Survey of Psychology Solved Exam Questions - 14792 Verified Questions

Survey of Psychology Solved Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Survey of Psychology provides a broad overview of the major concepts, theories, and research findings in the field of psychology. This course explores topics such as biological foundations of behavior, sensation and perception, learning, memory, motivation, emotion, human development, personality, psychological disorders, and therapeutic approaches. Emphasis is placed on understanding how psychological principles can be applied to enhance well-being and solve real-world problems, while also introducing students to the scientific methods used in psychological research.

Recommended Textbook Psychology Modules for Active Learning 13th Edition by Dennis Coon

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction

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Q1) Regarding taking and using class notes,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)When taking notes,listen to everything but be selective and write down only key points and not every bit of information word-for-word.

B)Most students take reasonably good notes but unfortunately wait right before the exam to review them.

C)After each class session,one should write down several major ideas and definitions that are likely to become test questions,make up questions,and then answer them.

D)Effective note-taking has been shown to increase experiential processing of the course material.

Answer: D

Q2) When a student uses a large number of relatively short study sessions in order to prepare for an exam,this student is using _______ practice.

Answer: spaced

Q3) People who are active,reflective listeners skillfully gather ideas and avoid _______.

Answer: distractions

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3

Chapter 2: How to Study Psychology

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Q1) Regarding time management and goal-setting,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Putting in more effort early in a course can greatly reduce the "pain" and stress you will experience later.

B)If your professors don't give frequent assignments,set your own day­by­day goals.

C)By using time management,you will be more likely to feel guilty during your free or play times and convert these times to productive study sessions.

D)Students should not wait for their teachers to "make" their courses interesting,but should find ways to make their schoolwork interesting and enjoyable.

Answer: C

Q2) When taking a true-false test,answers that include superlatives,such as most,least,best,worst,largest,or smallest are often true.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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4

Chapter 3: Introducing Psychology: Psychology, Critical Thinking, and Science

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Q1) Remembering your social security number would be considered an overt behavior.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Critical thinking includes which of the following?

A)a strong reliance on commonsense reasoning

B)the sincere and convincing testimony of a recognized expert

C)the ability to admit that one can be wrong about one's ideas

D)being persuaded more by the amount of evidence presented

Answer: C

Q3) Professor Reed asked her introductory psychology students to give an example of a covert behavior.Which of the following would be an example of a covert behavior?

A)daydreaming about the coming weekend

B)sneezing into a handkerchief

C)gesturing to someone to come over to the group

D)telling the class to be quiet by saying "shhh" softly

Answer: A

Q4) The heart of critical thinking is a willingness to actively __________ on ideas

Answer: reflect

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Introducing Psychology: Psychology Then and Now

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Q1) Requiring a master's degree and one to two years of supervised experience,this mental health professional does not treat serious mental disorders but uses practical helping skills with clients who have problems in their marriage,family,or career.This mental health professional described is a A)psychiatrist.

B)psychoanalyst.

C)clinical advisor.

D)licensed counselor.

Q2) Simon lives in Florida and has a bipolar disorder that requires medication to control his extreme mood swings. Simon's medication will need to be prescribed by which mental health professional?

A)counseling psychologist

B)clinical psychologist

C)psychiatric social worker

D)psychiatrist

Q3) Basic research is best defined as research done to find solutions to immediate and specific problems.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Introducing Psychology: the Psychology Experiment

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Q1) You want to test people's cola preferences,so you conduct a taste test using two different brands of cola.However,you are worried about possible clues you may give people taking the test.So,you label the two colas and have your assistant,who does not know which cola is which,administer the test to the subjects.Thus,you have prevented yourself and your assistant from giving out any clues by using

A)random selection.

B)random assignment.

C)a single-blind experiment.

D)a double-blind experiment.

Q2) The dependent variable is often revealed by measures of performance,such as test scores.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following groups serves as a point of reference for a comparison of results in an experiment?

A)independent group

B)experimental group

C)control group

D)dependent group

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Chapter 6: Introducing Psychology: Non-Experimental

Research Methods

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Q1) A correlation coefficient of 1.36 would be A)impossible.

B)a sign that the two variables are positively related.

C)a sign that the two variables are negatively related.

D)a sign that the two variables are not related.

Q2) A local television station conducts what they refer to as "surveys," in which they ask viewers to call in their opinions to various topics.These "surveys" are not considered a scientific poll because the television station

A)does not allow subjects to e-mail their responses.

B)is using a biased sample.

C)limits the response to only 20 minutes.

D)does not separate the responses according to gender or race.

Q3) If a correlational relationship is perfect,the coefficient would A)be zero.

B)be a +1.00 or a -1.00.

C)always be a negative correlation.

D)always be a positive correlation.

Q4) Regarding the strength of the relationship,a correlation coefficient of -.92 would indicate a _______ negative relationship.

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Psychology in Action: Thinking Critically About the Media

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Q1) Psychic advisers promoted in TV commercials tend to make use of the human tendency to consider personal descriptions accurate if they are stated in general terms,which is called the

A)anthropomorphic error.

B)halo effect.

C)courtesy bias.

D)Barnum effect.

Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the advertising by psychic advisors?

A)No one has passed the preliminary tests set up by James Randi's Million Dollar Challenge to demonstrate psychic abilities under controlled conditions.

B)Usually psychic advisor ads are promoted with a few testimonials and many unsupported claims.

C)Unlike psychic advisors,stage mentalists do not use deception with their audiences or in their advertising.

D)Psychic advisers promoted in TV commercials make use of the Barnum effect.

Q3) If you see a course advertised that offers a "new personality in three sessions" or "six steps to love and fulfillment in marriage," you should beware of these _______.

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Chapter 8: Brain and Behavior: Neurons and the Nervous System

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Q1) A nerve cell carrying information from your eyes,ears,fingers,etc.toward the CNS is called a(n)

A)motor neuron.

B)effector cell.

C)connector neuron.

D)sensory neuron.

Q2) The branch of the autonomic nervous system that is called the "fight­or­flight" system because of its importance in responding to emotional events is the _______ branch.

Q3) Once information is received at the dendrites,it next flows into the A)soma. B)axon.

C)myelin sheath.

D)glial cell.

Q4) The channels that transport sodium and potassium within the axon are called _______ channels.

A)DNA and RNA

B)membrane

C)nucleic D)ion

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Chapter 9: Brain and Behavior: Brain Research

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Q1) The technique that uses a magnetic field to develop an image of the brain is called the

A)ESB.

B)ablation technique.

C)MRI scan.

D)EEG.

Q2) The destruction of brain tissue occurs with both deep lesioning and with surgical A)fMRI.

B)PET.

C)electroencephalography.

D)ablation.

Q3) In order to determine if Marta had a stroke,the doctors used a computer-enhanced X-ray image of her brain,a technique known as a fMRI. A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe Haier and his associates' experiment on brain efficiency,including a description of the brain technique they used and the findings and implications of their research.

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Chapter 10: Brain and Behavior: Hemispheres and Lobes of the Cortex

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Sample Questions

Q1) Damage to which of the following causes motor or expressive aphasia?

A)Wernicke's area

B)Broca's area

C)the corpus callosum

D)the somatosensory cortex

Q2) Persons with damage to the primary somatosensory area in the parietal lobes will A)exhibit changes in language comprehension.

B)show enhanced reasoning.

C)lose the feeling of touch in specific areas of the body.

D)have deficits in visual perception.

Q3) In a study of persons with similar IQs,women's gray and white matter was concentrated more in their ___________ lobes.

A)parietal

B)frontal

C)temporal

D)occipital

Q4) The hemisphere that is superior at math,judging time and rhythm,and coordinating the order of complex movements,such as those needed for speech,is the _______ hemisphere.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Brain and Behavior: Sub-Cortex and Endocrine System

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Q1) Damage to the thalamus will disrupt all of the senses EXCEPT for the sense of touch.

