Survey of the Universe
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Survey of the Universe offers an introduction to astronomy and explores the fundamental concepts and discoveries that have shaped our understanding of the cosmos. The course covers topics such as the structure and evolution of stars, galaxies, and the large-scale structure of the universe, as well as the nature of planets, black holes, and dark matter. Students will examine historical milestones, observational techniques, and current research, gaining a broader perspective on the origins, dynamics, and fate of the universe. Through this survey, learners will develop scientific literacy and a deeper appreciation for the complexity and beauty of the universe.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Our Universe 1st Edition by Stacy Palen
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18 Chapters
1350 Verified Questions
1350 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Our Place in the Universe
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71 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Albert Einstein is best known for his revolutionary theory of:
A) relativity
B) quantum mechanics
C) cosmology
D) economics
Answer: A
Q2) The scientific method is a process by which scientists:
A) prove theories to be known facts
B) gain confidence in theories by failing to prove them wrong
C) show all theories to be wrong
D) test the ideas of Aristotle
Answer: B
Q3) A scientific theory can be proven wrong if:
A) cultural beliefs evolve to contradict it
B) scientists gather new data that disprove its predictions
C) it cannot explain all phenomena
D) it is based only on conjecture
Answer: B
Q4) What is the ONLY thing that makes the Sun an exceptional star?
Answer: The fact that it is our star!
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Patterns in the Skymotions of Earth
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a person on Earth currently views the Moon in a waxing crescent phase,in what phase would the Earth appear to a person on the Moon?
A) Waxing crescent
B) Waxing gibbous
C) Waning gibbous
D) Waning crescent
Answer: C
Q2) The seasons on Earth are caused by the change in distance between the Sun and Earth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The average distance between a planet and the Sun is given by the __________ of its elliptical orbit.
A) radius
B) minor axis
C) eccentricity
D) semimajor axis
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Laws of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a 100-kg astronaut pushes on a 5,000-kg satellite and the satellite experiences an acceleration of 0.1 m/s<sup>2</sup>,what is the acceleration experienced by the astronaut in the opposite direction?
A) 5 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B) 10 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C) 50 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D) 0.1 m/s<sup>2</sup>
Answer: A
Q2) The natural tendency of an object to resist changes in motion is called:
A) inertia
B) weight
C) acceleration
D) mass
Answer: A
Q3) An astronaut orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit at a constant speed does not feel the force of gravity because his/her acceleration is zero.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Light and Telescopes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Voyager I spacecraft is currently 16.5 billion km from Earth and heading out of our Solar System.How long does it take radio messages from Voyager I to reach us?
A) 1.5 days
B) 15 hours
C) 1.5 weeks
D) 15 minutes
Q2) Compare and contrast the wavelengths,frequencies,speeds,and energies of red and blue photons.
Q3) Why do reflecting telescopes usually have a secondary mirror in addition to a primary mirror?
A) To increase the light gathering power
B) To make the telescope shorter
C) To increase the focal length
D) To combat chromatic aberration
Q4) What is the angular resolution of a 1-m,ground-based,optical telescope that observes at a wavelength of 600 nm compared to that of a 300-ft,single dish radio telescope that observes at a wavelength of 21 cm?
Q5) Explain why the largest telescopes are not refracting telescopes.
Q6) Explain how adaptive optics help compensate for atmospheric seeing.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Formation of Stars and Planets
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly explain the four different observational methods we use to detect extrasolar planets.Which has detected the largest number of extrasolar planets to date?
Q2) Planets like Earth are found closer to the Sun than planets like Jupiter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the early Solar System,based on current observations?
A) The early Solar System must have been flat.
B) The material from which the planets formed must have been swirling about the Sun in the same direction.
C) The first fragments started out small and grew in size over time.
D) The composition of gases varied between the inner Solar System and the outer Solar System.
Q4) Explain how astronomers use the Doppler effect to detect the presence of extra-solar planets.
Q5) The primordial atmosphere of the Earth consisted of what type of chemical elements and from where did it originate? What chemical elements did the secondary atmosphere of the Earth consist of and from where did it originate?
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Chapter 6: Terrestrial Worlds in the Inner Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Earth's innermost core is solid,not liquid,because:
A) the core temperature is too low to melt iron
B) differentiation caused all of the heavy,solid material to sink to the bottom while Earth was forming
C) all the liquid has moved up into the mantle via convection
D) the pressure is too high for a liquid state
Q2) Which of the following is a remnant from space that has hit the surface of the Earth?
A) Meteoroid
B) Meteor
C) Meteorite
Q3) Which of the following will NOT be a consequence of Earth's consumption of the bulk of its radioactive "fuel" in the future?
A) Earth will spin more slowly on its axis.
B) The interior of the planet will solidify.
C) Volcanic activity will cease.
D) Continental drift will no longer occur.
Q4) What causes the tides on Earth,and how frequently do high and low tides occur?
Q5) Which is denser,the mantle of Earth or its crust? Explain why.
