Survey of Psychology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Survey of Psychology offers a comprehensive introduction to the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. The course covers major psychological concepts, theories, and research findings across a range of topics, including biological bases of behavior, learning, sensation and perception, memory, development, motivation, emotion, personality, psychological disorders, and social psychology. Emphasizing both historical and contemporary perspectives, the course provides students with foundational knowledge to understand psychological principles and their practical applications in everyday life. Critical thinking, ethical considerations, and real-world examples are integrated to enhance understanding and relevance.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Psychology Gateways to Mind and Behavior 13th Edition by Dennis Coon
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64 Chapters
13629 Verified Questions
13629 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: A: Introduction to Psychology and Research
Methods
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Critical thinking is used in psychology to evaluate theories by collecting A) introspective analyses.
B) empirical evidence.
C) intuitive data.
D) expert opinions.
Answer: B
Q2) Which school of thought brought the study of animals to psychology and also promoted educational psychology and industrial psychology?
A) structuralism
B) functionalism
C) humanistic psychology
D) Gestalt psychology
Answer: B
Q3) The first American psychology textbook was written by A) E.B.Titchener.
B) John Watson.
C) Carl Rogers.
D) John Dewey.
Answer: D
Page 3
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Chapter 1: B: Introduction to Psychology and Research
Methods
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an experiment to study the effects of study skills training on academic achievement,the study skills training would be the __________ variable.
A) dependent
B) extraneous
C) control
D) independent
Answer: D
Q2) Manuel is a psychologist employed by the human relations department of a car manufacturer.He helps select job applicants and also helps to improve workplace conditions and work relationships so that the company can operate effectively.Manuel is most likely a(n)__________ psychologist.
A) personality
B) forensic
C) educational
D) industrial-organizational
Answer: D
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Chapter 1: C: Introduction to Psychology and Research Methods
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163 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) We can draw conclusions about a larger group of people by randomly selecting a smaller group.The entire larger group of people is known as the A) natural clinical trial.
B) representative sample.
C) population.
D) conglomerate.
Answer: C
Q2) According to the text,case studies
A) lack formal control groups.
B) produce results that generalize better than survey results.
C) are the most scientific of the research methods.
D) are generally superior to experiments.
Answer: A
Q3) An advantage of the clinical method is that it
A) provides identification of clear cause-and-effect relationships.
B) allows information about large numbers of people to be gathered.
C) allows prediction.
D) allows investigation of rare or unusual problems or events.
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 2: A: Brain and Behavior
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500 Verified Questions
500 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) People with facial agnosia cannot
A) speak in a coherent manner.
B) recognize familiar faces.
C) move their facial muscles.
D) feel sensations in their faces.
Q2) A PET scan detects which of the following that are emitted by glucose as it is consumed by the brain cells?
A) potassium
B) radioactive iodine
C) electrons
D) positrons
Q3) Regrowth of a damaged nerve cell is most likely when A) damage occurs within the brain.
B) the cell body is destroyed.
C) damage occurs in the spinal cord.
D) an accidentally severed toe is sewn back on.
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Chapter 2: C: Brain and Behavior
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142 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In all,what percent of the population uses the left hemisphere for language?
A) 50 percent
B) 70 percent
C) 80 percent
D) 90 percent
Q2) Regarding the proportion of left-handed people,individualist countries tend to have
A) significantly more lefties than collectivist countries.
B) the same number of lefties as collectivist countries.
C) slightly fewer lefties than collectivist countries.
D) significantly fewer lefties than collectivist countries.
Q3) The paralyzing effect of curare is caused by its ability to block the action of acetylcholine at neuron-muscle synapses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The specialization in the abilities of the brain hemispheres is known as A) ablation.
B) corticalization.
C) lateralization.
D) ambidextrous functionality.
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Chapter 3: A: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a nipple touches the infant's mouth,rhythmic nursing occurs.This is known as the __________ reflex.
A) rooting
B) sucking
C) grasping
D) Moro
Q2) Bridges found that emotions appear in a consistent order,and he believed that the first basic split is between
A) fear and rage.
B) joy and happiness.
C) guilt and pride.
D) pleasant and unpleasant emotions.
Q3) The looking chamber,which is a device used in visual perception research conducted with infants,was invented by
A) B.F.Skinner.
B) Robert Fantz.
C) Jerome Kagan.
D) Jean Piaget.
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Chapter 3: B: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shantel now realizes that Santa's sack couldn't possibly hold enough toys for millions of girls and boys,which shows that she has developed
A) animism.
B) egocentric thought.
C) assimilation.
D) conservation.
Q2) A child has learned to get his or her way with a younger sibling by using physical intimidation.If he or she uses the same tactics on peers,this demonstrates A) transformation.
B) classical conditioning.
C) assimilation.
D) accommodation.
Q3) Tiana is four weeks old and will use which of the following to gain attention from her parents at this age?
A) cooing
B) babbling
C) crying
D) holophrases
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Chapter 3: C: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a way that generativity can be expressed?
A) through productive or creative work
B) by guiding one's own children or helping other children as a teacher or a coach.
C) as a concern for the welfare of others and society as a whole.
D) through a concern with one's own needs and comforts
Q2) Studies suggest that the healthiest,happiest older people
A) show more gratitude and forgiveness.
B) decrease their activity to a slower pace.
C) decrease the number of social activities.
D) show less empathy for others and more concern for self.
Q3) Emily is a middle-aged woman who lives alone.Her income is secure and her life is comfortable.Still,she seems unhappy and without direction,possibly because she lacks A) autonomy.
B) disengagement.
C) generativity.
D) a sense of identity.
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Chapter 3: D: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Kübler-Ross,the reaction to impending death in which the person is neither happy nor sad,but is at peace with the inevitable is referred to as the stage of
Q2) Ben touches his newborn brother's palm,and his little brother takes hold of Ben's finger and will not let go,illustrating the Babinski reflex.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Problems or defects that originate during prenatal development in the mother's womb referred to as __________ problems.
