbivores make the lands healthier than those grazed by cattle?
Q5) How does overgrazing lead to soil erosion?
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Q1) Name four mining techniques discussed in the module.Describe the nature of a mineral deposit appropriate for each technique.
Q2) Neodymium is a key ingredient in wind turbines and hybrid car batteries because of its __________.
A)tendency to occur in concentrated deposits
B)extreme magnetic ability
C)ability to produce electric currents with very little material
D)tendency to occur in concentrated deposits,its extreme magnetic ability,and its ability to produce electric currents with very little material
E)extreme magnetic ability and its ability to produce electric currents with very little material
Q3) Despite the development of safer techniques to process ores containing gold and silver,many areas of Africa,South America,and Asia still use toxic chemicals in their smelting process.Describe why this situation exists in those countries.
Q4) List the main steps generally involved in the extraction of rare earth minerals from ore.
Q5) What characterizes a metal? List some examples of everyday products that contain metals.
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Q1) The Green Revolution 2.0 is __________________.
A)a movement that focuses on the production of genetically modified organisms to increase crop productivity
B)associated with feed conversion rates
C)a movement focused on recycling
D)a plant-breeding program that dramatically increased crop yields and led the way for mechanized,large-scale agriculture
E)a program used by modern farmers to spread the use of organic agriculture
Q2) Industrial agriculture is dependent on _________.
A)organic pest control for crops
B)hand-planted and -managed crops
C)all-natural fertilizers
D)machinery
E)Industrial agriculture depends on all of these.
Q3) Efforts from the Green Revolution resulted in _________.
A)enough food to feed every human on Earth
B)every human on Earth being fed a life-sustaining diet
C)less food produced than usual
D)the end of food insecurity
E)the end of malnutrition
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Q1) Many advantages and disadvantages are associated with sustainable farming techniques,for the environment,the consumer,and the farmer.Which of the following is FALSE?
A)Sustainable farming is more labor intensive than traditional farming.
B)More subsidies are available for farmers who use sustainable techniques.
C)Soil is not degraded as much when sustainable agricultural techniques are used.
D)Usually,organic products are more expensive to the consumer.
E)All of these answers are true statements about sustainable farming.
Q2) An increase in crop genetic diversity is an advantage of what kind of farming?
A)sustainable
B)commercial
C)global
D)industrial
E)All farming decreases genetic diversity.
Q3) What benefit does reduced tilling have?
A)reduced soil erosion and water needs
B)reduced pest outbreaks
C)increased soil fertility
D)reduced water loss after a rainfall
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Q1) The U.S.Department of Agriculture recommends that all ground meat be cooked to an internal temperature of _____.
A)98.6°F
B)100°F
C)140°F
D)160°F
E)200°F
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding cattle?
A)Cattle are adapted to digest corn.
B)Cattle gain weight faster when movement is restricted.
C)Antibiotics fed to cattle are not passed to consumers in the meat.
D)None of these answers is correct.
Q3) What do proponents claim as benefits to meat from free-range,grass-fed animals?
A)increased level of omega-3 fatty acids
B)less saturated fat
C)less weight gain
D)both increased level of omega-3 fatty acids and less saturated fat
E)increased level of omega-3 fatty acids,less saturated fat,and less weight gain
Q4) What does it mean to "eat lower on the food chain?" How can it help make livestock production more sustainable?
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Q1) Many countries have exclusive economic zones (EEZs).How are these EEZs supposed to protect fish populations,and what are the problems with EEZs?
Q2) Aquaculture can deplete lower-tropic-level fish because __________.
A)the fish are not raised in their typical environment
B)the fish are caught and used to feed the farmed fish
C)the pollution from the underwater pens kills the fish
D)harvesting the farmed fish with nets also catches lower-tropic-level fish
Q3) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding aquaculture?
A)Aquaculture provides a reliable protein source and thus needed nutrition for a growing human population.
B)As aquaculture grows in scale,the reduced pressure on natural fisheries is better for ocean biodiversity as it reduces bycatch.
C)The dense concentration of farmed fish makes it easier to prevent disease outbreaks from occurring,and thus food security is always assured.
D)Aquaculture is more energy efficient,as it uses less fossil fuel and produces more fish per unit area than open-water fishing operations.
E)All of these answers are true statements about aquaculture.
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Q1) If mining company representatives came to you with a plan to plant the same species of pine trees,and only pine trees,on their reclaimed mine in order to comply with the law,what would you tell them? Would you advise them to go ahead with the plan,or would you suggest a different one?
Q2) Peat,the precursor to coal formation,is typically formed in areas
A)of rapid decomposition
B)with little vegetation
C)with low rates of decomposition
D)with highly oxygenated sediments
Q3) Coal mining production is up in the United States,but coal mining jobs are on the decline.Why are there fewer coal mining jobs today than 50 years ago?