A)True

B)False

Q2) After a stroke,Jarmaine began having periodic trouble with his hearing,then he began experiencing visual problems,and sometimes even numbness in different parts of his body.Most recently,he is able to smell his wife's cooking and anticipate the flavor of his favorite foods,but alas,the food often does not have any taste.Which part of his brain is malfunctioning?

A)hypothalamus

B)reticular formation

C)hippocampus

D)thalamus

Q3) Fernado has developed a powerful craving for the taste of salt.The doctor finds that he has a deficiency in A)thyroxin.

B)epinephrine.

C)corticoids.

D)norepinephrine.

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Chapter 12: Psychology in Action: Handedness

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Q1) Throughout history,a notable number of artists have been lefties.This advantage of using the left hand for drawing or painting occurs because the right hemisphere is superior in

A)focusing on details.

B)imagery and visual abilities.

C)sequential processing.

D)all of these skills.

Q2) The only sure way to check brain dominance is to perform a medical test that involves

A)deep lesioning within each hemisphere.

B)assessing one cerebral hemisphere at a time.

C)spatial ablation.

D)karotyping and DNA analysis for lateralization.

Q3) If you gesture more with your left hand,you probably process language in your _______ hemisphere.

Q4) Left­handed people,or "lefties," have often been characterized as A)clumsy and unlucky.

B)skillful and just.

C)caring and sincere.

D)emotionally stable and friendly.

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Human Development: Heredity and Environment

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Q1) Regarding the capabilities of the neonate,which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

A)Neonates can lift their heads.

B)Neonates can turn over.

C)Neonates are born with some basic survival skills.

D)Neonates are characterized by all of these skills.

Q2) Regarding the effects of deprivation and enrichment,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Impoverished children tend to be sick more often,their mental development lags,and they do poorly at school.

B)The stresses of poverty can be hard on parents,leading to marriage problems,less positive parenting,and poorer parent-child relationships.

C)Few adults who grew up in poverty have remained trapped in continued poverty.

D)Many studies have shown that enriched environments improve the abilities or enhance the development of young children.

Q3) At any stage of life,heredity,environment,and the person's individual behavior are the three factors that determine one's __________ level.

Q4) Substances capable of causing birth defects are known as _______.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Human Development: Emotional and Social Development in Childhood

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Q1) During elementary school,Melanie "made fun" of other children if they did not measure up to her idea of physical beauty.She bullied other children to get her way.This sense of entitlement and her addiction to being the "center of attention" have continued into adulthood.Which type of parenting most likely led to Melanie's behavior?

A)overly permissive

B)power assertive

C)authoritative

D)authoritarian

Q2) Which parental style gives little guidance and does not enforce rules or hold children accountable for their actions?

A)authoritative

B)authoritarian

C)overly permissive

D)self-centered

Q3) In looking for a quality day care,you should AVOID a daycare that A)offers a great deal of verbal and cognitive stimulation.

B)has trained caregivers and minimal staff turnover.

C)has the words zoo,menagerie,or stockade in its name.

D)has a total size of 12 to 15 children.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Human Development: Language and Cognitive Development in Childhood

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Q1) As children attempt to solve problems or discover principles,Vygotsky believed that adults can help children learn how to think as well as learn important cultural values when they use

A)scaffolding.

B)proactive nurturance.

C)imprinting stimuli.

D)parentese.

Q2) Like Piaget,Vygotsky believed that children

A)learn through observation and reinforcement.

B)actively seek to discover new principles.

C)come into the world like "blank slates" to be written upon.

D)must be grown like "plants in a hot house" to full bloom.

Q3) Vygotsky realized that some tasks are just beyond a child's reach.However,children receiving sensitive guidance from skilled partners could make rapid progress.Interactions like this are most helpful when they take place within a child's

A)zone of proximal development.

B)vicarious learning sphere.

C)cognitive maturation cycle.

D)intrinsic motivational zone.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Human Development: Adolescence and

Adulthood

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of ageism?

A)being considered unqualified for a job

B)being considered "too old" for a job

C)being considered "too young" for a job

D)aversion,hatred,or rejection of the elderly

Q2) If a person fails to develop a sense of integrity and self-respect in later adulthood,feelings of which of the following tend to result?

A)despair

B)isolation

C)mistrust

D)stagnation

Q3) Madge and Randle have worked through the stresses of child-rearing.Now their youngest child is leaving home and moving to her new job in another state.Madge and Randle are

A)entering the stage known as emerging adulthood.

B)considered mid-life twixters.

C)experiencing ageism.

D)considered empty nesters.

Q4) Discrimination or prejudice on the basis of age is called _____.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Psychology in Action: Well-Being and Happiness

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Q1) To know if someone is happy,it is helpful to ask which of the following questions?

A)"How old is the person and how is this person's health?"

B)"What are the significant positive and negative events that have occurred in this person's life in the last five years?"

C)"Does the person have a close relationship with their parents and how many friends does he or she have?"

D)"What is this person trying to do in life and how well is she or he succeeding at it?"

Q2) If you agree with the statements that "the conditions of your life are excellent" and that "so far you have gotten the important things you want in life," you

A)are high in life satisfaction.

B)have achieved self-actualization.

C)tend to be overly optimistic and somewhat naive.

D)have a Type C personality.

Q3) Define subjective well-being;describe a person who is high in life satisfaction,according to the "Satisfaction with Life Scale";and explain the relationship of subjective well-being to one's emotions,personality,and the pursuit of one's goals.

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Sensation and Perception: Sensory Processes

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Q1) As you sit reading this page,receptors for touch and pressure in the seat of your pants are sending nerve impulses to your brain.Although these sensations have been present all along,you were probably not aware of them until just now.This "seat­of­the­pants phenomenon" is an example of

A)selective attention.

B)selective accommodation.

C)sensory deceleration.

D)sensory gating.

Q2) If you were asked to look at an advertisement of various shops on a city street,and you saw an octopus sitting on a bench near the curb in front of one of the shops,you would most likely

A)show inattentional blindness to the octopus.

B)look longer at the octopus because it was an unexpected object.

C)look a shorter time at the octopus because it was out-of-place in the advertisement.

D)look the same length of time to each object in the advertisement,regardless of whether it was an expected or unexpected object.

Q3) The basic elements of a stimulus,such as lines,shapes,edges,or colors,are referred to as _____ features.

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Chapter 19: Sensation and Perception: Vision

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Sample Questions

Q1) The scientific term for farsightedness is

A)hyperopia.

B)myopia.

C)retinitis.

D)astigmatism.

Q2) Sam is being administered a test known as the Landolt rings.Which aspect of Sam's vision is being assessed?

A)night vision

B)visual acuity

C)color vision

D)depth perception

Q3) You are driving in the dark when suddenly a bright light from an ongoing car temporarily blinds you.To restore light sensitivity and allow you to see to drive,the visual pigments in your rods must A)recombine.

B)break down chemically.

C)bleach.

D)dissipate.

Q4) The psychological dimension corresponding to the amplitude of light waves is called _____.

21

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Chapter 20: Sensation and Perception: The Other Senses

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Q1) The theory that explains motion sickness as a mismatch in information received by the eyes and the body is called the __________theory.

A)sensory adaptation

B)lock-and-key

C)sensory conflict

D)perceptual overload

Q2) Sound vibrations make waves in the fluid inside the cochlea.These waves in the fluid are detected in the cochlea by A)ossicles.

B)hair cells.

C)pinnas.

D)umami cells.

Q3) Short periods of exposure to 120 decibels

A)usually results in a permanent hearing loss.

B)may cause a temporary hearing loss.

C)may cause a conductive hearing loss.

D)will not result in a hearing loss since this is the level of normal conversation.

Q4) The stapes is attached to a membrane on the cochlea called the _______.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Sensation and Perception: Perceptual

Processes

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Q1) When you are driving in a car,road signs on the edge of the road seem to move past you faster than the houses and buildings in the distance.This is called

A)aerial perspective.