Q4) The attachment study of infant monkeys to wire and cloth surrogates suggested that the source of food is the most important factor in attachment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The device that was invented by Robert Fantz and allowed researchers to observe the movements of an infant's eyes in order to determine what infants can see and what holds their attention was the ___________.
Q6) Discrimination or prejudice on the basis of age is called __________.
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Page 11
Chapter 4: A: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) In their experiments on the brain and perceptual features,Blakemore,Cooper,Grobstein and Chow found that
A) the kittens raised in the vertically-striped rooms ran into chair legs in the normal environment.
B) the kittens raised in the horizontally-striped rooms had difficulty jumping onto a chair in the normal environment.
C) there was an actual decrease in brain cells tuned to the missing features.
D) all of these findings were true.
Q2) Damage to the receptors for peripheral vision could be expected to create A) presbyopia.
B) tunnel vision.
C) myopia.
D) color blindness.
Q3) If you wanted to move quickly into the dark without having to adapt,you would use what color light bulb in the room?
A) blue
B) red
C) green
D) purple
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Chapter 4: B: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) After riding in the back seat of a car,making rapid turns along a winding road,you experience dizziness and nausea because
A) information from the semicircular canals and the rest of your body is inconsistent.
B) poisons build up in the system which cause vomiting to eject them.
C) auditory and visual stimuli combine too rapidly and produce a sensory overload.
D) kinesthetic receptors have been stimulated too vigorously and eventually shutdown.
Q2) MSG's reputation as a "flavor enhancer" occurs because
A) the savory odors of the food are combined with the taste of glutamate.
B) the salty, sour, and sweet taste sensations are combined.
C) it enhances the textural and temperature equalities of the food.
D) the pain created on the tongue triggers an "endorphin high."
Q3) Messages carried from small,slow fibers tend to
A) close the spinal gate directly.
B) pass through the pain gate and on to a central biasing system.
C) inhibit the production of endorphins.
D) cause rapid sensory adaptation.
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Chapter 4: C: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you thread a needle,which of the following depth cues would be most important to you?
A) retinal disparity
B) texture gradient
C) accommodation
D) convergence
Q2) The moon illusion is best explained by
A) the effects of depth cues on apparent distance.
B) the perceptual closure effect.
C) magnification caused by the denser atmosphere along the horizon.
D) convergence.
Q3) The ability to identify the direction from which a sound originates is strongly dependent on having two ears separated in space by several inches.The ability to perceive visual depth is related to a similar property known as A) accommodation.
B) aerial perspective.
C) retinal disparity.
D) inverted vision.
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Chapter 4: D: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) The science of measuring changes in physical stimuli and relating them to changes in psychological sensations is called __________.
Q2) Your skin receptors detect five different sensations,which are cold,warmth,pressure,light touch,and __________.
Q3) European Americans have a relatively narrow focus of attention,while East Asians have a broader focus of attention.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person will be able to recognize people of other races better if the person is in a positive mood rather than a negative mood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The stapes is attached to a membrane on the cochlea called the __________.
Q6) If you do not hear the traffic outside your psychology class because you are engrossed in the lecture,then you are exhibiting selective attention.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The purported ability to predict future events is called __________.
Page 15
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Chapter 5: A: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who have a night terror
A) have them during REM sleep in the middle of the night.
B) are usually middle-age to older adults.
C) show only slight or no movement during the night terror.
D) rarely remember in the morning that they even had them.
Q2) Which type of insomnia is caused by worry,stress,or excitement; is characterized by excess mental activity and heightened arousal leading to frustration; and is best dealt with by getting up and doing something useful or satisfying?
A) cyclic insomnia
B) temporary insomnia
C) chronic insomnia
D) drug-dependency insomnia
Q3) Which of the following is a technique for eliminating nightmares that involves making the upsetting dream familiar while the person is awake as well as "mentally re-programming" future dream content?
A) imagery rehearsal
B) stimulus control
C) the paradoxical intention
D) activation-synthesis
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Chapter 5: B: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding drug use,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) All of the frequently abused drugs produce immediate pleasure and delayed negative consequences.
B) People who stop using drugs often say that they quit because they had solved their problems as they got older and no longer needed to escape by using drugs.
C) Adolescents who abuse drugs tend to be maladjusted, alienated, impulsive, and emotionally distressed.
D) If an abuser merely feels better, even briefly, after taking a drug, drug taking can become compulsive.
Q2) Jacob has taken Ecstasy.The activity within his brain will increase because this drug
A) causes more neurotransmitters to be released.
B) will prolong the action of certain neurotransmitters.
C) will directly stimulate brain cells by mimicking specific neurotransmitters in the brain.
D) will fill receptor sites on brain cells and block incoming messages.
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Chapter 5: C: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding the approaches used to quit smoking,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Nicotine patches or nicotine gum can help people get through the withdrawal period.
B) The "cold turkey" approach is still considered the most effective approach in producing permanent nonsmokers.
C) Scheduled smoking helps people to learn to cope with the urge to smoke.
D) The gradual approach to quitting smoking allows the smoker to not feel like a "failure" if they smoke one cigarette.
Q2) "Blue heavens," "yellow jackets," "goof balls," "reds," "pink ladies," "rainbows," and "tooies" are street names for
A) Ecstasy.
B) barbiturates.
C) hallucinogens.
D) amphetamines.
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Chapter 5: D: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sleepwalkers have been known to play a musical instrument,drive a car,or cook while asleep.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One way to eliminate nightmares involves making the upsetting dream familiar while the person is awake and "mentally re-programming" future dream content,a technique known as __________.
