Survey of Psychology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Survey of Psychology introduces students to the major concepts, theories, and research findings in the field of psychology. The course covers a broad range of topics including biological bases of behavior, perception, learning, memory, development, motivation, emotion, personality, psychological disorders, and social behavior. Emphasis is placed on understanding how psychologists study human thought, emotion, and behavior through scientific methods, and how psychological principles can be applied to everyday life. This comprehensive overview provides a solid foundation for further study in psychology and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Psychology Gateways to Mind and Behavior 13th Edition by Dennis Coon
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A: Introduction to Psychology and Research
Methods
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The idea that a behavior is controlled by rewards and punishments is most closely associated with
A) Abraham Maslow.
B) B.F.Skinner.
C) Wilhelm Wundt.
D) William James.
Answer: B
Q2) According to your textbook,which of the following is NOT a pseudopsychology?
A) psychoanalysis
B) palmistry
C) phrenology
D) astrology
Answer: A
Q3) A systematic process for answering scientific questions is called
A) a research method.
B) a scientific deduction.
C) the induction method.
D) the analytical method.
Answer: A
Page 3
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Chapter 1: B: Introduction to Psychology and Research
Methods
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250 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Manuel is a psychologist employed by the human relations department of a car manufacturer.He helps select job applicants and also helps to improve workplace conditions and work relationships so that the company can operate effectively.Manuel is most likely a(n)__________ psychologist.
A) personality
B) forensic
C) educational
D) industrial-organizational
Answer: D
Q2) Suppose you want to find out if using cell phones while driving a car affects the likelihood of having an accident.The group that would NOT be talking on a cell phone while taking the Driving test would be the __________ group.
A) dependent
B) independent
C) experimental
D) control
Answer: D
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Chapter 1: C: Introduction to Psychology and Research
Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a television ad tells you that a "psychic hotline" can predict your entire future for you in three half-hour sessions,
A) beware of over-simplification.
B) note the difference between observation and inference.
C) remember that correlation does not mean causation.
D) realize the authenticity of the psychic has been thoroughly checked by the TV media Before broadcast.
Answer: A
Q2) In an experiment,the group that serves as a point of reference for a comparison of results is the __________ group.
Answer: control
Q3) A common method for selecting representative samples is to select them
A) randomly from the larger population.
B) strictly from volunteers.
C) independently by placing the surveys in popular magazines and newspapers.
D) from the confidential lists generated from mail order firms.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 2: A: Brain and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychiatrist Daniel Langleben and his colleagues have used a new brain technique to tell if a person is lying,with the front of the brain being more active when a person is lying rather than telling the truth.This technology is the
A) CT scan.
B) MRI scan.
C) EEG.
D) fMRI.
Q2) Neurons are tiny cells that A) cannot be seen without a microscope.
B) are made up of nerves.
C) are scientifically classified as neurilemmas.
D) are characterized by all of these.
Q3) Velishea has severe epileptic seizures that cannot be controlled by medication.Therefore,her doctor suggests that a surgery might help.The surgery would involve
A) cutting the corpus callosum.
B) removing the hippocampus.
C) stimulating the brain's pleasure centers.
D) severing the connection between the prefrontal lobe and the hypothalamus.
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Page 6
Chapter 2: C: Brain and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Margaret has problems with virilism.Which gland or part of a gland is malfunctioning?
A) pineal gland
B) thyroid gland
C) adrenal cortex
D) adrenal medulla
Q2) An oversecretion of the corticoids can cause a condition in which a woman may grow a beard or a man's voice may become so low it is difficult to understand.This condition is known as
A) acromegaly.
B) virilism.
C) cretinism.
D) agnosia.
Q3) Children who have premature puberty resulting in full sexual development have
A) given birth as early as five years of age.
B) an oversecretion of pituitary growth hormones.
C) an undersecretion of adrenal sex hormones.
D) a thyroid disorder.
Q4) The risk for developing more immune-related diseases is highest in individuals with __________ handedness.
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Chapter 3: A: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding the motor skills of babies,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) It is not unusual for many of the motor skills to appear one to two months earlier than average or several months later.
B) The order of maturation of motor skills is almost universal.
C) Babies tend to tune their motor skills over time, making their movements smoother and more effective.
D) Babies who substitute rolling, creeping, or shuffling for crawling are considered to be developmentally delayed.
Q2) Poverty has been shown to affect
A) a child's health with poor children being sick more often.
B) a child's socioemotional development.
C) a child's cognitive development.
D) all of these.
Q3) Current guidelines suggest that toilet training goes most smoothly when begun between __________ months of age.
A) nine and 12
B) 12 and 16
C) 18 and 24
D) 30 and 42
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Page 8
Chapter 3: B: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following observations is cited to support the idea that language is learned?
A) Babies in all cultures communicate first by crying, then cooing, then babbling.
B) Parents and children communicate with shared signals before language appears.
C) Children around the world use a limited number of patterns in their first sentences.
D) Telegraphic speech occurs in every culture.
Q2) Dr.Jones is a psychologist who specializes in the psychology of language and language development.Dr.Jones would be referred to as a
A) psycholinguist.
B) paralanguage specialist.
C) parapsychologist.
D) phrenologist.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT present in the preoperational stage?
A) the ability to reverse thoughts or operations
B) egocentric thought
C) the ability to think symbolically
D) the tendency to confuse words with the objects they represent
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9
Chapter 3: C: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moral reasoning is based on a desire to please others or to follow accepted authority,rules,and values in which level of moral development?
A) preconventional
B) conventional
C) unconventional
D) postconventional
Q2) Having a positive evaluation of oneself and regarding oneself as a worthwhile person is called
A) narcissism.
B) egocentrism.
C) self-awareness.
D) self-esteem.
Q3) You-messages tell children
A) what's "wrong" with them.
B) what effect their behavior has on you.