B)linear perspective.

C)relative size.

D)relative motion.

Q2) The depth cue of accommodation would be more important to a watchmaker or a person trying to thread a needle than it would be to a basketball player or someone driving an automobile.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Obtaining additional information as a check on the accuracy of one's perceptions is called

A)perceptual expectancy.

B)perceptual set.

C)reality testing.

D)perceptual verification.

Q4) An initial guess regarding how to organize and perceive a stimulus pattern is known as a(n) _______.

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Chapter 22: Sensation and Perception: Perception and Objectivity

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Q1) To become a better "eyewitness" to life,you should do all of the following EXCEPT

A)seek out-of-the-ordinary experiences.

B)increase your perceptual sets.

C)engage in reality testing.

D)pay attention to other people and your surroundings.

Q2) Regarding culture and perception,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)The society we live in can influence our most basic perceptual habits.

B)The differences in perceptual style influence the artistic and esthetic preferences expressed in Eastern and Western art.

C)East Asians tend to explain a person's actions in terms of the social context,while European Americans perceive actions in terms of internal factors.

D)Western cultures have a broader focus of attention,while Eastern cultures have a relatively narrow focus of attention.

Q3) Changes in the brain that alter how we process sensory information so that we can focus on just one part of a group of stimuli rather than processing all of the stimuli is called _______.

Q4) Describe five ways that one's perceptual accuracy can be enhanced.

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Chapter 23: Psychology in Action: Extrasensory Perception

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Q1) Psychokinesis refers to the purported

A)ability to perceive or accurately predict future events.

B)extrasensory perception of another person's thoughts.

C)capacity to mentally influence inanimate objects.

D)ability to guess the symbols on cards as they are turned up from a shuffled deck in another room.

Q2) A statistically unusual outcome that could occur by chance,such as getting five heads in a row when flipping a coin,is referred to as

A)the Barnum effect.

B)the "decline effect."

C)a run of luck.

D)a "cold reading."

Q3) The purported ability to exert influence over inanimate objects by willpower is known as

A)telepathy.

B)precognition.

C)clairvoyance.

D)psychokinesis.

Q4) The purported ability to predict future events is called _______.

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Chapter 24: Consciousness: States of Consciousness

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Q1) Regarding altered states of consciousness,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Cultural conditioning affects what altered states we seek and attain.

B)The meanings given to altered states have included signs of madness,spirit possession,and life-enhancing breakthroughs.

C)Very few cultures or religions recognize and accept alterations of consciousness.

D)Some people seek various altered states of pleasure,while others see altered states of consciousness as pathways to enlightenment.

Q2) An important feature of many altered states of consciousness (ASCs)is

A)a clarity of waking consciousness.

B)heightened self-awareness.

C)cataplexy.

D)amnesia for the period of time that one is in this state.

Q3) The two major forms of meditation are

A)ascetic and prothetic.

B)endogeneous and exogeneous.

C)concentrative and mindfulness.

D)behavioral and humanistic.

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26

Chapter 25: Consciousness: Sleep and Dreams

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Q1) According to the dual process theory of sleep,which of the following "calms" the brain during the earlier part of a night's sleep?

A)NREM sleep

B)REM sleep

C)beta waves

D)alpha waves

Q2) Margo dreams of stealing her friend's wedding ring and placing it on her hand.According to Freud's theory, Margo's dream probably represents

A)her desire to own "pretty" and expensive things.

B)her plan to steal her friend's jewelry in the future.

C)her sexual attraction to her friend's husband.

D)a carryover from ordinary waking events.

Q3) Regarding sleepwalkers,which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

A)Sleepwalking occurs most often in association with narcolepsy.

B)Sleepwalking is the outward expression of dream content.

C)Sleepwalking occurs during NREM stages 3 and 4 sleep.

D)All of these statements are true.

Q4) The pattern of EEG waves present when one is awake and alert is characterized by _______ waves.

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Chapter 26: Consciousness: Psychoactive Drugs

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Q1) Since just holding a cigarette,dangling it between the lips,or even seeing a favorite smoking chair can give a smoker pleasure,which technique can be very useful for breaking the habit of smoking?

A)systematic desensitization

B)behavioral self-management

C)transference

D)EMDR

Q2) Terrence has three term papers due and four major tests in the next three weeks.His friends suggest that he take a "study drug" to help him stay awake and focus better.The "study drug" that his friends have suggested that he Take illegally is most likely

A)GHB.

B)Ritalin.

C)Xanax.

D)Rohypnol.

Q3) Binge drinking is defined as downing three drinks in a short period of time for men and two drinks for women.

A)True

B)False

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Page 28

Chapter 27: Psychology in Action: Exploring and Using Dreams

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Q1) According to Freud,the dream process in which important emotions are redirected toward safe or seemingly unimportant images is

A)secondary elaboration.

B)condensation.

C)displacement.

D)symbolization.

Q2) In order to unlock the meaning of a dream,Ernest Hartmann believes that you should pay close attention to the elements of a dream that involve a replay of the day's events and ignore the unusual dream elements.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Jana has an argument with her husband and then dreams that she accidentally backs into his motorcycle,damaging it slightly.Of Freud's four mental filters that disguise dreams,this would be an example of _______.

Q4) In order for you to be able to periodically review your past dreams,it is recommended that you record your dreams in chronological order within a permanent dream .

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Q5) Describe Sigmund Freud's four dream processes and give an example of each.

Chapter 28: Conditioning and Learning: Types of Learning

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Q1) If you have ever learned your way through the various levels found in many video games,you have developed a cognitive map of the video game.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A salesman records his sales presentation and then plays it back so he can critique this presentation for voice level,speed of speech,and understandability.This salesman is making use of

A)knowledge of results (KR).

B)computer-assisted instruction (CAI).

C)positive punishment.

D)two-factor learning.

Q3) Which of the following teaches students in a format that presents information in small amounts,gives immediate practice,and provides continuous feedback to learners?

A)programmed instruction

B)latent learning

C)variable interval scheduling

D)vicarious learning

Q4) Classical and operant conditioning are the two types of _______ learning.

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Chapter 29: Conditioning and Learning: Classical Conditioning

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Q1) By pairing their products with pleasant images and music on television,advertisers often try to create positive _______ vicariously.

A)CAIs

B)CERs

C)desensitizations

D)stimulus discriminations

Q2) When parents belittle,scream at,or physically abuse their children,the parents,themselves,become which of the following for fear and withdrawal?

A)conditioned stimuli

B)conditioned responses

C)unconditioned stimuli

D)unconditioned responses

Q3) Little Armondo is afraid of dogs.He also shows a fear of other furry animals,such as cats and rabbits.Armondo is exhibiting simulus _______.

Q4) Classical conditioning in which a conditioned stimulus is used as if it were an unconditioned stimulus is called _______ conditioning.

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Chapter 30: Conditioning and Learning: Operant

Conditioning

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Q1) The best way to differentiate operant conditioning from classical conditioning is to decide if the

A)response is voluntary or involuntary.

B)stimulus is conditioned or unconditioned.

C)consequence comes before or after the response.

D)response is pleasant or unpleasant.

Q2) Regarding one's behavior,discriminative stimuli would be considered A)antecedents.

B)cognitive maps.

C)negative reinforcers.

D)punishers.

Q3) When a stimulus consistently precedes rewarded responses,it tends to elicit a response.When a stimulus consistently precedes non-reward,it tends to inhibit responding.This states the principle of A)partial reinforcement.

B)variable ratio responding.

C)stimulus control.

D)generalization.

Q4) Define discriminative stimuli,and provide two real-life examples of its use.

32

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Chapter 31: Conditioning and Learning: Reinforcement and Punishment

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Q1) A team referee who fines a coach for unsportsmanlike conduct is using

A)aversive conditioning.

B)modeling.

C)negative reinforcement.

D)punishment.

Q2) When the reinforcer does not follow every response but occurs after a number of responses have been made or after a passage of time,you are using which reinforcement schedule?