Q3) Arthur has been driving for almost ten hours straight,and he is tired and drowsy.He momentarily falls asleep for a few seconds.Arthur has experienced a(n)__________.
Q4) You tie a short length of string to a small ring and hold this ring at eye level,about a foot from your face.By focusing on the ring,you are able to make the ring swing back and forth.You are surprised by this automatic micromovement of your fingers.You most likely have experienced a(n)__________.
Q5) By using small isolation tanks in which a participant floats in shallow body-temperature water containing hundreds of pounds of Epsom salts,psychologists have explored the possible benefits of __________.
Q6) Valium,Xanax,Halcion,and Librium are examples of the depressant drug class known as __________.
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Chapter 6: A: Conditioning and Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you are about to get a shot with a hypodermic needle,your muscles tighten and there is a catch in your breathing because you have learned to expect that getting poked with a needle will be painful.This explanation of your behavior is consistent with A) the informational view.
B) the interactionism theory.
C) the law of effect.
D) shaping.
Q2) Although Sydney was not feeling very well,she went to her favorite Chinese restaurant for lunch.After eating the food,she became very sick.Upon going to the doctor,she found out that it was a stomach virus that had made her sick,not the food.However,the next time she went to the Chinese restaurant and smelled the food,she immediately felt nauseous.In this story,the unconditioned response (UR)was
A) the smell of the Chinese food.
B) the stomach virus.
C) getting sick due to the stomach virus.
D) getting sick to the smell of the Chinese food.
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Page 20
Chapter 6: B: Conditioning and Learning
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Q1) In daily life,learning is usually based on pattern of reinforcement,in which only a portion of all responses are reinforced.This pattern is referred to as __________ reinforcement.
A) incongruent
B) conditional
C) partial
D) semi-continual
Q2) Parents report dramatic improvements in their children's behavior (that is,a decrease in negative attention-seeking)when they
A) scold their children for their disruptive behavior.
B) spank their children for their disruptive behavior.
C) ignore all behavior except for the target behavior they wish to reduce and then use a strong aversive punishment.
D) ignore their children's disruptive behavior and praise their child for being quiet or playing constructively.
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Chapter 6: C: Conditioning and Learning
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Q1) The most common error in the use of punishment for training or discipline is that it is A) seldom severe enough to be effective.
B) often accompanied by no explanation.
C) relied on to the exclusion of other methods.
D) administered unfairly.
Q2) By the time the average person graduates from high school,he or she will have spent a total of 11,000 hours in the classroom and how many total hours watching TV?
A) 6,000
B) 15,000
C) 22,000
D) 36,000
Q3) Learning the latest dance step by watching others on television is an example of which kind of learning?
A) classical conditioning.
B) discovery learning.
C) modeling.
D) instrumental learning.
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Chapter 6: D: Conditioning and Learning
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Q1) Describe three problems that occur as punishment increases in severity.
Q2) The process through which a response is taught by rewarding successive approximations to the final desired response is referred to as __________.
Q3) Skills,such as dancing,tying your shoe,or playing a guitar,are most easily learned through __________ learning.
Q4) Repeated exposure to media violence desensitizes individuals,making them less likely to react negatively to violence and,hence,more prone to engage in aggression. A)True
B)False
Q5) Internal images or other mental representations of an area (maze,city,campus,etc.)that underlie an ability to choose alternative paths to the same goal refers to a(n)__________.
Q6) A teacher wants her students to study steadily across the semester.What kind of schedule of reinforcement could she put her quizzes on in order to produce a steady rate of responding,and explain why this schedule would be more successful than the other schedules of reinforcement?
Q7) Classical and operant conditioning are the two types of __________ learning.
Q8) Events that occur after a response are called __________.
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Chapter 7: A: Memory
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Q1) Someone leaves a phone number on your answering machine.You repeat the number to yourself as you start to dial.Then,the doorbell rings,and you rush to see who is there.When you return to the phone,you have completely forgotten the number.This illustrates how interference affects ___________ memory.
A) eidetic
B) sensory
C) short-term
D) long-term
Q2) Lana was the witness to a robbery.In order to help her remember details of the crime,she is asked to remember the crime in a different order and from different viewpoints.Lana is undergoing
A) retroactive priming.
B) the progressive part method.
C) retroactive consolidation.
D) a cognitive interview.
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Chapter 7: B: Memory
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Q1) Cue-dependent theories of memory suggest that you would do best on your history test if you could be tested
A) in the room where you studied.
B) in a quiet room with only a small group of students.
C) with a large group of history majors.
D) with students who are your age and share your interests.
Q2) You are taking a math exam,and you are actively searching through the information stored in your memory to come up with the formulas to answer the questions.You are using your __________ memory.
A) explicit
B) implicit
C) episodic
D) contextual
Q3) If you can't remember whose picture is on a U.S.ten dollar bill,the most likely reason is
A) encoding failure.
B) proactive interference.
C) disuse.
D) retroactive interference.
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Page 25
Chapter 7: C: Memory
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Q1) A prime way for students to provide feedback to themselves and improve retrieval while studying is to employ
A) massed practice.
B) recitation.
C) encoding imagery.
D) checklist evaluations.
Q2) If you are attempting to learn a list of terms with no meaningful relationship among these terms,you should remember that mnemonic techniques
A) will be ineffective in learning these terms.
B) will be superior to rote learning.
C) tend to improve implict memories rather than explicit memories.
D) tend to improve procedural memories rather than semantic memories.
Q3) Redintegration is the reason that one small stimulus,such as hearing an old song,can cause you to have vivid and detailed memories of your senior prom.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If two or more interconnected brain cells become more active at the same time,the connections between them grow stronger through a process known as __________.
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Chapter 8: A: Cognition,language,and Creativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A carpenter is designing an ornate table,but before she actually begins assembling it,she envisions what it will look like.She is probably using A) mnemonic images.