C) that you are sensitive to their needs.
D) that you are only concerned with your own needs.
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10
Chapter 3: D: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some psychologists believe that our first attachments influence our adult relationships with friends and lovers.Describe the characteristics of the three adult attachment styles that might result.
Q2) According to Kohlberg,older children and most adults exhibit moral development at the __________ level.
Q3) When communicating with one's children,Thomas Gordon suggests that parents use __________-messages.
Q4) Jasmine does not copy other students' homework nor does she cheat on tests because she does not want to receive a zero on the homework or test.Jasmine is exhibiting Kohlberg's moral development level known as __________.
Q5) The limits that one's environment places on the effects of heredity is referred to as the __________.
Q6) Accoridng to Erikson,a child entering adolescence can expect the major developmental task to center around the need to achieve intimacy with another. A)True B)False
Q7) The false-belief task is used to assess whether a child has developed __________.
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Chapter 4: A: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) After complimenting his wife Helen on her new blue dress,Sid proceeded to put on a red tie and a green coat,thinking they were both a yellowish brown.Sid most likely has A) visual agnosia.
B) total color blindness.
C) only rods in his eyes and no cones.
D) a color weakness.
Q2) Black and white vision with the greatest sensitivity under lower levels of illumination describes the function of the A) cones.
B) rods.
C) phosphenes.
D) visual pigments.
Q3) Which one of the following sequences is the correct one for audition?
A) eardrum, cochlea, hair cells, ossicles
B) ossicles, eardrum, cochlea, hair cells
C) hair cells, ossicles, eardrum, cochlea
D) eardrum, ossicles, cochlea, hair cells
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Chapter 4: B: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) When one can alternately see both a wine glass and then two faces within the same image,this illustrates the reversibility of __________ images.
A) continuation
B) proximity
C) closure
D) figure-ground
Q2) Which of the following would be good advice to help a person to minimize motion sickness?
A) Move your head from side to side.
B) Sit up straight, do not lie down.
C) Fix your vision on a distant immobile object.
D) Breathe rapidly in short breaths.
Q3) Dysosmia can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT
A) exposure to ammonia.
B) a recessive sex-linked trait.
C) blows to the head.
D) infections and allergies.
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Chapter 4: C: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding inattentional blindness,we are more likely to not perceive something when A) we are experiencing retinal disparity.
B) our attention is narrowly focused.
C) we are experiencing subliminal adaptation.
D) our attention is broadly focused
Q2) Improved research techniques in parapsychology have resulted in A) the ability to replicate spectacular results.
B) fewer positive results.
C) less skepticism among scientists about ESP.
D) fewer instances of the "decline effect."
Q3) If you stand in the middle of a long,straight stretch of road,it appears as if the sides of the road meet near the horizon.Since you know that the sides of the road are parallel,the distance implied is given by the pictorial depth cue of A) atmospheric perspective.
B) texture gradients.
C) light and shadow.
D) linear perspective.
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14
Chapter 4: D: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Good advice to help a person to minimize motion sickness would be to move one's head as little as possible and fixate on a distant immobile object.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Much of the apparent depth of a good movie comes from the relative motion captured by the camera,a feature also known as ___________.
Q3) Name the four basic taste sensations,describe the new fifth taste,tell how sensitive humans are to each taste and how this difference in sensitivity may have prevented poisonings,and explain why there are so many different flavors if only four (or five)tastes exist.
Q4) When our attention is narrowly focused,we may experience inattentional blindness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) You are a juror in a robbery case.You are listening to the testimony of two eyewitnesses,one was robbed at gun-point on the street at night and one who observed the robbery from a distance.Describe the factors that could affect the accuracy of these eyewitness perceptions.
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Page 15
Chapter 5: A: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any repeating cycle of biological activity,such as sleep and waking cycles or changes in body temperature,is known as a(n)
A) ASC.
B) biological rhythm.
C) condensation.
D) REM rebound.
Q2) Eating cookies,bread,pasta,oatmeal,or dry cereal as a snack before bed can increase sleepiness because it increases the amount of A) dopamine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) tryptophan.
Q3) Frequently occurring nightmares of one a week or more are associated with A) the occurrence of night terrors.
B) children and adolescents.
C) adults who are middle-aged or older.
D) higher levels of psychological distress.
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Chapter 5: B: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any major reduction in the amount and variety of sensory stimulation is referred to as
A) meditation.
B) REM rebound.
C) cataplexy.
D) sensory deprivation.
Q2) Addictive drugs stimulate a brain region called the nucleus accumbens,which results in intensified feelings of pleasure due to the release of which neurotransmitter?
A) acetylcholine
B) melatonine
C) norepinephrine
D) dopamine
Q3) Psychoactive drugs alter consciousness by
A) raising the metabolic rate within the body.
B) changing the blood volume level of various substances within the body.
C) deactivating the ganglia within the somatic nervous system.
D) directly influencing brain activity.
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Chapter 5: C: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) In catching a dream,it is important to remember that some drugs have an effect on REM sleep.Which of the following drug and effect matches is correct?
A) barbiturates---------decrease REM
B) alcohol---------------increases REM
C) caffeine--------------decreases REM
D) marijuana------------increases REM
Q2) Regarding lucid dreaming,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Lucid dreaming is a relatively rare experience.
B) Sleeping in a hammock, on a boat, or on a waterbed may increase the number of lucid dreams a person has.
C) Stimulation of the auditory system has been shown to increase lucid dreaming.
D) In lucid dreaming, a person can partially overcome REM sleep paralysis.
Q3) Researchers have found that stimulation from which sensory system tends to increase lucid dreaming?
A) kinesthetic
B) vestibular
C) tactile
D) auditory
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Chapter 5: D: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marijuana,LSD,mescaline,and psilocybin are classified as __________.
Q2) In order for Freud to analyze the hidden,symbolic meaning of his patients' dreams,he would have his patients remember and retell the obvious,visible parts of their dreams known as the __________ content.