A)continuous

B)secondary

C)partial

D)semi-continual

Q3) Which schedule of reinforcement may have long periods of nonreward that make it harder to discriminate between periods of reinforcement and extinction?

A)secondary

B)partial

C)continuous

D)conditional

Q4) Describe three problems that occur as punishment increases in severity.

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Chapter 32: Psychology in Action: Behavioral

Self-Management

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Q1) When April is stressed and wants to relax,she has always reached for a glass of wine.However,she wants to break this use of alcohol as a means of relaxation,so she learns stress management techniques and now uses them when she feels stressed.April is using which strategy for breaking a bad habit?

A)breaking up response chains

B)cues and antecedents

C)alternate responses

D)extinction

Q2) The first step in using "behavioral self­management" is to A)choose reinforcers.

B)establish goals.

C)choose a target behavior.

D)record two baselines.

Q3) Mary wants to increase the amount of time that she studies each night for school.Which of the following should NOT be a part of her behavioral self-management plan?

A)a recorded baseline

B)weekly goals and an ultimate goal

C)daily reward and weekly reward for reaching goals

Page 34

D)daily punisher and weekly punisher for not meeting goals

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Chapter 33: Memory: Memory Systems

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Q1) You have found that it is easier for you to remember cell phone numbers and code them into your cell phone if you divide the number into two­and three­digit numbers,such as "48" or "865" rather than single digits that you often reverse.Thus,you have aided your short-term memory through

A)maintenance rehearsal.

B)the key number system.

C)the method of loci.

D)chunking.

Q2) The memory of what you had for breakfast this morning would be considered a(n) _______ memory.

A)sensory

B)procedural

C)semantic

D)episodic

Q3) Which of the following would be considered an episodic memory?

A)remembering the multiplication tables

B)knowing who is the current president of the U.S.

C)remembering the accident you saw three weeks ago

D)knowing who the "Father of Psychology" is

Q4) How does "memory jamming" work in advertising?

Page 35

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Chapter 34: Memory: Forgetting

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Q1) Electrically stimulating the hippocampus affects long-term potentiation by

A)increasing it.

B)decreasing it.

C)having little or no effect on young animals.

D)having little or no effect on older animals.

Q2) Which of the following can elicit fantasies that are mistaken for real memories?

A)hypnosis

B)guided visualization

C)age repression

D)all of these

Q3) Which of the following types of forgetting only seems to explain forgetting for sensory memory and short-term memory?

A)memory decay

B)disuse

C)repression

D)suppression

Q4) When a person is sad and depressed,he or she has a tendency to remember more sad memories,which illustrates _______ learning.

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Chapter 35: Memory: Exceptional Memory and Improving Memory

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Q1) As Morgan studies her psychology notes,she tries to use the new terms in several sentences and to form images that include the new information.Morgan is trying to knit which of the following into her memory code to help her remember this information when she needs it?

A)memory icons

B)engrams

C)retrieval cues

D)cuing operants

Q2) Eidetic images are usually viewed by people with their eyes closed.

A)True

B)False

Q3) According to the authors of your textbook,your best insurance against going blank on a test due to nervousness is

A)massed practice.

B)selection and organization.

C)overlearning.

D)maintenance rehearsal.

Q4) Discuss the findings of Psychologists John Wilding and Elizabeth Valentine's research on exceptional memorizers.

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Chapter 36: Psychology in Action: Mnemonics

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Q1) Regarding the use of mnemonics to remember the information in one's college studies,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Words are generally easier to remember than visual pictures and images.

B)Acrostics are more effective if you make up your own than using ones suggested by others.

C)Bizarre images make stored information more distinctive and easier to retrieve,but mainly help to improve immediate memory.

D)College students who used exaggerated mental associations to remember the names of unfamiliar terms outperformed students who just used rote memory.

Q2) Many times,the first letters or syllables of words or ideas can be formed into another word that will serve as a reminder of order.This mnemonic technique is referred to as A)using a system.

B)the serial position effect.

C)rote learning.

D)progressive-part learning.

Q3) Discuss the four basic principles of mnemonics,and explain how each is able to improve your memory.

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Chapter 37: Cognition and Intelligence: Imagery, Concepts, and Language

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Q1) Which of the following represents a category of related objects or events and helps us identify important features of the world?

A)algorithm

B)heuristic

C)kinesthetic image

D)concept

Q2) To be a "motorcycle," a vehicle must have two wheels,handlebars,and a motor,which illustrates that this criteria for a motorcycle is a disjunctive concept.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A speaker of Kuuk Thaayorre,the language of the Cape York Australian aboriginals,would say "Melbourne is south of Cape York" as well as saying "The dessert spoon is west of the coffee cup." Thus,for long and short distances speakers of Kuuk Thaayorre use which type of directional reference?

A)absolute

B)relative

C)conjunctive

D)disjunctive

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Chapter 38: Cognition and Intelligence: Problem Solving

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Q1) If you are asked to multiply a four-digit number and a three-digit number and you follow the steps you were taught in the fifth grade,then you are utilizing a heuristic.

A)True

B)False

Q2) To develop expertise in a field requires us to develop a deeper general understanding of the field and to learn available _______ strategies.

A)heuristic solution

B)algorithmic solution

C)mnemonic solution

D)random search

Q3) Which of the following represents an insightful problem solution?

A)A child uses his or her shoe lace to tie two sticks together to knock an apple from a tree.

B)A poker player discards his lowest card and draws an ace.

C)A geometry student applies a formula to figure the area of a triangle.

D)A physician decides to perform surgery even though the odds are against its success.

Q4) Describe and give an example of each of the four barriers to problem-solving.

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Chapter 39: Cognition and Intelligence: Creative Thinking and Intuition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Drawing conclusions on the basis of formal principles of reasoning is termed _______ thought.

A)inductive

B)deductive

C)illogical

D)logical

Q2) A college student who starts using crystal meth but states that he will be able to stop at any time is probably making the intuitive error in judgment specifically called

A)the framing effect.

B)the representativeness heuristic.

C)ignoring the base rate.

D)convergent thinking.

Q3) In solving a complex math problem,Sarah proceeds from the given information in the problem to new conclusions on the basis of explicit mathematical rules she has learned in class.Sarah is using _______ thought.

A)divergent

B)logical

C)creative

D)illogical

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Chapter 40: Cognition and Intelligence: Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) What percent of the population scores above 140 on IQ tests?

A)two percent

B)six percent

C)less than one-half of one percent

D)four percent

Q2) Which of the following is a group test that measures different mental aptitudes,was designed to predict one's chances of success in college,and can also be used to estimate general intelligence?

A)SAT Reasoning Test (SAT)

B)Stanford-Binet (SB5)

C)WAIS-IV

D)Dove Counterbalance Intelligence Test

Q3) Jorge's chronological age is nine,and his mental age is 11.His IQ is A)102.

B)82.

C)132.

D)122.

Q4) If one psychologist administers a test simultaneously to several people with minimal supervision,the test must be a(n)__________ test.

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Chapter 41: Psychology in Action: Enhancing Creativity

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Q1) If you wanted to enhance creativity,you should

A)isolate yourself and focus intently and persistently on the problem.

B)make a very quick decision since intuitive thinking is very creative.

C)dig deeper into a problem with logic.

D)look for analogies to represent the problem in a different way.

Q2) Randomly looking up words in a dictionary is a way to seek varied input and enhance creativity,according to creativity researcher __________.

Q3) Imagining how another person would view the problem and asking "silly" or playful questions are ways to

A)restate the problem in different and novel ways.

B)create mental sets that must be avoided.

C)narrowly define a problem so it can be clearly understood.

D)prevent incubation of the problem.

Q4) People who think in conventional ways cannot live intelligent,successful,and fulfilling lives.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Briefly describe five of the seven suggestions for promoting divergent thinking and enhancing creative problem solving.