B) created images.
C) kinesthetic imagery.
D) eidetic imagery.
Q2) Almost everyone who has tried the Rubik's cube puzzle begins with A) trial-and-error.
B) heuristics.
C) algorithms.
D) a functional solution.
Q3) If you mentally picture a dog sitting beside a mosquito,it is easy to "zoom in" on the dog's nose.However,you would take longer in trying to "zoom in" on the wings of the mosquito.This is because
A) the size of mental images is invariant across individuals.
B) the larger an object is, the harder it is to see its details.
C) although individuals are very good at forming mental images of animals, they are not so good at forming mental images of insects.
D) the larger an object is, the easier it is to see its details.
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Page 27
Chapter 8: B: Cognition,language,and Creativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Try working backward from the desired goal to the starting point or current state." This advice describes a
A) syllogism.
B) heuristic.
C) prototype.
D) dimension of the semantic differential.
Q2) Sometimes students are so intent on meeting the page minimum requirement on a term paper that they fail to include the other important requirements for this paper.These students are exhibiting which barrier to problem-solving?
A) pragmatic
B) learned
C) perceptual
D) emotional
Q3) Which of the following is usually associated with creativity?
A) convergent thinking
B) divergent thinking
C) modeling
D) syntax
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Chapter 8: C: Cognition,language,and Creativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since many "new" problems are really old problems in new clothing,most problems become easier to solve when we
A) isolate ourselves and focus intently and persistently on the problem.
B) make a very quick decision since intuitive thinking is very creative.
C) dig deeper into a problem with logic.
D) look for analogies to represent the problem.
Q2) A corporate manager who wants to solve a business problem but becomes stern and angry when members of his marketing team joke playfully about possible solutions is exhibiting a perceptual barrier to problem solving.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the differences in the three types of concepts,and give an example of each type.
Q4) Looking for analogies to a problem
A) is an effective way to represent a problem.
B) helps to define the problem more narrowly.
C) encourages one to critic solutions and discard unworkable ideas.
D) encourages the formation of mental sets.
Q5) The basic units of thought: concepts,language,and __________.
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Chapter 9: A: Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Test-retest,split-half,and equivalent-forms are three approaches to check a test's
A) reliability.
B) validity.
C) objectivity.
D) standardization.
Q2) The ability to solve problems using already acquired knowledge is referred to as __________ intelligence.
A) fluid
B) performance
C) crystallized
D) divergent
Q3) On which section of the Stanford-Binet (SB5)are subjects asked to correctly remember the order of colored beads seen,to repeat a series of digits forward and backward,and to name the last word in each sentence after hearing several sentences read?
A) fluid reasoning
B) visual-spatial processing
C) quantitative reasoning
D) working memory
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Page 30
Chapter 9: B: Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kelsey is training to be a nurse.The information and skills that she acquires through her college classes and her clinical work in the hospital would be classified by David Perkins as __________ intelligence.
A) neural
B) experiential
C) reflective
D) kinesthetic
Q2) As people age,their reproductive cells are more prone to errors during cell division.This raises the odds that an extra chromosome will be present and result in the most common form of genetic intellectual disability known as A) Down syndrome.
B) fragile-X syndrome.
C) phenylketonuria (PKU).
D) cretinism.
Q3) As the degree of genetic similarity declines,the correlation between IQ scores A) grows larger.
B) grows smaller.
C) remains the same.
D) becomes stronger and more positive.
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Page 31
Chapter 9: C: Intelligence
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31026
Sample Questions
Q1) Culture-fair intelligence tests have been shown to be entirely free of cultural influences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Jason and his two siblings all have IQs between 50 and 70 and come from a very poor household where nutrition,intellectual stimulation,medical care,and emotional support are inadequate.Jason and his siblings most likely have intellectual disabilities that have a(n)__________ cause.
Q3) Kenny,a minority adolescent,believes that what he learns "on the street" is more important than what he is taught in school.According to Robert Sternberg,Kenny believes which of the following types of intelligence is the most important?
A) practical intelligence
B) analytic intelligence
C) naturalistic intelligence
D) divergent intelligence
Q4) If Eppie has difficulty understanding the motives of others,then,according to Howard Gardner,Eppie would be low in __________ intelligence.
Q5) Robert Sternberg referred to "book learning" as __________ intelligence.
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Chapter 10: A: Motivation and Emotion
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249 Verified Questions
249 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31027
Sample Questions
Q1) The causes of anorexia and bulimia include
A) exaggerated fears of becoming fat.
B) overestimation of body size.
C) harmful messages in the media.
D) all of these.
Q2) The "supermarket diet" leads to overeating due to its
A) effect on homeostasis.
B) incentive value.
C) production of increased metabolic rates.
D) prevention of stomach distentions.
Q3) Regarding the mechanisms of hunger,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) If your stomach is growling, it is probably releasing ghrelin.
B) Ghrelin activates parts of the brain involved in learning.
C) One should study immediately after eating, not before you eat.
D) Ghrelin is a hormone that activates a person's lateral hypothalamus.
Q4) Stimulus motives differ from biological motives in that stimulus motives
A) are innate and necessary for survival.
B) appear to be innate, but are not necessary for survival.
C) are acquired through various forms of conditioning and learning.
D) include needs for security, status, approval, and achievement.
Page 33
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Chapter 10: B: Motivation and Emotion
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31028
Sample Questions
Q1) Sarina is sky-diving for the first time.She is terrified; and when she finally reaches the ground safely,she feels a brief but exhilarated sense of relief.After several weeks of repeated jumps,her fear decreases and she now gets a "rush" of euphoria that lasts for hours after a jump.Sarina's experience is best explained by the __________ theory.
