Survey of Psychology Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Survey of Psychology provides an introduction to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. This course explores key concepts, theories, and research findings across major areas of psychology, including biological bases of behavior, learning, memory, sensation and perception, development, motivation, emotion, personality, psychological disorders, and social behavior. Students will gain an understanding of the methods psychologists use to study the mind and behavior, while examining both historical perspectives and current issues within the field. The course emphasizes critical thinking about psychological phenomena and the application of psychological principles to everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology in Modules 12th Edition by
David G. Myers
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The History and Scope of Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of debates regarding the origins of knowledge,Aristotle is to ________ as Plato is to ________.
A) mind;body
B) basic research;applied research
C) introspection;naturalistic observation
D) nurture;nature
Answer: D
Q2) Dr.Veenstra conducts basic research on the impact of racial prejudice on behavior.Dr.Veenstra is most likely a(n)________ psychologist.
A) clinical
B) social
C) biological
D) industrial-organizational
Answer: B
Q3) Julie,a physics major,has difficulty believing that psychology is a science because people cannot observe other people's thoughts and sensations.Explain how Edward Titchener and John B.Watson would have responded to Julie's skepticism regarding psychology's scientific status.
Answer: no answer
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Thinking Critically with Psychological Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The conclusion that "playing violent video games leads to violent crime" has been refuted by the American Psychological Association.Why was this statement problematic?
A) It was derived from a survey study.
B) Correlation does not prove causation.
C) The experiment that reached this conclusion cannot be replicated.
D) This finding is not problematic.
Answer: B
Q2) In a survey,psychologists select a random sample of research participants in order to ensure that
A) the participants are representative of the population they are interested in studying.
B) there will be a large number of participants in the research study.
C) the study will not be influenced by the researcher's personal values.
D) the same number of participants will be assigned to each of the experimental conditions.
Answer: A
Q3) Explain how research in psychological science is used to create,test,and verify or disprove various theories.
Answer: no answer
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Chapter 3: Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and
Answer Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following events is the most probable?
A) flipping 6 or more heads in 10 coin flips
B) flipping 60 or more heads in 100 coin flips
C) flipping 600 or more heads in 1000 coin flips
D) All these events are equally probable.
Answer: A
Q2) A statistically significant difference between two sample groups is NOT likely to be
A) a reflection of differences between the populations they represent.
B) due to chance variation within and between the sample groups.
C) observed more than 5 percent of the time the groups are compared.
D) observed when the two groups are very large.
Answer: B
Q3) The average price for different brands of toothpaste could be visually displayed in a(n)
A) normal curve.
B) extrapolation.
C) standard deviation.
D) bar graph.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Neural and Hormonal Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chemical messengers of the endocrine system are called A) neurotransmitters.
B) hormones.
C) agonists.
D) genes.
Q2) Kareem's years of experience navigating the streets of a very large city as a taxi driver have resulted in changes in his brain's spatial memory centers that support his detailed street location memory.This best illustrates the value of A) refractory periods.
B) plasticity.
C) echolocation.
D) reuptake.
Q3) An action potential is generated by the movement of ________ through an axon membrane.
A) glial cells
B) glands
C) neurotransmitters
D) ions
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6
Chapter 5: The Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Those who survive a hippocampal brain tumor in childhood are likely to have difficulty ________ in their adulthood.
A) getting adequate sleep
B) remembering new information
C) maintaining body balance while walking
D) experiencing feelings of fear
Q2) The oldest regions of the brain are those that regulate A) memory.
B) emotion.
C) breathing.
D) foresight.
Q3) The sequence of brain regions from the oldest to newest is
A) limbic system,brainstem,cerebral cortex.
B) brainstem,cerebral cortex,limbic system.
C) limbic system,cerebral cortex,brainstem.
D) brainstem,limbic system,cerebral cortex.
Q4) Compare and contrast the various ways that neuroscientists study the brain.
Q5) Describe specific functions of our older brain structures,which reveal that our brains are responsible for much more than simply our capacity to think.
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Chapter 6: Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Those whose corpus callosum is surgically severed are said to be patients with A) brain plasticity.
B) brain fissures.
C) neurogenesis.
D) split brains.
Q2) The region of your cerebral cortex that enables you to visually recognize your own mother's face is
A) the cerebellum.
B) the somatosensory cortex.
C) the corpus callosum.
D) an association area.
Q3) The corpus callosum is a wide band of axon fibers that
A) enables the left hemisphere to control the right side of the body.
B) transmits information between the cerebral hemispheres.
C) controls the glands and muscles of the internal organs.
D) transfers neural impulses from the somatosensory cortex to the motor cortex.
Q4) Jason and Brandon are studying together for their psychology class.Jason says,"Can you imagine how smart humans would be if they actually used all of their brain? Right now we use only 10 percent of our brain!" Put yourself in Brandon's shoes.How would you respond to Jason?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Environmental Influences on Behavior, and
Reflections on Nature and Nurture
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Sample Questions
Q1) The simultaneous processing of information on many parallel tracks is most closely associated with
A) sequential processing.
B) the cocktail party effect.
C) popout.
D) unconscious mental activity.
Q2) Parallel processing refers to
A) responding to a visual stimulus without consciously experiencing it.
B) processing information in an orderly sequence.
C) linking brain activity with conscious awareness.
D) processing many aspects of a problem simultaneously.
Q3) Stacey is in the library trying to study for her psychology class.While sitting at the table reading her text,her five senses are taking in ________ bits of information per second.