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Chapter 42: Motivation and Emotion: Overview of Motives and Emotions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which element of emotion is the private,subjective experience of having an emotion?

A)emotional expressions

B)emotional feelings

C)physiological changes

D)adaptive behaviors

Q2) Our motives and emotions are influenced by which of the following?

A)external cues

B)learning

C)cultural values

D)all of these

Q3) The "target" of one's motivated behavior is known as a(n)

A)drive.

B)goal.

C)incentive.

D)transductive level.

Q4) Describe and provide an example of each of the three types of motives,and explain the importance of incentives.

Q5) Describe the three elements of emotion,and explain how emotions are linked to to many basic adaptive behaviors.

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Chapter 43: Motivation and Emotion: Motivation in Detail

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Q1) Regarding hunger,thirst is

A)considered to be a biological motive.

B)affected by learning and cultural values.

C)regulated by the part of the brain known as the hypothalamus.

D)characterized by all of these statements.

Q2) According to the Yerkes-Dodson law,optimum performance occurs at higher levels of arousal for simple tasks and lower levels of arousal for complex tasks.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A person with a high need for achievement (nAch)tends to

A)has a strong desire to have control over others.

B)give up on difficult tasks when they are not succeeding.

C)have self-confidence and excel in his or her occupation.

D)be characterized by all of these.

Q4) One important technique of behavioral dieting is to

A)ignore caloric content and focus on fat content.

B)eat many more snacks per day in addition to eating regular meals.

C)manipulate your body fat ratio using biofeedback techniques.

D)set a threshold for the regaining of weight to around three pounds.

Q5) Explain the causes of anorexia and bulimia and the treatments used.

Page 45

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Chapter 44: Motivation and Emotion: Emotion in Detail

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Q1) When used to detect lying,the functional MRI scan measures

A)galvanic skin response.

B)general emotional arousal.

C)the activation of extra brain areas.

D)hemispheric specialization.

Q2) Individuals who have alexithymia are unable to

A)express their emotions.

B)name visual stimuli.

C)regulate their body temperature due to a lack of homeostasis.

D)process auditory stimuli.

Q3) Which theory of emotion predicts that you are most likely to "love" someone who gets you stirred up emotionally, even when fear,anger,frustration,or rejection is part of the formula?

A)Cannon-Bard

B)attribution

C)James-Lange

D)common sense

Q4) People who suffer from phobias and disabling anxiety often feel afraid without knowing why.This appears to be due to the actions of the part of the brain known as the

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Chapter 45: Psychology in Action: Emotional Intelligence

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Q1) Erin is good at "reading" facial expressions,tone of voice,and other signs of emotion in others and to sense what others are feeling.In terms of emotional intelligence,Erin is exhibiting _______.

Q2) People with which of the following abilities tend to be more flexible,adaptable,and agreeable,and excel at life because they do not stifle their emotions nor overindulge them?

A)emotional intelligence

B)dogmatic pragmatism

C)kinesic sensitivity

D)creative intuition

Q3) Emotions that are associated with actions that helped our ancestors save their lives are our _______ emotions.

A)unconscious

B)negative

C)positive

D)suppressed

Q4) In making choices,sensible but emotionally empty decisions tend to be made if one uses extremely _______ approaches.

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Chapter 46: Human Sexuality: Sexual Development and Orientation

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Q1) Female development may even occur in males before birth when testosterone is present if the male child has an inherited condition that makes him unresponsive to testosterone.This inherited condition is known as A)congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

B)gender biasing.

C)biological biasing.

D)androgen insensitivity.

Q2) In explaining the "facts of life" to her daughter,a mother explains that her daughter will soon begin to menstruate, an life event known as A)ovulation.

B)menarche.

C)menopause.

D)puberty.

Q3) A difference between heterosexuals and homosexuals has been found in their A)brain structure.

B)I.Q.

C)adult hormone levels. D)sex drive.

Q4) Your predominance of androgens or estrogens determines your _______ sex.

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Chapter 47: Human Sexuality: Gender Development,

Androgyny, and Gender Variance

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Q1) Jake believes that women should be nurses or teachers,but not doctors,lawyers,fighter pilots,or mechanics.Jake is exhibiting oversimplified beliefs about the characterstics of men and women,which are referred to as __________.

Q2) Carol and Hank are fraternal twins.Although their parents try not to treat the twins differently,both parents allow Hank to play loudly and to climb on the furniture.Hank's dad tends to "rough­house" with Hank more than Carol,while he talks to and reads books more with Carol.Carol and Hank are undergoing

A)gender role socialization.

B)sexual orientation training.

C)sexual scripting.

D)androgynous socialization.

Q3) Children become aware of gender role differences by the time they are what age?

A)10 months

B)15 months

C)30 months

D)four years

Q4) Discuss the biological biasing effect and how it is used to explain different thinking abilities in women and men,and discuss the evidence that contradicts this theory.

Page 49

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Chapter 48: Human Sexuality: Sexual Behavior, Response, and Attitudes

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Q1) The most significant recent changes in sexual behavior appear to involve A)increased rates of extramarital sex.

B)a major increase in bisexuality.

C)a decline in sexual intercourse during early adolescence.

D)tendency toward earlier marriages than in the 1970s.

Q2) Although research shows that their ability to increase sexual desire and pleasure results mainly from a placebo effect,substances,such as oysters,chocolate,and powdered rhinoceros horn,were once believed by various cultures to be A)aphrodisiacs.

B)sexual scripts.

C)teratogens.

D)endorphins.

Q3) For at least the first six months after becoming infected,a person can test negative while carrying the HIV virus.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In the human sexual response cycle,the phase that occurs immediately before the orgasm phase is called the __________ phrase.

Q5) Surgical removal of the testicles or ovaries is known as _______.

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Chapter 49: Psychology in Action: Sexual Problems

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Q1) Regarding female sexual arousal disorder,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Occasional arousal problems in women may reflect a lack of sufficient sexual stimulation before attempting lovemaking.

B)Some women trace their arousal difficulties to a harsh religious background in which sex was considered evil.

C)Some women trace their arousal difficulties to a need to maintain control over emotions or to deep-seated conflicts over being female.

D)A woman who has never experienced sexual arousal would have a secondary arousal disorder.

Q2) One of the typical effects of the excessive consumption of alcohol on male sexuality is

A)loss of all sexual desire.

B)increased substitution of fantasy for actual sex.

C)occasional erectile problems.

D)intense sexual desires.

Q3) Describe eight behaviors that discourage intimacy between partners in a relationship.

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Chapter 50: Personality: Overview of Personality

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Q1) When you tell others that your best friend is outgoing,funny,honest,dependable,and just an "all­around good guy," you are referring to your friend's

A)character.

B)temperament.

C)superego.

D)ideal self.

Q2) For humanistic theorists,the ego ideal forms the structure of the personality,while in the behaviorist theories,self- concept forms the structure of the personality.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is the most objective measure?

A)structured interview

B)projective test

C)personality questionnaire

D)behavioral assessment

Q4) Differentiate between the terms self-concept and self-esteem,and describe how they are related,and then explain the differences in the basis of self-esteem in Eastern and Western cultures.

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Chapter 51: Personality: Trait Theories

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Q1) Raymond Cattell called the core of a person's personality,that is,the person's underlying personality characteristics, _______ traits,or factors.

A)surface

B)source

C)common

D)cardinal

Q2) According to Gordon Allport,the personality traits that define a particular person's unique qualities are termed __________ traits.

A)common

B)surface

C)source

D)individual

Q3) Trait theorists believe that we have a hereditary readiness to behave in particular ways since they think of traits as A)miniature cardinal types.

B)biological predispositions.

C)character profiles.

D)possible selves.

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Chapter 52: Personality: Psychoanalytic and Humanistic

Theories

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Q1) When a person is "prized" as worthwhile for just being him or herself,without any conditions or strings attached, that person has received,according to Rogers,

A)conditions of worth.