A) drive reduction
B) opponent-process
C) Yerkes-Dodson
D) Cannon-Bard
Q2) When Jeremy first tried heroin,he felt a "rush" of pleasure.However,as the drug wore off,discomfort and craving occurred,so he began using heroin more often.Now that Jeremy is addicted to heroin,he finds that the drug has stopped producing pleasure,but it will end the withdrawal symptoms he now suffers,at least for a while.Jeremy's experience is best explained by the __________ theory.
A) drive reduction
B) opponent-process
C) Yerkes-Dodson
D) Cannon-Bard
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Chapter 10: C: Motivation and Emotion
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31029
Sample Questions
Q1) Having facial expressions and becoming aware of them is what influences our private emotional experiences,according to
A) Carrol Izard.
B) Cannon and Bard.
C) James and Lange.
D) Richard Lazarus.
Q2) The arrangement of the face into a combination of two or more facial expressions is called a(n)
A) emotional tone.
B) facial blend.
C) differentiated expression.
D) mood.
Q3) The most universally recognized facial expression is
A) pursed lips.
B) smiling.
C) sticking out your tongue.
D) raising your eyebrows.
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Chapter 10: D: Motivation and Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) As you and your mother are riding the double ferris wheel,you interpret your adrenaline rush as "thrilling and delightful" and your mother interprets her adrenaline rush as "terrifying fear" with this difference best explained by the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lie detectors (polygraphs)cannot tell the difference in lying and anxiety.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To enhance your self-confidence,you should make comparisons when you first acquire a skill so you will know how much you need to improve regarding this skill.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Desirable goals may motivate behavior in the absence of an internal need with this property known as the goal's __________ value.
Q5) Describe the contemporary model of emotion,explaining how each of the theories of emotion is included within this model.
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Chapter 11: A: Gender and Sexuality
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250 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31031
Sample Questions
Q1) While she was pregnant,Deanna's unborn daughter was exposed to male hormones.Deanna's daughter will most likely
A) have difficulty becoming pregnant when she is an adult.
B) be a "tomboy" during childhood.
C) become permanently masculinized.
D) show an elevated interest in male-oriented activities as an adult.
Q2) The hypothesized effect that prenatal exposure to sex hormones has on the development of the body,nervous system,and later behavior patterns is called A) the androgenital biasing effect.
B) the biological-biasing effect.
C) transsexualism.
D) androgyny.
Q3) Sex as indicated by a preponderance of estrogens (female)or androgens (male)in the body refers to A) genetic sex.
B) gonadal sex.
C) hormonal sex.
D) gender identity.
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Chapter 11: B: Gender and Sexuality
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250 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent child molestation,children should be taught
A) not to keep secrets from their parents.
B) to tell their parents if anyone they are chatting with on the Internet wants to meet them in person.
C) to shout "no" if any adult tries to engage them in sexual activity.
D) to do all of these.
Q2) Regarding sexual behavior,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) By strict public standards, any sexual activity other than face-to-face heterosexual intercourse between married adults is considered atypical.
B) Private standards are usually more accepting of different types of sexual activity than public standards.
C) For most people, publicly expressed standards about acceptable sexual activity coincides with their private behaviors.
D) Just as the hunger drive is expressed and satisfied in many ways, the sex drive also leads to an immense range of behaviors.
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Chapter 11: C: Gender and Sexuality
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Sample Questions
Q1) A method for inhibiting ejaculation by compressing the tip of the penis is known as
A) the squeeze technique.
B) the orgasmic remission procedure.
C) sensory awareness training.
D) sensate focus.
Q2) Regarding rape and rapists,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Men can be victims of rape, especially homosexual rape.
B) Most psychologists believe that rape is strictly a sexual act.
C) Even years later, rape survivors are more likely to suffer from depression, alcohol or drug abuse, and other emotional problems.
D) Date rape is coercive, but not necessarily violent, while forcible rape is carried out under the threat of bodily injury.
Q3) The more comfortable acceptance of human sexuality has
A) pressured some individuals into sexual behavior because it is "expected."
B) increased the rate of extramarital sex dramatically.
C) decreased acquaintance or date rape.
D) resulted in all of these.
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Chapter 11: D: Gender and Sexuality Completion
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Q1) Mitzi tends to save up her hurt feelings and complaints and then "dumps" them on her husband during an argument.Mitzi is exhibiting __________.
Q2) According to sex therapist Barry McCarthy,the four elements are necessary for a continuing healthy sexual relationship are valuing one's sexuality,valuing intimacy,feeling that one deserves sexual pleasure,and __________.
Q3) Explain what is meant by androgyny,and why being androgynous is more adaptable for both males and females.
Q4) Discuss the biological biasing effect and how it is used to explain different thinking abilities in women and men; and discuss the evidence that contradicts this theory.
Q5) According to the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM),a person who is a transsexual would be diagnosed with a gender identity disorder.In the new version of the DSM to be published in 2013,this diagnosis may be changed to __________.
Q6) Brandon has a deep conflict between his biological sex of being a male and his preferred psychological and social gender role of a female.Brandon would be considered a(n)__________.
Q7) Surgical removal of the testicles or ovaries is known as __________.
Page 40
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Chapter 12: A: Personality
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31035
Sample Questions
Q1) The level of consciousness that includes all mental contents,including thoughts,perceptions,feelings,and memories that a person is currently aware of at any given moment is called the A) unconscious.
B) conscious.
C) postconscious.
D) preconscious.
Q2) Regarding the unconscious,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Unconscious thoughts, feelings, or urges may slip into behavior in disguised or symbolic form.
B) The superego operates only at the unconscious level.
C) The unconscious holds the instinctual drives of the id.
D) The brain's limbic system seems to trigger unconscious emotions and memories.
Q3) The 16 Personality Factor (16 PF)test was developed by A) Gordon Allport.
B) Albert Bandura.
C) Raymond Cattell.
D) Carl Jung.