Q3) Describe Sigmund Freud's four dream processes and give an example of each.
Q4) Dreamless slow-wave NREM sleep increases after physical exertion,while REM sleep increases with daytime emotional stresses. A)True
B)False
Q5) Maria has been abusing cocaine and now suffers from an inability to feel pleasure,a condition known as __________.
Q6) The detached part of the hypnotized person's awareness that silently views the events occurring during hypnosis is called the __________.
Q7) Abby seems to fall asleep in the middle of a conversation.She has even suffered one of these sleep attacks while standing.She appears to be suffering from the sleep disturbance called __________.
Q8) The pattern of EEG waves present when one is awake and alert is characterized by __________ waves.
Page 19
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Chapter 6: A: Conditioning and Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) A linked series of actions that lead to reinforcement is the definition of which of the following concepts?
A) biofeedback
B) response chaining
C) fixed action patterns
D) acquisition and recovery
Q2) Classical conditioning tends to involve
A) reflexive-type behaviors.
B) learning by immediate consequences.
C) rewards more than punishments.
D) punishments more than rewards.
Q3) The type of learning that involves voluntary responses with the animal or person emitting a response is called __________ conditioning.
A) classical
B) operant
C) respondent
D) Pavlovian
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Chapter 6: B: Conditioning and Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Knowledge of results (KR)is also known as
A) informational feedback.
B) partial reinforcement.
C) response cost management.
D) vicarious conditioning.
Q2) People using computer-assisted instruction (CAI)often do better with feedback from a computer because CAI
A) is more accurate than traditional instruction.
B) allows learners to freely make mistakes and learn from them.
C) reinforces on a fixed ratio schedule rather than a fixed interval schedule.
D) provides a consistent format of behavioral contracting.
Q3) You are a very good skater,but you did not start out that way.Your mother reinforced you for each small improvement you made over several months.This process is known as
A) shaping.
B) latent learning.
C) vicarious classical conditioning.
D) intermittent conditioning.
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21
Chapter 6: C: Conditioning and Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to learning through direct experience or verbal instruction,modeling involves learning by
A) suffering the consequences for our actions.
B) exploring problems and situations.
C) breaking down larger tasks into their components.
D) watching others.
Q2) Self-management based on keeping records of response frequencies is known as A) the Premack principle.
B) observational learning.
C) self-recording.
D) response chaining.
Q3) Choosing a target behavior,recording a baseline,establishing goals,choosing reinforcers,recording progress,rewarding progress,and adjusting one's plan are the steps making up a procedure known as A) behavioral self-management.
B) top-down processing.
C) cognitive mapping.
D) perceptual habituation.
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Chapter 6: D: Conditioning and Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how the classical conditioning of an eye blink came to be used as a diagnostic tool,and how various conditions have been diagnosed using it.
Q2) Internal images or other mental representations of an area (maze,city,campus,etc.)that underlie an ability to choose alternative paths to the same goal refers to a(n)__________.
Q3) Jamal works for a department store that pays him $50 for every three bicycles he assembles; thus,Jamal is on a variable interval schedule of reinforcement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A child calls his black cat "Binkie" but does not call other black cats this name,which illustrates operant stimulus discrimination.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Skills,such as dancing,tying your shoe,or playing a guitar,are most easily learned through __________ learning.
Q6) Events that occur after a response are called __________.
Q7) Describe three problems that occur as punishment increases in severity.
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Chapter 7: A: Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bits of information grouped into larger units make up A) eidetic memories.
B) digit spans.
C) information chunks.
D) implicit memories.
Q2) The three basic processes of memory are
A) recognition, storage, retrieval.
B) encoding, storage, forgetting.
C) encoding, storage, retrieval.
D) maintenance, elaboration, forgetting.
Q3) The reorganization and updating of memories on the basis of logic,reasoning or the addtion of new information involves
A) maintenance rehearsal.
B) elaborative processing.
C) eidetic imaging.
D) retroactive priming.
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24
Chapter 7: B: Memory
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Q1) You are taking a math exam,and you are actively searching through the information stored in your memory to come up with the formulas to answer the questions.You are using your __________ memory.
A) explicit
B) implicit
C) episodic
D) contextual
Q2) The ability to predict beforehand whether one will be able to remember something is called
A) déjà vu.
B) episodic memory.
C) consolidation.
D) the feeling of knowing.
Q3) Having used English grammar for the first seventeen years of your life causes initial problems as you attempt to learn Spanish grammar.This problem is best explained by A) retroactive inhibition.
B) negative transfer.
C) vicarious classical conditioning.
D) avoidance learning.
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Page 25
Chapter 7: C: Memory
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Q1) Forgetting is a common occurrence.Explain why each of the following "forgetting" situations" takes place:
(a)Although people in the United States have seen the U.S.ten dollar bill on numerous occasions,explain why most people do not know what picture is on the back of this currency.
(b)Most people believe the disuse theory of forgetting.Explain why disuse alone cannot fully explain forgetting.
(c)Explain why couples who quarrel end up remembering and rehashing old arguments.
(d)Explain why some recovered memories of sexual child abuse have been found to be "false".
Q2) When memorizing a list of 20 names,concentrating more on the eighth name through the fourteenth name is an example of being aware of A) selection.
B) organization.
C) the serial-position effect.
D) part-learning.
Q3) Discuss the four basic principles of mnemonics,and explain how each is able to improve your memory.
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26
Chapter 8: A: Cognition,language,and Creativity
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Q1) When minority children are placed in English-only classrooms,they usually end up losing some proficiency in their native language and are at risk for being less than fully competent in both languages,a problem known as A) algorithmic bilingualism.
B) the semantic differential.
C) subtractive bilingualism.
D) functional dyslexia.
Q2) A motorcycle must have two wheels and an engine and handlebars.Thus,a motorcycle is considered a __________ concept.