B)unconditional positive regard.

C)overindulgence.

D)self-actualization.

Q2) What was Freud's term for the death instinct?

A)Thanatos

B)psyche

C)ego

D)Eros

Q3) Students with which of the Big Five traits tends to embrace the carefree college lifestyle?

A)conscientiousness and openness to experience

B)extraversion and agreeableness

C)disagreeableness and emotional instability

D)conventional and present-oriented

Q4) According to Freud,the period of full psychosexual development,marked by the attainment of mature adult sexuality is called the _______ stage.

54

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Chapter 53: Personality: Behavioral and Social Learning

Theories

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Q1) Self-reinforcement is equivalent to the Freudian concept of

A)the id.

B)the ego.

C)the superego.

D)fixation.

Q2) According to Dollard and Miller,habits are

A)very stable types of secondary traits.

B)biological predispositions.

C)deeply ingrained,learned patterns of behavior.

D)unconscious,instinctual drives.

Q3) Higher rates of self-reinforcement are associated with more depression and a lessening of life satisfaction.

A)True

B)False

Q4) According to researchers,most sudden murderers tend to be

A)sexually disturbed.

B)overcontrolled (restrained).

C)prone to anger and aggression.

D)emotionally expressive.

Q5) The study of inherited behavioral traits and tendencies is called _______.

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Chapter 54: Psychology in Action: Understanding Shyness

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Q1) Which one of the following represents a basic element of shyness?

A)incongruence

B)generalized anxiety

C)private self-consciousness

D)evaluation fears

Q2) Regarding shyness,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Shy people have lower self-esteem than non-shy people.

B)Shy people tend to blame circumstances for their social failures.

C)People's shyness is often maintained by several unrealistic or self-defeating beliefs.

D)Shy people expect to be rejected in social encounters.

Q3) Persons who fail to make eye contact,retreat when spoken to,display little animation in conversation,lack confidence,and feel uncomfortable around people who are not close friends are displaying

A)hysteria.

B)neurosis.

C)shyness.

D)mania.

Q4) Uneasiness and strain when socializing is known as social _______.

Q5) A proficiency in interacting with others refers to one's _______.

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Chapter 55: Health, Stress, and Coping: Health Psychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A program that was designed to teach youths how to resist pressures to smoke and has been applied to other drugs and health risks is _______ training.

Q2) A healthy lifestyle may include a fair amount of "good stress," which is referred to as A)microstressors.

B)LCUs.

C)eustress.

D)a hardy stress reaction.

Q3) Symptoms such as shortness of breath,headache,sore muscles,upset stomach,and a lack of energy are characteristic of which stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

A)alarm reaction

B)stage of resistance

C)stage of exhaustion

D)stage of avoidance

Q4) The Canadian stress researcher who described the general adaptation syndrome (G.A.S. )was _______.

Q5) Behaviors that increase the chances of disease,injury,or premature death are called _______ factors.

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Chapter 56: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress, Frustration, and

Conflict

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279 Verified Questions

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Q1) Sydney has wanted to be a teacher all of her life.For the first five years of teaching,she spent every summer,holiday,and weekend trying to come up with new activities for her students.However,she now feels that all of her efforts were in vain and that students do not want to learn and do not appreciate anything she tries to do to help them learn.Sydney feels "used up," apathetic,and detached from her students.Sydney is experiencing

A)anxiety.

B)burnout

C)conflict.

D)pressure.

Q2) In a study,the researchers found that nurses were less likely to get sick,both physically or mentally,if they

A)were given high rates of pay for working under unpredictable conditions.

B)had a high sense of control over the pacing and work environments.

C)were given frequent rest periods at work.

D)had three days on the job and two days off.

Q3) Explain the difference in primary and secondary appraisal of stressors and give an example of each.

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Chapter 57: Health, Stress, and Coping: Defenses, Helplessness, and Depression

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Q1) In constructing and using a daily schedule to alleviate depression,a person should

A)fill up every hour during the day and should schedule the easier tasks first.

B)not fill up every hour of the day and should schedule the harder tasks first.

C)schedule a two-hour afternoon nap.

D)schedule several high protein snack times and one hour of meditation.

Q2) In reaction formation,individuals

A)openly express unacceptable impulses.

B)use daydreams or substitute activities to discharge their unconscious conflicts and motives.

C)engage in exaggerated behaviors that are the opposite of their true feelings.

D)justify their behavior by giving rational reasons for it.

Q3) Emergency room doctors must focus on their procedures rather than be overcome with emotion in viewing their patients in excruciating pain.By separating the emotion from an anxiety-provoking situation so they can save lives,the doctors are using the defense mechanism known as

A)compensation.

B)repression.

C)intellectualization.

D)rationalization.

Page 59

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Chapter 58: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress and Health

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Q1) According to Barbara Fredrickson,positive emotions tend to A)narrow our mental focus on what is important.

B)make it more likely that you will find creative solutions to your problems.

C)increase the bodily arousal so that you can more effectively deal with the stress.

D)do all of these.

Q2) Many lesser health complaints can also be psychosomatic.They include which of the following?

A)fatigue

B)premenstrual problems

C)sexual dysfunctions

D)all of these

Q3) Which system in the body is dramatically affected by stress and upsetting emotions and can increase one's susceptibility to disease?

A)psychomotor

B)respiratory

C)immune

D)cardiovascular

Q4) Explain the benefits of positive emotions and the advantages of being an optimist in life.

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Chapter 59: Psychology in Action: Stress Management

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Q1) The tension-release method is another name for A)progressive relaxation.

B)guided imagery.

C)stress inoculation.

D)daily exercise sessions of ten minutes each at least three times a day.

Q2) Learning to fight fear and anxiety with an internal monologue of positive coping statements is called

A)stress inoculation.

B)progressive relaxation.

C)guided imagery.

D)K.I.S.S.

Q3) The application of cognitive and behavioral strategies to reduce stress and improve coping skills is called

Q4) K.I.S.or K.I.S.S.refers to the stress reduction technique

A)for organizing and setting priorities.

B)known as stress inoculation.

C)that means "Keeping Internal Stress Silent."

D)that refers to the importance of recognizing and accepting your limits.

Q5) Stress triggers bodily effects,upsetting thoughts,and ineffective _______.

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Chapter 60: Psychological Disorders: Normality and Psychopathology

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Q1) Psychologist David Rosenhan's work that involved pseudo­patients in a mental hospital suggests the importance of which of the following in the treatment of mental disorders?

A)labels and expectations

B)immediate medical intervention

C)availability of effective medication

D)staff training and morale

Q2) Margo takes a test that measures the level of several emotions.Using statistical abnormality as the definition of psychopathology,Margo would be considered normal or average if all of her scores fell

A)toward the right side of the higher scoring area of the curve.

B)in the middle of the curve.

C)at the lower end of the curve.

D)only if her scores fell outside the curve.

Q3) In judging normality,the most common source of bias is probably A)religion.

B)race.

C)gender.

D)social class.

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Chapter 61: Psychological Disorders: Psychosis, Delusional Disorders,

and Schizophrenia

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Q1) Describe delusional disorders,including the different types of delusions individuals with this disorder usually have,and explain how delusional disorders differ from other types of psychotic disorders,especially schizophrenia.

Q2) Dopamine receptors in one part of the brain appear to become super-responsive to normal amounts of dopamine,triggering a flood of unrelated thoughts,feelings,and perceptions,which may account for the positive symptoms (voices,hallucinations,and delusions)of which disorder?

A)post-traumatic stress disorder

B)schizophrenia

C)conversion disorder

D)dissociative disorder

Q3) When the personality disintegration of schizophrenics is almost complete and their thinking,feelings,and behaviors are all highly chaotic,such schizophrenics are sometimes referred to as disorganized,or

A)borderline.

B)hebephrenic.

C)catatonic.

D)histrionic.

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Chapter 62: Psychological Disorders: Mood Disorders

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Q1) Which of the following has been shown to be effective in the treatment of bipolar disorder?