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Chapter 12: B: Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Horney believed that emotional health reflects
A) a balance in moving toward, away from, and against others.
B) the ability to overcome feelings of inferiority through compensation.
C) achieve a balance between one's introversion and extroversion.
D) a congruence between one's real self and ideal self.
Q2) Of the positive personality traits listed below,which were found to be the most strongly associated with life satisfaction?
A) curiosity and gratitude
B) fairness and self-control
C) humor and integrity
D) persistence and the appreciation of excellence
Q3) Regarding the work of Carl Jung,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Jung was the first to use the term self-actualization to describe a striving for completion and unity.
B) Jung's theory is not considered to be scientific.
C) Jung remained faithful to most of Freud's theory.
D) Jung's autobiography is entitled Memories, Dreams, Reflections.
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Chapter 12: C: Personality
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31037
Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding psychological assessment,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Psychological assessments are significantly less accurate than commonly used medical tests.
B) Test scores are informative, but they can incorrectly label people.
C) A clinical psychologist trying to decide if a person has emotional problems should use the MMPI-2 plus information from interviews and other tests.
D) Interviews, observation, rating scales, and personality questionnaires try to directly identify overt, observable traits.
Q2) For humanistic theorists,the principal motive involves
A) situational determinants.
B) expectancies.
C) self-reinforcement.
D) self-actualization.
Q3) Projective tests seek to
A) directly identify overt, observable traits.
B) uncover hidden or unconscious thoughts and needs.
C) measure verbal and performance intelligence.
D) measure honesty or integrity.
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Chapter 12: D: Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Our personalities can be shaped by the stories we tell ourselves,according to the __________ approach.
Q2) According to studies of the influence of heredity and environment on personality traits,heredity appears to be responsible for less than ten percent of the variation in most personality traits.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to social learning theory,a child's feeling of being emotionally connected to another person is referred to as __________.
Q4) Differentiate between the terms self-concept and self-esteem,and describe how they are related; and then explain the differences in the basis of self-esteem in Eastern and Western cultures.
Q5) Classifying people into two or three types is more informative than rating people on a list of traits.
A)True B)False
Q6) A person's unique and enduring behavior patterns define his or her __________.
Page 44
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Chapter 13: A: Health,stress,and Coping
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31039
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Q1) When Selye examined animals in the last stage of the general adaptation syndrome,he found intense shrinkage of all of the following organs EXCEPT for
A) adrenal glands
B) thymus
C) spleen
D) lymph nodes
Q2) Which of the following has NOT been shown to boost the immune system?
A) support groups
B) positive emotions, such as laughter
C) guided imagery
D) negative emotions, such as anger
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the major health-promoting behaviors listed in the text?
A) consume no more than four alcoholic drinks per day
B) use seat belts and minimize sun exposure
C) lower blood pressure with diet and exercise, or medicine if necessary
D) eat a balanced, low-fat diet
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Chapter 13: B: Health,stress,and Coping
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250 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31040
Sample Questions
Q1) Persons who are projecting
A) adopt the motives and aspirations of others while denying their own.
B) behave in exaggerated ways opposite to their true impulses.
C) presume others share their own shortcomings and unacceptable impulses.
D) run the risk of developing schizophrenia later in life.
Q2) You've won a contest and have to decide between a cruise to the Bahamas or a vacation in Europe.This is an example of a(n)__________ conflict.
A) approach-approach
B) approach-avoidance
C) avoidance-avoidance
D) double appraisal
Q3) Many of the defenses were identified by Freud,who believed these defenses operate
A) unconsciously.
B) through suppression.
C) only in specific psychosexual stages.
D) by creating an imbalance between the ego and superego.
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Chapter 13: C: Health,stress,and Coping
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31041
Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Jacobs is interested in how behavioral factors in medicine,physical illness,and medical treatment influence patients with Alzheimer's disease; thus,Dr.Jacobs' specialty is called behavioral medicine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which perspective defines health as a state of well-being that we can actively attain and maintain?
A) the psychosomatic perspective
B) the mind-body perspective
C) the medical model
D) the biopsychosocial model
Q3) Immigrants and refugees must adapt to dramatic changes in language,dress,values,and social customs.For many,the result is a period of culture shock,or
A) cultural hypochondriasis.
B) acculturative stress.
C) learned helplessness.
D) psychosomatic neurosis.
Q4) A person with the choice of being in the "frying pan or the fire" is in a(n)__________ conflict.
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Chapter 14: A: Psychological Disorders
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31042
Sample Questions
Q1) A flat affect in which a person responds in an emotional way that is lacking in normal facial expressions is a symptom often seen in A) psychoses.
B) dissociative disorders.
C) nervous breakdowns.
D) paraphilias.
Q2) A person whose immoral behavior harms others,but who feels no remorse for such harmful behavior,would NOT be regarded as abnormal if the criterion used was A) statistical abnormality.
B) social nonconformity.
C) maladaptive behavior.
D) subjective discomfort.
Q3) When a person experiences delusions and/or hallucinations and loses contact with shared views of reality,the person is experiencing a A) psychosis.
B) neurosis.
C) nervous breakdown.
D) paraphilia.
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Chapter 14: B: Psychological Disorders
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31043
Sample Questions
Q1) If a person suffering from schizophrenia has an identical twin,what percent chance does the other twin have of also becoming schizophrenic?
A) one percent
B) 28 percent
C) 48 percent
D) 75 percent
Q2) Regarding hereditary influences and schizophrenia,it is most accurate to say that
A) heredity has been ruled out as a factor in schizophrenia.
B) some people may inherit a potential for developing schizophrenia.
C) the children of schizophrenic parents are least likely to develop schizophrenia.
D) if one identical twin is schizophrenic, the other will definitely develop schizophrenia at some time in his or her life.
Q3) Disorganized schizophrenia is characterized by A) attacks of fear or panic.