A) conjunctive
B) prototypical
C) disjunctive
D) relational
Q3) Oversimplified concepts of groups of people are called A) social stereotypes.
B) disjunctive concepts.
C) representative algorithms.
D) conjunctive concepts.
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Chapter 8: B: Cognition,language,and Creativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Claudia's failure to see that a trash bag would make an excellent makeshift raincoat is an example of
A) mental consolidation.
B) retroactive interference.
C) functional fixedness.
D) cognitive dissonance.
Q2) You are trying to determine which of two terms is related to identical twins.You see "monozygotic" and "dizygotic." You remember that a zygote is formed from one egg and one sperm and that "mono" means one and "di" means two.Identical twins would have to result from the same egg and the same sperm,thus one zygote.Using old information to derive the meaning of "monozygotic" and "dizygotic" illustrates the use of
A) selective comparison.
B) selective attention.
C) selective combination.
D) selective encoding.
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Chapter 8: C: Cognition,language,and Creativity
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Q1) If we classify things as absolutely right or wrong,good or bad,fair or unfair,black or white,honest or dishonest,we would be exhibiting __________ thinking.
Q2) If you are asked to multiply a four-digit number and a three-digit number and you follow the steps you were taught in the fifth grade,then you are utilizing a heuristic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mental images tend to be flat,like photographs. A)True
B)False
Q4) Fixations and functional fixedness are specific types of A) insight learning.
B) divergent thinking.
C) prototypes.
D) mental sets.
Q5) The job criteria states that you must have a master's degree or a B.S.degree and two years of supervisory experience; thus,the job criteria is a(n)__________ concept.
Q6) The basic units of thought: concepts,language,and __________.
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Page 29
Chapter 9: A: Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers asked the members of the Kpelle tribe in Liberia to sort objects.The Kpelle tribe members grouped the objects together
A) haphazardly.
B) by category, such as containers, clothing, and eating utensils.
C) by functional association, such as food being placed with the utensil used to eat it.
D) like Westerners usually group objects.
Q2) Regarding group intelligence tests,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Group intelligence tests can be given to a large group of people with minimal supervision.
B) Group intelligence tests usually require people to read and follow instructions.
C) Group intelligence tests require people to solve problems of logic, reasoning, mathematics, or spatial skills.
D) The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test was the first group intelligence test.
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Chapter 9: B: Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding the twin studies on intelligence,twins who develop come from two separate eggs fertilized at the same time are known as __________ twins.
A) monozygotic
B) fraternal
C) identical
D) conjoined
Q2) Regarding the neural basis of intelligence,which of the following statements is FALSE? A) A function as complex as intelligence relies on the activity of many different brain areas.
B) Brain areas that control higher mental abilities usually become more active during reaction time testing.
C) Noticeable differences between younger and older participants suggest that the way the brain expresses intelligence changes as we age.
D) Brain images reveal that parts of frontal cortex are actually smaller in people with higher IQs.
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Chapter 9: C: Intelligence
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Q1) Culture-fair intelligence tests have been shown to be entirely free of cultural influences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sarita is four years old,but she enjoys talking with older children and with adults.She shows kindness to people,is cooperative,has an excellent memory,and has been talking in complete sentences since she was two.Sarita is showing early signs of __________.
Q3) To estimate a child's intelligence,we would need to compare the child's mental age to his or her __________.
Q4) For decades,men,as a group,scored higher than women on portions of intelligence tests that emphasized math and __________.
Q5) According to the neural basis of intelligence,people with higher intelligence tend to have faster reaction times.
A)True B)False
Q6) Crystallized intelligence declines rapidly after middle age.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: A: Motivation and Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thomas Edison,who patented over 1,000 inventions,was interested in exploring new ideas and ways of doing things.His insatiable curiosity would be called a __________motive.
A) stimulus
B) biological C) learned
D) survival
Q2) Regarding incentives,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Our actions are energized by a mixture of internal needs and external incentives.
B) Incentive value cannot be used to explain the drives for success, status, and approval.
C) Some goals are so desirable that they can motivate behavior in the absence of an internal need.
D) Some goals are so low in incentive value that they may be rejected even if they could meet the internal need.
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33
Chapter 10: B: Motivation and Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drive that is relatively independent of physical deprivation cycles or bodily need states is referred to as
A) homeostatic.
B) non-homeostatic.
C) cyclic.
D) primary.
Q2) Benjamin Bloom found that talent is nurtured by
A) parents actively supporting their child's special interest.
B) intense practice.
C) expert coaching.
D) all of these.
Q3) The term "sex drive" refers to
A) a person's openness to a variety of sexual activities.
B) a person's degree of motivation to engage in sexual behavior.
C) a person's level of sexual experience.
D) the frequency of sexual activity.
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Chapter 10: C: Motivation and Emotion
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31029
Sample Questions
Q1) During her morning walk,Vicki has encountered a strange dog and fear has enveloped her.Just then the dog's owner appears,pets his dog,and introduces himself and his dog to Vicki.The dog begins to wag its tail,and Vicki even pets the dog as she breathes a sigh of relief.As she begins the rest of her walk,Vicki's heart rate begins to slow down and her formerly sweaty palms are now dry.Her calmer demeanor is due to the __________nervous system.
A) somatic
B) central
C) sympathetic
D) parasympathetic
Q2) Facial expressions can be reduced to dimensions of pleasantness-unpleasantness,attention-rejection,and
A) rage-joy.
B) excitement.
C) activation.
D) acceptance.
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Chapter 10: D: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) A friend of yours is experiencing test anxiety,and she thinks that she just needs to "calm down." Explain why "just calming down" will not solve her problem and then give her some helpful suggestions for coping with test anxiety.
Q2) The area of the brain that contains both a feeding center and the satiety center is the __________.