Q4) The purpose of using carbon capture and sequestration is to
A)remove carbon from combustion emissions for storage
B)remove contaminants in coal to release less pollution when burned
C)increase the energy return on energy investment
D)decrease overburden produced from mining
Q5) Even though coal is produced by natural processes of the Earth,why is it classified as a nonrenewable resource?
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Q1) A nonrenewable natural resource formed millions of years ago from plant or animal remains that is used as an energy source is called a ___________________.
A)hydrocarbon
B)peat
C)unconventional source
D)fossil fuel
Q2) Drilling could detrimentally affect which species in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge?
A)Arctic fox
B)polar bears
C)caribou
D)migratory birds
E)All of these answer choices are correct.
Q3) Why might it be difficult to accurately predict the point at which we reach peak oil?
Q4) Explain why it is difficult to determine how long oil reserves will last.
Q5) What would be the consequence of using up all available oil for gasoline and transport uses?
Q6) What are the stages in the production of oil after a new well is drilled?
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Q1) Which of the following indoor air pollutants is correctly matched to its source?
A)radon tobacco smoke
B)cooking particulates
C)VOCs poorly ventilated furnaces
D)chlorine damp basements
E)carbon monoxide soaps and cleaners
Q2) In developing countries,the main source(s)of indoor air pollution is/are _______.
A)particulates like soot as a result of cooking with wood or charcoal
B)mold
C)toxic chemicals
D)radon from the decay of uranium in rock that seeps through the foundations
E)lead
Q3) What is it about the nature of the human lung that makes it so vulnerable to air pollution? Further,how does damage to respiratory tissue serve as a gateway to other kinds of human health problems?
Q4) If a car company wanted to reduce the air pollution created by its cars,how could it apply tools such as subsidies,tax credits,and cap-and-trade regulations in its efforts? Be sure to define each term as part of your response.
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Q1) The biggest contributor to global warming is ______________.
A)methane released from rice paddies
B)carbon dioxide released from burning fossil fuels
C)CFCs released from landfill waste disposal
D)nitrous oxide released from volcanic eruptions
Q2) Explain how clouds can participate in both positive and negative feedback loops.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an aspect of climate?
A)long-term patterns or trends
B)useful for predicting weather
C)timing of seasonal shifts
D)winter lows and summer highs hover close to expected norms
E)a few warmer days here and there
Q4) Which of the following is an anthropogenic climate forcer?
A)volcanic eruptions
B)fossil fuel combustion
C)sunspot cycles
D)orbital eccentricity
E)none of these answers
Q5) Describe how the recent changes in global climate are expected to impact biodiversity.
32
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Q1) Explain how using uranium as a fuel to produce energy is an advantage as far as availability goes versus the availability of fossil fuels.
Q2) Explain why nuclear power plants require a vast amount of water.
Q3) ___________________ rods are used in a nuclear plant to absorb neutrons and regulate the speed of the fission chain reaction.
A)Fuel
B)Nuclear
C)Regulatory
D)Control
E)Mechanical
Q4) Radioactive isotopes are important for producing electricity because ___________________.
A)they can be converted directly into electricity
B)electrons from the isotopes are separated and used for electricity
C)the heat from their fission is used to create steam,which is converted to electricity
D)All of these answer choices are correct.
E)None of these answer choices are correct.
Q5) What is the process of nuclear fission?
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Q1) What costs should be considered when comparing renewable energy technologies?
A)social
B)environmental
C)economic
D)both social and economic
E)social,environmental,and economic
Q2) The largest segment of renewable energy is ____________________.
A)solar energy
B)biomass
C)hydroelectric energy
D)geothermal energy
E)wind
Q3) What is needed in order for a community like Samsø to switch to a greener lifestyle?
Q4) Has Samsø become completely independent of fossil fuels,and if not,what is the country doing to accomplish this goal?
Q5) Currently,fossil fuels meet most of the energy needs of the United States.Why do experts say that in the future,no one renewable source will dominate as fossil fuels do today?
Q6) What areas are BEST suited for geothermal energy production,and why?
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Q1) In your research on biofuels,you discover biofuels can be made from cellulosic crops.This means _______.
A)high-sugar crops like corn are used to make the fuel
B)fields planted in a monoculture yield more production for a fuel source
C)using plants such as grasses,which are more difficult to break down,for the fuel
D)the plants used for fuel are not useful as crops
Q2) _____________ refers to the process where a plant absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and then stores carbon in its roots.
A)Carbon absorption
B)Carbon storing
C)Carbon loading
D)Carbon sequestration
Q3) How would the production of cellulosic ethanol circumvent the "food versus fuel" controversy?
Q4) Describe some benefits of making cellulosic ethanol from switchgrass.
Q5) What unintended consequence(s)could arise from government subsidies,tax breaks,or mandates that support biofuel production?
Q6) What is biowaste? Describe the benefits of converting waste into energy.
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