B) silliness, laughter, and bizarre or obscene behavior.
C) delusions of persecution and grandeur.
D) severe depression.
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Chapter 14: C: Psychological Disorders
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31044
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the antisocial personality disorder?
A) lying and deception
B) manipulative
C) lack of remorse
D) social anxiety
Q2) Deceiving and manipulating others without any remorse are the main characteristics of which personality disorder?
A) histrionic
B) paranoid
C) antisocial
D) narcissistic
Q3) Regarding patterns of suicide,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Four times as many men complete suicide, but women make more attempts.
B) Marriage, when successful may be the best natural guard against suicidal impulses.
C) Native Americans have the highest suicide rate in the United States.
D) Suicide rates tend to decrease with advancing age.
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Chapter 14: D: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Research has shown that the right combination of inherited potential and environmental stress may produce mind-altering changes in the brain.These changes may cause psychotic behavior and various forms of psychopathology.This is called the __________ model.
Q2) Persons who are housebound and extremely fearful of leaving the security of their own homes suffer from agoraphobia.
A)True B)False
Q3) Discuss the different ways of defining abnormality and the shortcomings of each; describe the core feature of all abnormal behavior; and explain in what setting the term insanity is used.
Q4) After witnessing a horrible murder,Susan has become "blind" even though there is nothing wrong with her eyes,and she should be able to see.Susan is suffering from a somatoform condition known as a(n)__________ disorder.
Q5) "Maternity blues" is another name for the condition known as postpartum depression.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 15: A: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following psychological approaches has been found to be as effective as drug therapy for treating many cases of depression?
A) cognitive therapy
B) aversion therapy
C) systematic desensitization
D) EMDR
Q2) Rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT)was developed by
A) Albert Ellis.
B) Albert Bandura.
C) Victor Frankl.
D) Joseph Wolpe.
Q3) Trepanning,as a primitive procedure,involved boring a hole into the skull to A) relieve pressure or release "evil spirits."
B) shock patients into a remission of symptoms.
C) coerce and control disruptive patients.
D) punish those who had committed crimes.
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Chapter 15: B: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anxiolytics are generally used to A) improve the mood of depressed patients.
B) calm agitated patients.
C) prevent hallucinations.
D) mimic the effects of psychosis for research purposes.
Q2) A therapeutic technique for psychological disorders that was supposed to calm persons who did not respond to any other treatment,but often produced a high rate of undesirable side effects,such as seizures,blunted emotions,major personality changes,and stupor was
A) the prefrontal lobotomy.
B) REBT.
C) EMDR.
D) deep lesioning.
Q3) Aversion therapy for smoking involves rapid smoking which seems to work because A) of the added expense of purchasing so many cigarettes.
B) excessive smoking is unpleasant due to nicotine being toxic.
C) the smoker feels smelly and dirty.
D) the process is based on supportive reinforcement.
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53
Chapter 15: C: Therapies
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Q1) When experiments are used to determine whether therapy is effective,the therapy can be deemed effective only if the
A) control group shows improvement, but the experimental group shows none.
B) waiting list group shows dramatic improvement over the experimental and control groups.
C) experimental group shows more improvement than the control group.
D) experimental and waiting list groups show improvement and the control group shows no improvement.
Q2) A major development involves attempting to identify "empirically-supported therapies," which are therapies that are
A) regarded by renowned experts in psychology as the most effective therapies.
B) regarded by the public and insurance companies as the most effective therapies.
C) computer-guided sessions that help individuals to identify problems and form plans of action.
D) validated through research experiments and clinical practice.
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Chapter 15: D: Therapies
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Q1) In a national survey,nearly nine out of ten people who have sought mental health care say their lives improved as a result of the treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Maggie's fear of flying is treated by exposing her through a headset to a three-dimensional,computer-generated "world" in which she can experience walking onto a plane,being seated,and taking off.This computerized environment that responds to Maggie's head movements is part of a behavioral therapy known as __________.
Q3) Explain how Albert Ellis uses his A-B-C analysis in rational-emotive behavior therapy,list the three core ideas from which most irrational beliefs originate,and describe how REBT therapists would attempt to change these beliefs.
Q4) You are preoccupied by the negative thought that "you will fail every test you take in college." How could you use thought-stopping to reduce the occurrence of this negative thought?
Q5) A caring relationship that unites a therapist and a client in working to solve the client's problems is referred to as the __________.
Q6) Rational-emotive behavior therapy was developed by __________.
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Page 55
Chapter 16: A: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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Q1) Regarding attribution theory,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Whether we are right or wrong about the causes of their behavior, our conclusions affect how we act.
B) A person's behavior is distinctive if it changes very little when we observe it on many different occasions.
C) When situational demands are strong, we tend to discount internal causes as a way of explaining a person's behavior.
D) Attributing bodily arousal to various sources can have a large impact on emotions.
Q2) If you donate money to support environmental causes,this represents which component of an attitude?
A) action component
B) belief component
C) expression component
D) emotional component
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Chapter 16: B: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Solomon Asch's classic experiment (in which subjects judged a "standard" line and "comparison" lines)showed that subjects yielded to group pressure in about what proportion of the critical test trials?
A) one-tenth
B) one-fifth
C) one-third
D) one-half
Q2) Solomon Asch's classic experiment (in which subjects judged a "standard" line and "comparison" lines)was actually conducted to study
A) social perception.
B) social roles.
C) cohesiveness.
D) conformity.
Q3) Space that extends about 18 inches out from the skin is referred as __________ distance.
A) personal
B) social
C) intimate
D) public
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Chapter 16: C: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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Q1) An important difference between brainwashing and other types of persuasion is that brainwashing
A) requires a captive audience.
B) is almost always permanent.
C) changes actions, not attitudes and beliefs.
D) is reversed during the refreezing phase.