Q6) Why are impact craters rare on the surface of Earth,but plentiful on the Moon?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Atmospheres of Venus, Earth, and Mars
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Sample Questions
Q1) All weather and wind on Earth are a result of convection in the:
A) troposphere
B) stratosphere
C) mesosphere
D) ionosphere
Q2) The major difference in the composition of Earth's atmosphere compared to the atmospheres of Venus and Mars is a direct consequence of:
A) life on the planet
B) a geologically active interior
C) a moderate greenhouse effect
D) the presence of liquid water
Q3) Which of the following processes did NOT contribute to Earth's secondary atmosphere?
A) Volcanism
B) Accretion
C) Oxidation
D) Impacts
Q4) In the stratosphere of the Earth's atmosphere,how does the temperature vary with altitude and what causes this variation?
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Chapter 8: The Giant Planets
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Sample Questions
Q1) The strong magnetic fields of Uranus and Neptune arise from magnetic dynamos in their liquid rocky cores.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What would you observe in order to accurately measure the rotational period of a giant planet?
A) Clouds in the atmosphere
B) Bands of storms on the equator
C) Stellar occultations
D) Synchrotron emission
Q3) Which of the giant planets was predicted to exist mathematically before it was ever seen through a telescope?
A) Jupiter
B) Saturn
C) Uranus
D) Neptune
Q4) All the giant planets,not just Jupiter,have atmospheric bands and storms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why do we suspect that the inner planets do not have rings?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Small Bodies of the Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antarctica is the best hunting ground for meteorites for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A) the ground is covered with ice in Antarctica
B) more meteorites fall there than on other locations on Earth
C) few native rocks are found on the glaciers
D) meteorites are protected from weathering and contamination there
Q2) Pluto is the largest member of the Kuiper Belt.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why do long-period comets usually put on a much more visually spectacular display than short-period comets?
Q4) A comet having an orbit of 50 years would likely have come from the:
A) Trojan family
B) Oort Cloud
C) Zodiacal zone
D) Kuiper Belt
Q5) Europa is a very interesting moon that NASA is considering visiting with a spacecraft in order to search for signs of life.What is it about this moon that makes it so interesting,and what surface features give us clues about its interior?
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Chapter 10: Measuring the Stars
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75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parallax is used to measure:
A) distance
B) velocity
C) luminosity
D) mass
Q2) On a typical H-R diagram,where are the largest stars located?
A) In the upper left corner
B) In the upper right corner
C) In the lower left corner
D) In the lower right corner
Q3) Why do O- and B-type stars have weaker hydrogen absorption lines than A-type stars?
A) O- and B-type stars are cooler than A-type stars.
B) A larger fraction of hydrogen atoms in O- and B-type stars is ionized.
C) O- and B-type stars have converted much more of their hydrogen into heavier elements.
D) A-type stars have a higher mass than O- and B-type stars and they have more hydrogen.
Q4) How do astronomers use spectra to determine the composition of a star?
Q5) How is the unit of length known as a parsec defined?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Our Star: The Sun
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71 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnetic field is continuously produced and deformed in the Sun by:
A) differential rotation
B) fusion reactions in the core
C) a liquid conducting layer in the interior
D) This is a trick question.The solar magnetic field is primordial
Q2) What is "limb darkening"? Explain why limb darkening occurs in the Sun.
Q3) If the Sun converts 5 × 10<sup>11</sup> kg of H to He per second and the mass of a single hydrogen nucleus is 1.7 × 10<sup>-27</sup> kg,how many net proton-proton reactions go on per second in the Sun? What is the luminosity produced if the mass difference between a single helium nucleus and four hydrogen nuclei is 4 × 10<sup>-29</sup> kg? Note that 1 watt = 1 m<sup>2</sup>kg/s<sup>3</sup>.
A) 7 × 10<sup>37</sup> reactions per second; 3 × 10<sup>26</sup> watt
B) 3 × 10<sup>38</sup> reactions per second; 10<sup>27</sup> watt
C) 3 × 10<sup>38</sup> reactions per second; 4 × 10<sup>26</sup> watt
D) 7 × 10<sup>37</sup> reactions per second; 5 × 10<sup>25</sup> watt
Q4) The fact that the surface of the Sun rings like a bell lets us understand its interior better.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Evolution of Low-Mass Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) The more massive a star,the more hydrogen it has to burn,and the longer its main-sequence lifetime will be.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the two different forms of pressure that support the core of a low-mass main-sequence star and the core of a low-mass red giant star?
Q3) A Type Ia supernova is as luminous as 10 billion Suns.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Helium burns in the core of a horizontal branch star via __________ and produces
A) the triple-alpha reaction; carbon
B) the proton-proton chain; lithium
C) the triple-alpha reaction; oxygen
D) the proton-proton chain; iron
Q5) In what two ways does temperature affect the rate of nuclear reactions?