Q3) The thumbs-up sign,the head shake for "no",or the A-Okay sign are examples of __________.
Q4) Carl always seems to wear the latest fashion,drives a sporty car,is seen at all the important events,and only associates with the most popular people on campus.Carl has a high need for __________.
Q5) If you have sweated a great deal from exercising,a slightly salty liquid will more readily satisfy the type of thirst known as __________ thirst.
Q6) People who are low sensation seekers tend to be orderly,nurturant,and giving,and tend to enjoy the company of others.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Discuss how emotionally intelligent people perceive,use,and manage their emotions.
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Chapter 11: A: Gender and Sexuality
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Q1) Carol and Hank are fraternal twins.Although their parents try not to treat the twins differently,both parents allow Hank to play loudly and to climb on the furniture.Hank's dad tends to "rough-house" with Hank more than Carol,while he talks to and reads books more with Carol.Carol and Hank are undergoing
A) gender role socialization.
B) sexual orientation training.
C) sexual scripting.
D) androgynous socialization.
Q2) Which of the following describes the term sex (as opposed to term gender)?
A) gender identity
B) secondary sexual attitudes
C) biological sexual characteristics
D) roles of males and females in society
Q3) The sexual and reproductive organs,including the vagina,ovaries,and uterus in females and the penis,testes,and scrotum in males make up a person's
A) primary sexual characteristics.
B) secondary sexual characteristics.
C) biological biasing effect.
D) gender differences.
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Page 37
Chapter 11: B: Gender and Sexuality
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Q1) Which of the following is supported by studies of sexual behavior?
A) It is rare for children to engage in preadolescent sex play.
B) It is uncommon for children aged two to five to show their genitals.
C) Orgasm cannot occur until secondary sex characteristics develop at puberty.
D) A potential for sexual arousal is apparent at or soon after birth.
Q2) Regarding the sexual arousal study in which women viewed erotic films written by men and by women,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The women were disgusted and repulsed by the films written by men in which the women in the film were little more than sexual props.
B) The women showed more subjective feelings of sexual arousal for the films written by women in which the women were active partners in lovemaking.
C) The women's physical arousal was nearly identical for both films.
D) The women's subjective feelings of arousal were found to be more closely tied to the erotic cues in the films than to her emotional responses.
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Chapter 11: C: Gender and Sexuality
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Q1) According to Gottman and Krokoff,there are three patterns that are almost always related to serious long-term problems in relationships.These include all of the following EXCEPT
A) defensiveness (including whining).
B) anger.
C) stubbornness.
D) refusal to talk with one's partner.
Q2) According to your text,men who carry out forcible rape
A) are acting on a need to debase women.
B) have higher than normal sex drives.
C) often show normal patterns of sexual intimacy.
D) demonstrate guilt after they have committed the rape.
Q3) Regarding rape,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Forced sex is rape only when the rapist uses a weapon or becomes violent.
B) Men who commit date rape often believe that they have done nothing wrong.
C) Attitudes, such as "women should not show direct interest in sex," or "men should aggressively pursue sexual intimacy," create a "rape-supportive culture."
D) Research has confirmed a link between acceptance of rape myths and sexual violence toward women.
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Page 39
Chapter 11: D: Gender and Sexuality Completion
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Q1) The researcher who created a sex role inventory that consists of 20 "masculine" traits,20 "feminine" traits,and 20 "neutral" traits was __________.
Q2) Substances that supposedly increase sexual desire or pleasure are known as __________.
Q3) In some cases of transsexuality or intersexuality,the external genitalia may be altered through __________ surgery.
Q4) Discuss past and present sexual scripts,including a definition of the term sexual script,what happens when people follow markedly different scripts,the current shift toward scripts favoring casual sex,and the risks this new script is creating.
Q5) Explain what is meant by androgyny,and why being androgynous is more adaptable for both males and females.
Q6) Breast development,a broadening of the hips,and other changes in body shape make up a female's __________sexual characteristics.
Q7) Mitzi tends to save up her hurt feelings and complaints and then "dumps" them on her husband during an argument.Mitzi is exhibiting __________.
Q8) Surgical removal of the testicles or ovaries is known as __________.
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Chapter 12: A: Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Gordon Allport,characteristics that are shared by most members of a culture are termed __________ traits.
A) cultural
B) ethnic
C) general
D) common
Q2) According to Rentfrow and Gosling,people who are talkative,full of energy,forgiving,physically attractive,and who reject conservative ideals tend to prefer
A) rap/hip-hop, soul/funk, and electronic/dance music.
B) country, soundtrack, religious, and pop music.
C) rock, alternative, and heavy metal music.
D) blues, jazz, classical, and folk music.
Q3) Moral anxiety results when the ego is overwhelmed by threats of punishment from the
A) id.
B) superego.
C) ideal self.
D) real self.
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Chapter 12: B: Personality
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of self-actualizers?
A) a deep preoccupation with one's own thoughts, feelings, and flaws
B) spontaneity
C) efficient perceptions of reality
D) a continued freshness of appreciation
Q2) Yancy wants to become a famous artist and sculptor,but he does not want to be poverty-stricken.So,Yancy decides to get an art education degree so he can support himself while he works on his creations.Markus and Nurius would say that Yancy's decision was based on an exploration of his
A) ego ideals.
B) actualized potentials.
C) conditions of worth.
D) possible selves.
Q3) One's private perceptions of reality,which are perceived and interpreted not always as they really exist,is referred to as one's
A) ego ideal.
B) human nature.
C) subjective experience.
D) self-actualization.
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Page 42
Chapter 12: C: Personality
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Q1) Regarding how personality develops through the life span,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Newborn babies differ in temperament, which implies that this aspect of personality is hereditary.
B) Most people continue to become more conscientious, agreeable, and emotionally stable as they mature.
C) The stereotypes of the "grumpy old man" and "cranky old woman" are largely unfounded (untrue).