A)dopamine

B)glutamate

C)ECT

D)lithium carbonate

Q2) Mood disorders often appear to be produced from within,that is,they have an _______ cause.

A)endogenous

B)extraneous

C)erroneous

D)exogenous

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of depressive disorders?

A)disturbed eating and sleep patterns

B)fleeting episodes of mania

C)an inability to feel pleasure

D)a negative self-image and feelings of worthlessness

Q4) Tanya has been mildly to moderately depressed for most of the time for over two years and has experienced no psychotic episodes and no mania.Tanya would most likely be diagnosed with the disorder called _______.

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Chapter 63: Psychological Disorders: Anxiety-Based

Disorders and Personality Disorders

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Q1) Even though Tomas has never smoked,he immediately thinks that his bad cough is the result of lung cancer rather than the common cold.If he has a mild rash,he immediately thinks he has skin cancer or shingles and goes to the doctor.His friends tell Tomas that he is a hypochondriac,but the correct DSM-5 diagnosis for Tomas' condition is

A)conversion disorder.

B)somatic symptom disorder.

C)dissociative disorder.

D)psychosomatic illness.

Q2) A person who is a frequent "checker" or "cleaner" may have which disorder?

A)agoraphobia

B)somatic symptom disorder

C)free-floating fugue

D)obsessive-compulsive disorder

Q3) According to Carl Rogers,when the information we get from the outside world contradicts our perceptions of ourselves,we become vulnerable to A)a conversion reaction or anxiety attacks.

B)split personalities.

C)schizophrenia.

D)delusional disorders.

Page 65

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Chapter 64: Psychology in Action: Suicide

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Q1) Withdrawal from others,personality change,depression,and giving away prized possessions are among the warning signs for

A)a suicide attempt.

B)bipolar II disorder.

C)adolescent turbulence.

D)dysthymia.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT identified in the text as a common characteristic of suicidal thoughts and feelings?

A)feelings of paranoia

B)frustration in the search for love or trust

C)inability to recognize options other than death

D)extreme emotional pain

Q3) Describe the specific ways that you can help a friend who is having mild suicidal thoughts and what you should do if a suicide attempt appears imminent.

Q4) All of the following are characteristics of suicidal thinking EXCEPT for A)a desire to escape.

B)unbearable psychological pain.

C)frustrated needs.

D)having too many options.

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Chapter 65: Therapies: Treating Psychological Distress

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Q1) John attends Alcoholics Anonymous meetings.These sessions

A)do not fit the guidelines to be considered a group therapy.

B)will be less effective than individual therapy for his disorder.

C)will have group members with similar problems who can offer support and useful input.

D)are characterized by all of these statements.

Q2) Which type of psychotherapy is an insight therapy whose strength is the productive use of conflict?

A)existential

B)Gestalt

C)brief psychodynamic

D)cognitive

Q3) In what way are trephining and exorcism alike?

A)Both cause mental illness.

B)Both were used as treatments by Pinel in the Bicêtre Asylum.

C)Both were considered approaches for removing evil spirits.

D)Both are considered Gestalt therapies.

Q4) Helping to guide clients to a deeper understanding of the origins of their thoughts,emotions,and behaviors is the goal of psychodynamic and humanistic therapies,both of which are considered _______ therapies.

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Chapter 66: Therapies: Humanistic and Cognitive Therapies

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Q1) Which of the following therapists believe that negative,self-defeating thoughts underlie depression?

A)psychoanalysts

B)behavioral therapists

C)cognitive therapists

D)existential therapists

Q2) Logotherapy is a form of _______ therapy.

A)existential

B)reality

C)action

D)cognitive

Q3) Lee Ann's therapist asks her to exaggerate vague feelings she has until they become clear.By expressing such feelings,Lee Ann's therapist believes that this will allow her to "take care of unfinished business" and break through emotional impasses.Lee Ann's therapist is most likely a(n)

A)existential therapist.

B)Gestalt therapist.

C)psychoanalyst.

D)client-centered therapist.

Q4) Rational-emotive behavior therapy was developed by _______.

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Chapter 67: Therapies: Behavior Therapies

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Q1) In behavior modification,the term "response­contingent" means

A)containing the response.

B)linked to a response.

C)being followed by the response.

D)positive reinforcement.

Q2) If you are eating an apple and bite a large green worm in half,you may not be able to look at an apple for several months without feeling ill because you have developed a(n)

A)systematic desensitization.

B)spontaneous recovery.

C)conditioned aversion.

D)extinction.

Q3) Jaime has gone through a series of steps that helped her gradually adapt and overcome her fear of the high diving board.When she has conquered her fear,we say that which of the following has occurred?

A)catharsis

B)role reversal

C)desensitization

D)adaptive extinction

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Chapter 68: Therapies: Medical Therapies

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Q1) Regarding transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS),which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)TMS uses magnetic pulses to temporarily block activity in specific parts of the brain.

B)Unlike deep brain stimulation,TMS is noninvasive and nonsurgical.

C)During treatment for compulsive gambling,TMS stimulation is applied to the brain stem areas to target the reticular formation.

D)Patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder have shown marked improvement when TMS disrupted brain areas involved in compulsive behavior.

Q2) In prefrontal lobotomy,the corpus callosum is cut to separate the two brain hemispheres.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Major tranquilizers are also referred to as _______ drugs.

A)anxiolytic

B)antidepressant

C)antipsychotic

D)narcoleptic

Q4) Skilled management of a psychological emergency is known as _______.

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Chapter 69: Psychology in Action: Self-Management and Seeking Professional Help

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most therapists require that their clients not discuss their therapy with anyone but the therapist.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Factors that indicate a need for professional help regarding one's mental health include which of the following?

A)psychological discomfort comparable to physical pain that would have you seek a doctor

B)significant changes in behavior,such as the quality of your schoolwork

C)a friend or relative urges you to seek professional help

D)all of these

Q3) Although a psychiatrist can administer somatic therapy and prescribe drugs in all states within the United States,psychologists are presently able to prescribe drugs only in the states of

A)Maine and Wisconsin.

B)New Mexico and Louisiana.

C)New York and California.

D)Ohio and Florida.

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Chapter 70: Social Psychology: Social Behavior and Cognition

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the three components of an attitude?

A)action

B)emotion

C)experience

D)belief

Q2) When making the fundamental attribution error,we tend to overestimate the importance of which of the following in judging the behavior of others?

A)internal causes

B)situational factors

C)external causes

D)motivation

Q3) The scientific study of how individuals behave,think,and feel in the presence of others,whether actual or implied is called _______ psychology.

A)personality

B)social

C)behavioral

D)humanistic

Q4) Any deliberate attempt to bring about attitude change by the transmission of information is called _______.

Page 72

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Chapter 71: Social Psychology: Social Influence

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Q1) Group sanctions may include all of the following EXCEPT

A)attribution and social facilitation.

B)rejection or formal exclusion.

C)laughter or staring.

D)social approval or disapproval.

Q2) Research has shown that deep character flaws were the reason that the Nazi soldiers obeyed their commanders and helped slaughter more than six million people in concentration camps.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The results of the obedience experiments showed that greater distance from the authority as well as a person having group support for their decision tended to _______ obedience.

A)decrease

B)increase

C)have no effect on

D)precipitate

Q4) A special type of conformity to the demands of an authority is known as _______.

Q5) Describe each of the three compliance techniques,explain why each leads to compliance,and give an example of each.

73

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Chapter 72: Social Psychology: Pro-Social Behavior

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Q1) Regarding research on bystander behavior during an emergency,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)The 1964 murder of Kitty Genovese was witnessed by 38 bystanders,none of whom intervened or even called the police.

B)The landmark studies on the unwillingness of bystanders to help in an emergency were conducted by Darley and Latané.

C)News reports treat incidents,such as the Kitty Genovese murder,as evidence of a breakdown in social ties caused by the impersonality of the city,although this cannot fully explain the unwillingness of bystanders to offer help.