Q6) The Sun will become a red giant star in about 2 billion years.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Evolution of High-Mass Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the Sun were to be instantly replaced by a 1 M<sub>\(\bigodot\)</sub> black hole,the gravitational pull of the black hole on Earth would be:
A) much greater than it is now
B) the same as it is now
C) much smaller than it is now
D) irrelevant because Earth would be quickly obliterated by the strong tidal force of the black hole
Q2) Neutron stars have masses that range from:
A) 3.5 M<sub>\(\bigodot\)</sub> to 25 M<sub>\(\bigodot\)</sub>
B) 1.2 M<sub>\(\bigodot\)</sub> to 30 M<sub>\(\bigodot\)</sub>
C) 2.5 M<sub>\(\bigodot\)</sub> to 10 M<sub>\(\bigodot\)</sub>
D) 1.4 M<sub>\(\bigodot\)</sub> to 3 M<sub>\(\bigodot\)</sub>
Q3) Although a Type II supernova shines with a luminosity of 100 billion L<sub>\(\bigodot\)</sub>,most of the energy in the explosion is emitted in another way.What is it,and how much more energy does it carry compared to the light?
Q4) Black holes have an infinitely small radius,but a finite event horizon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why do large,high-mass main-sequence stars never become red giants?
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Chapter 14: The Expansion of Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it NOT possible to look all the way back to the Big Bang itself?
A) Photons are not produced until the stars begin to shine at a redshift of z \(\approx\) 20.
B) From redshifts of z = 0 to 100,photons are gravitationally lensed by the dark matter in the universe.
C) At redshifts of z > 1,000,most of the photons are blocked by large amounts of cold gas and dust.
D) For redshifts of z > 1,000,photons are heavily altered because they easily react with individual protons and electrons in the universe.
Q2) Which of the following was NOT created as a result of Big Bang nucleosynthesis?
A) Helium
B) Lithium
C) Carbon
D) Deuterium
Q3) What does the value of R<sub>U</sub>,the scale factor,tell us?
Q4) The cosmic background radiation (CBR)has a temperature of approximately 2.7 K and a Planck blackbody spectrum.Calculate the wavelength where the CBR spectrum peaks.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Realm of the Galaxies
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do astronomers know that AGNs are as small as our Solar System?
Q2) Although elliptical and irregular galaxies have been observed in both dwarf and giant varieties,we find only giant spiral galaxies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The type of AGN we see depends mostly on the angle at which we view the galaxy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Star formation in spiral galaxies happens only in the spiral arms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do the current star formation rates of spiral and elliptical galaxies compare?
Q6) What is the most likely candidate for making up the dark matter in galaxies?
Q7) We know that spiral galaxies contain dark matter because the gas in the disk rotates with a velocity that decreases in a way that is similar to our Solar System.
A)True
B)False
Q8) What is the connection between active galaxies and galactic mergers?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Our Galaxy: The Milky Way
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do stars form most often within molecular clouds?
Q2) Cosmic rays in the Milky Way are important because:
A) these energetic photons easily penetrate the Earth's atmosphere
B) they can be collected and used to generate electricity
C) they have about the same energy as that contained in the radiation and the kinetic energy of gas clouds
D) they carry information about AGN in external galaxies
Q3) Sitting in a 100°F hot tub feels much hotter than standing outside on a 100°F day.This analogy illustrates why:
A) interstellar dust is dark at optical wavelengths but bright in the infrared
B) supernovae can heat their shells to such high temperatures
C) an astronaut would feel cold in the 106 K intercloud gas
D) the Solar System is immersed in a hot bubble of gas
Q4) Most of the mass in our galaxy is in the form of:
A) stars
B) gas
C) dust
D) dark matter
Q5) How do we know that globular cluster stars were not the first stars that formed in our galaxy?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Modern Cosmology and the Origin of Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ratio of the density in luminous matter to the critical density is 0.3.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Put the following eras in the history of the evolution of the universe in their proper order from the earliest to the latest: black hole era,dark era,degenerate era,primordial era,stelliferous era.
Q3) Which of the following are NOT considered carrier particles used to mediate forces between other particles?
A) Photons
B) Gluons
C) Quarks
D) W+ particles
Q4) What do astronomers believe will be the final state of our universe?
A) A "Big Crunch" in which everything collapses back in on itself
B) An ever-expanding universe filled with nothing but hydrogen and helium gas
C) A universe that stops expanding and is filled with nothing but white dwarfs,neutron stars,and black holes
D) An ever-expanding universe filled with photons and elementary particles
Q5) What is the "flatness problem" in cosmology?
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Chapter 18: Life in the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) If we model the history of the Earth as a single day,at what time would the first human civilizations appear?
A) 0.2 seconds before midnight
B) 2 minutes before midnight
C) 10:00 P.M.
D) 6:00 P.M.
Q2) The Drake equation estimates the number of solar systems in our galaxy today that may harbor life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you wanted to find intelligent life in the universe,what spectral types of stars would you study and why?
Q4) Some forms of life on Earth are silicon-based.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Terrestrial life is composed of 20 different acids that are composed of only 4 different chemical elements.
A)True
B)False
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