D) Personality stabilizes around age 15 and continues to "harden" through age 35.
Q2) The validity of projective tests such as the TAT and Rorschach
A) is higher than that of objective tests such as the MMPI-2.
B) is high, but their reliability is low.
C) may be increased if used in a battery of tests.
D) is low, but their reliability is high.
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Chapter 12: D: Personality
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Q1) The hereditary aspects of one's emotional nature,including sensitivity,prevailing mood,and distractibility,are referred to as one's __________.
Q2) Rogers described mismatches between one's self-image and one's ideal self as a state of __________.
Q3) According to Freud,children from age six to puberty experience a quiet,settled time called the latency period when psychosexual development is dormant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The validity and reliability of projective tests,such as the TAT and the Rorschach,is higher than that of objective tests,such as the MMPI-2.
A)True
B)False
Q5) According to behavioral personality theorists,the external conditions that strongly influence behavior are known as __________ determinants.
Q6) Temporary moments of self-actualization,in which a person has feelings of ecstasy,harmony,and deep meaning,are called __________.
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Chapter 13: A: Health,stress,and Coping
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Q1) Health psychology is best defined as the
A) study of the ways in which psychological principles can be used to prevent illness and promote health.
B) use of psychological principles and research methods to solve practical problems.
C) study of how individuals behave, think, and feel in the presence, actual or implied, of others.
D) study of behavioral factors in medicine, physical illness, and medical treatment.
Q2) Common reactions to a traumatic experience include
A) insomnia and nightmares.
B) depersonalization and mania.
C) food-bingeing and bulimia.
D) overworking and job burnout.
Q3) An especially strong stress reaction follows whenever a stressor
A) is controllable.
B) is manageable.
C) is appraised as a threat.
D) becomes externalized.
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Chapter 13: B: Health,stress,and Coping
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Sample Questions
Q1) All through high school,other students have treated Archie as if he was stupid.He rarely answers any questions and feels "knocked down" everywhere he turned.Archie is most likely showing symptoms of A) hostility and aggression.
B) a dissociative disorder.
C) learned helplessness and depression.
D) pressure and burnout.
Q2) Which of the following is an unconscious process in which people see their own faults in other people,thus,protecting themselves against the anxiety they would feel if they discerned these faults in themselves?
A) reaction formation
B) denial
C) projection
D) sublimation
Q3) Individuals use psychological defense mechanisms in order to A) aid one's understanding of self.
B) prevent psychosomatic illnesses.
C) reduce depersonalization.
D) reduce anxiety.
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Page 46
Chapter 13: C: Health,stress,and Coping
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Q1) The technique of stress inoculation
A) involves practicing a monologue of internal positive coping statements.
B) involves learning to identify and monitor negative self-statements.
C) has been shown to reduce anxiety and depression and increase self-esteem.
D) is characterized by all of these.
Q2) Regarding frustration,excessive heat the day of your outdoor college graduation would be classified as an external,nonsocial obstacle to your goal of having a perfect graduation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) LaTonya always seems to find ways of turning whatever job she is assigned into something interesting and important.No matter what events occur,LaTonya does not see herself as a victim of circumstances,and sees life as a series of challenges that will help her to grow.LaTonya is an example of a
A) Type A personality that will be susceptible to burnout.
B) hardy personality.
C) Type C personality.
D) person who is keeps her anger "bottled up" and does not express it outwardly.
Q4) Stress triggers bodily effects,upsetting thoughts,and ineffective __________.
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Chapter 14: A: Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paranoid,narcissistic,dependent,antisocial,and borderline are types of __________ disorders.
A) somatoform
B) psychotic
C) personality
D) dissociative
Q2) An important use of DSM-IV-TR includes being a(n)
A) guide to help psychologists to correctly identify mental disorders and select the best therapy.
B) statistical encyclopedia of the incidence of various forms of violent crime committed by patients with mental disorders.
C) accurate guide used by judges and juries in determining the legal definition of insanity.
D) guide to current research articles in the field of psychopathology.
Q3) Most definitions of abnormality
A) are those which are based on statistics.
B) are relative and take context into consideration.
C) use the concept of social nonconformity as the main basis for judgment.
D) can be made using only a person's subjective discomfort as a guide.
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Page 48
Chapter 14: B: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) The observations that LSD can cause psychotic-like reactions and that drugs that counteract LSD overdoses also relieve schizophrenic symptoms suggest that psychosis may be
A) environmentally-induced.
B) a biochemical disorder.
C) caused by drug addiction.
D) a temporary, short-lived affliction.
Q2) Women are 50 percent more likely to experience depression than men,which authorities believe is due to
A) sex-linked traits.
B) hormonal levels.
C) differences in the size of the corpus callosum and the amygdala.
D) social and environmental conditions.
Q3) SAD stands for
A) situational affected depression.
B) seasonal affective disorder.
C) sensory attributed depression.
D) simulated apathy disorder.
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Chapter 14: C: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of pain disorder?
A) Terry can barely walk around because of chronic pain in his back, although doctors can find no physical reason for this pain.
B) Craig repeatedly engages in activities with a high risk of painful injury, almost as if he enjoys the pain.
C) Due to neural damage, Darlene has numbness that prevents her from feeling pain in her hands.
D) Due to psychological disorder, Darlene has numbness that prevents her from feeling pain in her hands.
Q2) The descriptions "avio," and "arachno," and "claustro" refer to
A) common obsessions.
B) specific phobias.
C) free-floating anxieties.
D) hypochondrias.
Q3) Warning signs for potential suicide include all of the following EXCEPT
A) sudden mood swings and aggression.
B) increased contact and dependence on others.
C) a preoccupation with death.
D) alcohol and/or drug use.