Q2) A book entitled Your Perfect Right by Alberti and Emmons provides information about
A) assertiveness training.
B) stereotyping and prejudice.
C) compliance techniques, such as the foot-in-the door approach.
D) dealing with burnout on the job.
Q3) During which stage of brainwashing are prisoners most likely to cooperate with their captors and provide the information requested in order to obtain relief from the abuse and pressure?
A) unfreezing
B) change
C) resolution
D) freezing
Q4) The process of making inferences about behavior is known as __________.
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Chapter 17: A: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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Q1) The factor of physical proximity in interpersonal relationships implies all of the following EXCEPT that people are more likely to
A) become friends if they live close to each other.
B) date people they meet at work or in their neighborhoods.
C) be attracted to the people that they talk to on a regular basis, either in-person or in Internet chat rooms.
D) overlook or become enemies with people they see on a daily basis.
Q2) Terrence has always had difficulty trusting and depending on others.He tends to see others as either unreliable or too eager to commit to a relationship.Therefore,whenever the relationship gets too close,he pulls back and the relationship breaks up.According to the research on dating couples,Terrence would be described as having which adult attachment pattern?
A) ambivalent
B) avoidant
C) secure
D) dependent
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Chapter 17: B: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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Q1) Regarding prejudiced individuals,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Stereotypes held by the prejudiced tend to be unusually irrational.
B) When a prejudiced person meets a likeable member of the rejected group, this member is seen as "an exception to the rule," not as evidence against the stereotype.
C) If evidence against their stereotype builds up, the prejudiced person is likely to change his or her stereotyped belief.
D) Elements of prejudice can be unconscious and difficult to change.
Q2) The text suggests parents can minimize the negative impact of TV on children by all of the following EXCEPT
A) turning off programs that they feel are too violent and offering an alternative game.
B) watching TV with their child and pointing out distortions and fantasy.
C) allowing the child to learn responsibility by selecting shows he or she likes.
D) showing their disapproval of violent TV and computer game heroes.
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Chapter 17: C: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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108 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because their comparison level is lower,lonely persons,or those whose friendships have been marginal,might stay in a relationship that others with a higher comparison level might consider unacceptable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) While male bullies are more likely to engage in direct aggression,female bullies tend to specialize in indirect aggression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People who are not consciously prejudiced may continue to respond emotionally to members of other ethnic groups,which may reflect lingering stereotypes and prejudices learned in childhood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the North American culture,most male friendships are activity based and provide companionship without closeness.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: A: Applied Psychology
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Q1) Tests that rate an individual's potential to learn the tasks or skills of various occupations are called
A) aptitude tests.
B) achievement tests.
C) vocational interest tests.
D) tests of work efficiency.
Q2) A job analysis involves all of the following EXCEPT
A) interviewing expert workers or supervisors or giving them questionnaires.
B) observing work.
C) being the last step in personnel selection.
D) identifying critical incidents.
Q3) Giving employees greater freedom,responsibility,choice,and authority on the job is characteristic of A) job enrichment.
B) scientific management.
C) the vocational interest approach.
D) Theory X leadership style.
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Chapter 18: B: Applied Psychology
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Q1) Regarding territorial behavior,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Territorial behavior can involve temporary ownership of a space, such as a spot on the beach or a seat at the movies.
B) Sports teams show territorial behavior by playing better on their own home territory than on the other team's field.
C) Burglars are more likely to break into houses that have lots of obvious territorial markers.
D) Graffiti is an obvious form of territorial marking.
Q2) By using energy-efficient lights,Don has reduced the volume of greenhouse gases he adds to the atmosphere and by doing so he immediately sees a reduction in his A) conservation factor.
B) carbon footprint.
C) ecological debt.
D) BMI footprint.
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Chapter 18: C: Applied Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specialty concerned with making machines and work environments compatible with human sensory and motor capacities is called
A) cybernetics.
B) psychophysiology.
C) ergonomics.
D) humanistics.
Q2) Regarding usability testing,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Usability testing directly measures the ease with which people can learn to use a machine.
B) Health and safety are important targets of usability testing.
C) One form of usability testing is the situational judgments tests.
D) Usability testing is a process conducted by human factors psychologists.
Q3) Any dial,screen,light,or other device used to provide information about a machine's activity to a human user is referred to as a(n)
A) cybernetic device.
B) control.
C) ergonomic device.
D) display.
Q4) Discuss four problem areas regarding jury deliberations.
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Chapter 19: Appendix A: Behavioral Statistics
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Q1) The fewer days that students attend class,the lower their grades.This would be a A) zero correlation.
B) positive relationship.
C) variable relationship.
D) negative relationship.
Q2) If the mean on a test is 100 and the standard deviation is 15,a person with a z-score of +1.0 scored which of the following on the test?
A) 70
B) 85
C) 115
D) 130
Q3) The more time students spend studying,the higher their grades are.This would be a A) zero correlation.
B) positive relationship.
C) variable relationship.
D) negative relationship.
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Chapter 20: Appendix B: Behavioral Statistics
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Q1) Describe the function of the measures of variability; and name and define two of these measures.
Q2) Explain the difference between reading a textbook using experiential cognition and reflective cognition; and describe how using self-reference and critical thinking can help students to become more reflective when reading their textbooks.
Q3) When measure X gets larger,measure Y gets smaller in a(n)__________correlation.
Q4) Regarding procrastination,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Students who procrastinate tend to work only under pressure and skip classes.
B) Students who procrastinate give false reasons for late work.
C) By procrastinating, students can blame poor work on a late start rather than a lack of ability.
D) Students who procrastinate tend to feel less bored, frustrated, or guilty than students who do not procrastinate.
Q5) People who are active listeners skillfully gather ideas and avoid __________.
Q6) Students that engage in overlearning of test material tend to make lower grades than students who limit their study time.
A)True
B)False
Page 66
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