D)The murder of Kitty Genovese provided researchers evidence of the mean worldview effect.

Q2) You will tend to be less attracted and more suspicious of someone who is exhibiting A)physical proximity.

B)self-disclosure.

C)superior competence.

D)overdisclosure.

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Chapter 73: Social Psychology: Antisocial Behavior

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Q1) The use of alcohol and drugs make hostile behavior more likely to occur because the alcohol and drugs

A)lower one's threshold for aggression.

B)increase one's frustration level.

C)create a state of learned helplessness.

D)serve as direct cue for aggressiveness.

Q2) According to psychologists Conor Seyle and Matthew Newman,the "red states and blue states" have become a national shorthand for dividing Americans into opposing camps with

A)reds being upper class and the blues being middle class.

B)reds being liberal and the blues being conservative.

C)reds being urban and the blues being rural.

D)reds being religious and the blues being nonreligious.

Q3) Scapegoating is a type of

A)displaced aggression.

B)projection.

C)reaction formation.

D)stereotyped aggression.

Q4) An unwarranted positiveness or certainty in matters of belief or opinion is called

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Chapter 74: Psychology in Action: Multiculturalism

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Q1) Many times when stereotypes and prejudiced beliefs were learned in childhood,a person may still have lingering unconscious biases even when they are trying hard to "break the prejudice habit." This illustrates the occurrence of A)the stereotype threat.

B)explicit prejudice.

C)symbolic prejudice.

D)implicit prejudice.

Q2) If Gordon wants to develop cultural awareness,the BEST way would be for him to A)read several books on different cultures.

B)visit different cultural exhibits,museums,plays,and restaurants.

C)become acquainted with a person whose cultural background is different from his. D)strive to develop more just-world beliefs.

Q3) Because the importance of cultural awareness often lies in subtleties and details,getting acquainted with a person whose cultural background is different from your own is often the best way to learn about that culture and to reduce prejudice and intergroup conflict.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 75: Applied Psychology: Industrialorganizational Psychology

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Q1) In preparing for and being interviewed for a job,which of the following is NOT a good suggestion?

A)Know about the company and job for which one is interviewing by going to their company website.

B)Think about the kinds of questions that may be asked at the interview,outline broad answers and role play the interview with a friend.

C)Be well­dressed and on time for the interview and bring your social security card,résumé,and references.

D)Ask questions about salary and benefits at the beginning of the interview to determine whether this job meets your expectations and that of the employer.

Q2) Which type of leader has a person orientation rather than a task orientation and tends to assume that workers enjoy autonomy and are willing to accept responsibility?

A)Type A

B)Type B

C)Theory X

D)Theory Y

Q3) Detailed biographical information about a job applicant is known as _______.

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Page 77

Chapter 76: Applied Psychology: Environmental Psychology

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Q1) Which type of psychology involves the study of the effects buildings have on behavior and the use of behavioral principles to design buildings?

A)architectural

B)space

C)proxemic

D)design

Q2) Helen's child is crying and runs into Helen's arms to be comforted.This interaction took place within the zone known as _______ distance.

A)intimate

B)personal

C)social

D)public

Q3) Which of the following has been one of the most effective ways to encourage pro-environmental behavior,including recycling?

A)incentives,such as refundable deposits on glass bottles

B)visible recycling bins

C)monetary fines for those who refuse to recycle

D)learning about environmental problems at school

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Chapter 77: Applied Psychology: the Psychology of

Education, Law, and Sports

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Q1) Through which approach was it discovered that top marksmen consistently squeeze the trigger between heartbeats?

A)task analysis

B)situational assessment

C)biofeedback

D)mental conditioning

Q2) If both the prosecution and defense use scientific jury selection,

A)the net effect is probably a more balanced jury with only people who are highly biased being removed.

B)jury trials will become gridlocked.

C)people with pretrial biases will be selected for jury duty.

D)only people with conservative,authoritarian attitudes will be selected.

Q3) To be more effective in teaching,one should use a planned method of instruction to present material to students. This planned method of instruction is called a A)learning style.

B)mnemonic device.

C)teaching strategy.

D)task analysis.

Q4) Discuss four problem areas regarding jury deliberations.

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Chapter 78: Psychology in Action: Human Factors

Psychology

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Q1) Nintendo Wii game console,Microsoft's Kinect,Google's "Glass," and telesurgery were developed by

A)comparative engineers.

B)forensic psychologists.

C)proxemics engineers.

D)human-computer interaction designers.

Q2) Computer interfaces can create a sense of being present in a remote location,which is referred to as _______.

Q3) One way to create more natural designs in machines is to use which of the following to create similarities between different subjects?

A)convergences

B)divergences

C)metaphors

D)flexible models

Q4) One interesting form of usability testing involves people saying everything they are thinking as they use a machine,an approach known as the _______.

Q5) Describe what is meant by satisficing and provide an example,and explain what causes people to exhibit this behavior and how it can be minimized.

Page 80

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Chapter 79: Behavioral Statistics

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Q1) Regarding samples,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Samples are cross-sections of a population.

B)Samples are used to draw conclusions about larger groups.

C)Inferential statistics are often applied to samples.

D)Samples are often too difficult to obtain for research.

Q2) Zack had a score of 90 in a class with a mean of 80 and a standard deviation of 10.His z-score is

A)+2.0.

B)+1.0.

C)-1.0.

D)-2.0.

Q3) Frequency distributions provide a method of

A)organizing data and summarizing data.

B)extracting data from samples.

C)making inferences.

D)measuring z-scores.

Q4) A correlational study would be used to determine if a relationship existed between rainfall levels and crime rates.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 80: Life After School

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Q1) You have just graduated from college with a bachelor's degree in psychology.The focus of your academic research during this four-year degree was hypnosis.Besides a knowledge of hypnosis,what other skills have you developed?

A)how to read primary research literature

B)how to find information on your own

C)how to write reports and speak in front of an audience

D)all of these

Q2) As a psychology major,Maya has demonstrated the ability to listen efficiently,to write psychology reports in APA style,to make oral presentations as an individual and in groups,and to use charts and graphs to clarify the information presented.According to the Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,which of the competencies is Maya most fully demonstrating?

A)personal development

B)application of psychology

C)communication skills

D)knowledge base of psychology

Q3) The discussion of these topics develops psychology students' _______ skills.

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Chapter 81: Understanding Descriptive and Inferential

Statistics for Psychological Research

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Q1) The index of how much a typical score differs from the mean of a group of scores is known as the Pearson r.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The propensity for a majority of scores to fall in the midrange of possible values is referred to as

A)central tendency.

B)inferential probability.

C)the causal correlational effect.

D)frequency distribution.

Q3) The college admissions office has determined that the correlation between IQ scores and college grade point average is .50.What percent of the variation in college grades is accounted for by knowing IQ scores?

A)10

B)15

C)25

D)50

Q4) Describe a normal curve,and explain the relationship of the standard deviation to this curve.

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Chapter 82: The Competencies of the Undergraduate

Psychology Major

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Q1) Liam has just graduated with a bachelor's degree in psychology and is applying for a job as a sales representative.The skill learned during his psychology coursework that would be the LEAST beneficial in obtaining this job as a sales representative would be his

A)ability to do his own research.

B)knowledge of developmental stages.

C)sensitivity to cross-cultural issues.

D)ability to make presentations to individuals or groups.

Q2) You have just graduated from college with a bachelor's degree in psychology.The focus of your academic research during this four-year degree was hypnosis.Besides a knowledge of hypnosis,what other skills have you developed?

A)how to read primary research literature

B)how to find information on your own

C)how to write reports and speak in front of an audience

D)all of these

Q3) The discussion of these topics develops psychology students' _______ skills.

Q4) In Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition),the informational boxes that were specifically designed to enhance the cultural awareness skills of psychology students are the _______ boxes.

Page 84

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