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Page 50
Chapter 14: D: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Barry throws himself into a whirlwind of activity marked by extreme distractibility,rapid shifts in thoughts,constant talking,and restless movement as well as having occasional episodes of deep depression,symptoms which indicate that Barry is suffering from a dysthmic disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Men in Malaysia,Laos,the Philippines,and Polynesia who believe they have been insulted sometimes,after a period of brooding,erupt into an outburst of violent,aggressive,or homicidal behavior randomly directed at people and objects.This culture-bound syndrome is known as __________.
Q3) Discuss the different ways of defining abnormality and the shortcomings of each; describe the core feature of all abnormal behavior; and explain in what setting the term insanity is used.
Q4) Discuss why people try to kill themselves,what signs to look for,and how you can help prevent a suicide.
Q5) Contrast the psychodynamic,humanistic,existential,behavioral,and cognitive views of anxiety and anxiety disorders.
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Chapter 15: A: Therapies
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Q1) Freud's theory was based on the belief that neuroses were caused by A) repressed memories, motives, and conflicts.
B) learned maladaptive behaviors.
C) negative self-regard.
D) destructive interpersonal relationships.
Q2) The Buddhists' state of "radical acceptance" is similar to the view that the client must fully accept the challenge of making the courageous choices needed to change his or her life that is advocated by A) psychoanalysts.
B) existential therapists.
C) cognitive therapists.
D) behavioral therapists.
Q3) Both client-centered therapy and existential therapy
A) focus on problems of death, freedom, isolation, and meaninglessness.
B) promote self-knowledge.
C) believe that one can choose to become the person you want to be.
D) seek to uncover one's "true self" hidden behind a screen of defenses.
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Chapter 15: B: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three major types of drugs are
A) antipsychotics, antidepressants, anxiolytics.
B) anxiolytics, antianxiety, and psychotropics.
C) detoxifying, antidepressants, antipsychotics.
D) minor tranquilizers, major tranquilizers, and anti-anxiety.
Q2) Systematic desensitization is described as
A) a guided reduction in fear, anxiety, or aversion attained by gradually approaching a feared stimulus while maintaining relaxation.
B) the removal of the individual from a situation in which reinforcement occurs.
C) the process of rephrasing or repeating thoughts and feelings expressed by clients so they can become aware of what they are saying.
D) the technique of having a client say anything that comes to mind, regardless of how embarrassing or unimportant it may seem.
Q3) The main mode of action of the anxiolytics is to
A) enhance the effects of serotonin or dopamine.
B) reduce the effects of GABA.
C) enhance the effects of GABA.
D) reduce the effects of dopamine.
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Chapter 15: C: Therapies
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Q1) When well-run,which of the following can be a humane and cost-effective way to ease former mental patients back into the community?
A) deinstitutionalizations
B) half-way houses
C) encounter groups
D) somatic therapy groups
Q2) Because therapies have much in common,a majority of psychologists have begun to use whatever methods best fit a particular problem.Thus,regarding their work,a majority of psychologists have become more
A) existential.
B) humanistic.
C) eclectic.
D) cognitive.
Q3) Constructive reenactments are provided by A) psychodrama.
B) existential therapy.
C) psychoanalysis.
D) brief psychodynamic therapy.
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Chapter 15: D: Therapies
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Q1) Many former mental patients who were deinstitutionalized have become homeless or are repeatedly jailed for minor crimes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Regarding behavior modification,explain how aversion therapy and systematic desensitization are both based on classical conditioning,and list and describe the six operant principles most often used by behavior therapists to deal with human behavior.
Q3) A type of psychosurgery that involves disconnecting the frontal sections of the cortex from other areas of the brain is called a(n)prefrontal __________.
Q4) Some of the disadvantages of distance therapies have been overcome by technology that provides a two-way audio-video link,which allows a client and therapist to see one another on computer monitors and to talk via speakerphones.This widely available and inexpensive technology is called _________.
Q5) Rational-emotive behavior therapy was developed by __________.
Q6) Major tranquilizers are also referred to as __________ drugs.
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Page 55
Chapter 16: A: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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Q1) Dr.Salter is conducting a study on attitude change,while his colleagues Drs.Ashad and Morton are conducting research on conformity and obedience,respectively.These researchers are most likely
A) humanistic psychologists.
B) personality theorists.
C) social psychologists.
D) psychoanalytical psychologists.
Q2) A group's established pattern of appropriate or acceptable behavior is referred to as its
A) norms.
B) rules.
C) structure.
D) standardization.
Q3) Which psychologist theorized that group membership fills needs for social comparison?
A) Harold Kelley
B) Philip Zimbardo
C) Theodore Newcomb
D) Leon Festinger
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Page 56
Chapter 16: B: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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Q1) A compulsion by decision makers to maintain each other's approval,even at the cost of critical thinking and good judgment,is called
A) the halo effect.
B) expert power.
C) groupthink.
D) cognitive dissonance.
Q2) When there is a clash between your behavior and your attitude,the resulting discomfort can be reduced by all of the following EXCEPT
A) making your attitude match the behavior.
B) making your behavior match the attitude.
C) increasing the amount of perceived choice.
D) changing the importance of the dissonant thoughts.
Q3) All groups have unspoken rules of conduct,which establish acceptable behavior in most situations,and are called A) norms.
B) comparison levels.
C) group structures.
D) standardization levels.
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Chapter 16: C: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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Q1) The first step in assertiveness training is to convince yourself of three basic rights: You have the right to refuse,to request,and to right a wrong.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During which stage of brainwashing are prisoners most likely to cooperate with their captors and provide the information requested in order to obtain relief from the abuse and pressure?
A) unfreezing
B) change
C) resolution
D) freezing
Q3) Social comparison theory holds that desires for self-evaluation,self-protection,and self-enhancement provide motives for associating with others.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rewards and punishments,such as approval or disapproval,administered by groups to enforce conformity among members are known a(n)__________.
Q5) The process of making inferences about behavior is known as __________.
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Chapter 17: A: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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Q1) When in a large group of people,an individual's tendency to assume responsibility may be hampered because being in a group causes a(n)
A) acknowledge of just-world beliefs.
B) increase in one's concern for his or her own safety.
C) diffusion of responsibility.
D) increase in one's arousal level so that one becomes less focused.
Q2) Social exchange theory states that for relationships to be maintained
A) rewards must exceed costs.
B) similar levels of self-disclosure must occur.
C) shared values must be expressed and understood.
D) complementary skills and abilities must exist.
Q3) A person who studies the natural behavior patterns of animals is called a(n)
A) ethologist.
B) anthropologist.
C) bioecologist.
D) animist.
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Chapter 17: B: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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Q1) Assuming that "all only children are selfish" is an example of a A) dogmatic image.
B) social stereotype.
C) symbolic prejudice.
D) justified image.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the top three categories on which most stereotypes are based?
A) age
B) sex
C) race
D) socioeconomic level
Q3) The media of one country refers to the people of another country as ignorant,savage,and evil.If these two countries go to war,this image of the "evil" country would be used
A) to make it easier for the soldiers of the second country to kill this enemy.
B) to educate the population regarding the true nature of this enemy.
C) to make the enemy seem less threatening.
D) very little, since previous attempts at dehumanizing (during WWII, for example) were ineffective.
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Chapter 17: C: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intergroup conflict between two groups of boys at a summer camp was most efficiently reduced by emergencies that required the cooperation of both groups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A method of reducing prejudice in which a student receives only a small segment of the information needed to complete a project or prepare for a test and then must share with others in the group is known as the __________ classroom.
Q3) Believing that people generally get what they deserve in life is referred to as __________ beliefs.
A) just-world
B) multicultural
C) individuating
D) animistic
Q4) In Jane Elliot's elementary school classroom,extremely prejudiced behavior was generated on the basis of eye color and __________.
Q5) With regard to romantic love,the nearly exclusive attention lovers give to one another is referred to as __________.
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Chapter 18: A: Applied Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Higher rates of job satisfaction cultivate positive moods,which are associated with all of the following EXCEPT
A) lower rates of absenteeism and employee turnover.
B) a greater willingness to help others on the job.
C) higher training costs and inefficiency.
D) more creative problem-solving.
Q2) A job analysis involves all of the following EXCEPT
A) interviewing expert workers or supervisors or giving them questionnaires.
B) observing work.
C) being the last step in personnel selection.
D) identifying critical incidents.
Q3) Regarding increased job satisfaction,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Increased job satisfaction leads to positive moods, which are associated with more creative problem solving.
B) Increased job satisfaction is fostered by Theory X management.
C) Increased job satisfaction is not entirely a matter of work conditions.
D) Increased job satisfaction usually results in lower training costs and less absenteeism.
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Chapter 18: B: Applied Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since only a limited number of potential jurors can be excused,many attorneys ask psychologists to use social science principles to identify people who will favor or harm their efforts in court.This is known as
A) mock jury arbitration.
B) scientific jury selection.
C) forensic jury analysis.
D) jury mediation.
Q2) According to sports psychologists,which of the following has NOT been found to be beneficial when working with children in sports?
A) emphasizing competition
B) minimizing "one-winner mentality"
C) emphasizing fair play and self-control of emotions
D) emphasizing intrinsic rewards
Q3) According to architectural psychology studies,students in long-corridor design dormitories tend to feel
A) more sociable.
B) ambivalent.
C) energized.
D) stressed.
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Page 63
Chapter 18: C: Applied Psychology
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Q1) In the past,construction workers who installed steel rods in the floors of large buildings had been spending most of their work days awkwardly bent over.To avoid injuries and to minimize fatigue,machines were designed that allowed workers to do the job while standing upright.Through testing,it was found that the construction workers were able to use the newer machines faster,and they spent less time in backbreaking positions.Thus,more effective and healthier construction approaches were devised through
A) pragmatic testing.
B) operational acquisition.
C) humanistic assessments.
D) usability testing.
Q2) Many of the mental strategies,such as imagery and relaxation,used by sports psychologists are an extension of __________ techniques.
A) Gestalt
B) psychodynamic
C) existential
D) stress inoculation
Q3) A jury composed of people who favor the death penalty or at least are indifferent to it are referred to as a(n)__________ jury.
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Chapter 19: Appendix A: Behavioral Statistics
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Q1) Which of the following consists of techniques for presenting numbers pictorially,often by plotting them on a histogram or frequency polygon?
A) graphical statistics
B) inferential statistics
C) figural statistics
D) nominal statistics
Q2) Inferential statistics are used for
A) generalization from small samples.
B) drawing conclusions.
C) decision making based on limited data.
D) all of these.
Q3) Research has shown that such characteristics such as height,memory span,and intelligence are
A) positively correlated.
B) negatively correlated.
C) distributed along a normal curve.
D) none of these.
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Chapter 20: Appendix B: Behavioral Statistics
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Q1) Regarding the use of PsycINFO,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) All entries in PsycINFO are indexed using key terms.
B) Each record in PsycINFO consists of an abstract and notes about the author.
C) This database provides summaries of the scientific and scholarly literature in psychology.
D) This database can create personalized study plans for students by linking them to specific learning objectives for psychology.
Q2) As Guermo reads his psychology textbook,he relates new facts,terms,and concepts to his own experiences and to information he already knows well,a form of self-reflection called __________.
Q3) If you accept the challenge of reflecting on what you read,the words in your textbook will be considered "live words," which means
A) coming from secular topics.
B) becoming spiritual topics.
C) about a subject.
D) coming from personal experience.
Q4) Describe six recommendations for improving one's general test-taking skills.
Q5) A bar graph of a frequency distribution is known as a(n)__________.
Q6) Given these scores 22,44,33,55,33,22,44,22,55,22,the mode is __________.
Page 66
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