A) 1,000
B) 11,000
C) 101,000
D) 11,000,000
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Chapter 8: Prenatal Development and the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research indicates that total time spent in REM sleep is especially high in A) males.
B) infants.
C) females.
D) the elderly.
Q2) Research studies of the content of dreams indicate that A) men are less likely than women to report dreams with sexual overtones. B) the genital arousal that occurs during sleep is typically related to sexual dreams. C) most dreams are marked by at least one negative event or emotion.
D) most dreams are pleasant,exotic,and unrelated to ordinary daily life.
Q3) Thinking is sharpest and memory is most accurate when people are at their daily peak in A) melatonin secretion.
B) circadian arousal.
C) REM rebound.
D) hypnagogic sensations.
Q4) Sam works a graveyard shift at his current place of employment and always feels tired and sleep deprived.Explain how this work pattern is affecting his circadian rhythm.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Infancy and Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nicotine triggers a(n)________ in blood pressure and a(n)________ in pain sensitivity.
A) increase;decrease
B) increase;increase
C) decrease;decrease
D) decrease;increase
Q2) Doug is a drug addict.The drug he is using gives him lots of energy but drastic mood changes and reduced dopamine levels.Which drug is he most likely using?
A) nicotine
B) alcohol
C) methamphetamine
D) Ecstasy
Q3) Amphetamines are classified as ________ and barbiturates are classified as ________.
A) hallucinogens;depressants
B) stimulants;depressants
C) hallucinogens;stimulants
D) stimulants;hallucinogens
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11
Chapter 10: Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the effect of one factor depends on the presence of another factor,outcomes are said to reflect
A) an epigenetic mark.
B) an interaction.
C) natural selection.
D) adaptive flexibility.
Q2) A behavior geneticist would be most interested in studying hereditary influences on A) skin color.
B) sexual anatomy.
C) physical attractiveness.
D) personality traits.
Q3) The study of how the structure and function of genes interact with the environment to influence behavior is known as A) genome research.
B) molecular genetics.
C) evolutionary psychology.
D) molecular behavior genetics.
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Chapter 11: Adulthood, and Reflections on Developmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several organisms from a strain of bacteria infecting hospital patients inherited a mutation that increased their resistance to the hospital's antibacterial drugs.Over time,the drug-resistant bacteria increasingly outnumbered the bacteria without the mutation.This best illustrates A) domestication.
B) sexual overperception.
C) natural selection.
D) a social script.
Q2) "Some 95 percent of genetic variation exists within populations." This is best demonstrated by the A) high level of genetic diversity across various populations worldwide.
B) minimal genetic variation among those from Asian countries.
C) minimal genetic variation across humans worldwide.
D) high level of genetic diversity among those from Africa.
Q3) Heterosexual women are most likely to be sexually attracted to men who appear to be
A) shy.
B) emotionally reactive and intense.
C) interested in casual,uncommitted sex.
D) mature and affluent.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) People whose gender identity feels mismatched with their birth-designated sex are A) transgender.
B) gay.
C) gender-typed.
D) lesbian.
Q2) During middle and late adulthood,women become progressively ________ self-confident and men become progressively ________ empathic.
A) more;more
B) less;less
C) more;less
D) less;more
Q3) People living in a culture that promotes individualism are more likely to experience ________ than people in collectivist cultures.
A) shyness when meeting strangers
B) respect for the elderly
C) gender typing
D) personal freedom
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) Automatically withdrawing our limbs to escape pain illustrates A) habituation.
B) the influence of teratogens.
C) an epigenetic effect.
D) a reflex response.
Q2) Mark thinks that language development over the life span requires a slow but steady shaping process.His belief is most directly relevant to the issue of A) continuity and stages.
B) nature and nurture.
C) behavior and mental processes.
D) stability and change.
Q3) A reflex refers to
A) decreasing responsiveness to repeated stimulation.
B) an epigenetic effect that is observable at birth.
C) an automatic response to sensory stimulation.
D) the consistency of temperament over time.
Q4) What are the three major issues in developmental psychology? Provide an example of each.
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Chapter 14: Hearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Piaget suggested that cognitive development involved an individual's construction of A) neural networks.
B) schemas.
C) attachments.
D) critical periods.
Q2) Current research on cognitive development indicates that
A) Piaget overestimated the cognitive competence of young children.
B) symbolic thinking develops earlier than Piaget believed.
C) Piaget's theory may apply only to middle-class male children.
D) Piaget overlooked the importance of imprinting on cognitive development.
Q3) Cognition refers to
A) an emotional tie linking one person with another.
B) the mental activities associated with thinking,knowing,remembering,and communicating.
C) any process that facilitates the physical development of the brain.
D) any process of change that accompanies maturation.
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Chapter 15: Other Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Kohlberg,morality based on a desire to uphold the laws of society is characteristic of the ________ stage.
A) preconventional
B) preoperational
C) conventional
D) postconventional
Q2) Who is likely to be the most popular student in the fifth-grade class?
A) Helmut,who is the tallest boy in the class
B) Jeff,who is the statistician for the basketball team
C) Hara,who is below average in height and physical maturity
D) Sally,who is the most sexually mature girl in the class
Q3) Lolita vacillates between acting rebellious toward her parents and high school teachers and behaving with compliance and respect.Erikson would have suggested that Lolita's inconsistency illustrates
A) delay of gratification.
B) role confusion.
C) a pruning process.
D) dual processing.
Q4) Explain the concept of social identity and provide an example.
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Chapter 16: Perceptual Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Johnny is 67 years old and is recently retired.He has three grandchildren.He is in the ________ years.
A) emerging adulthood
B) early adulthood
C) middle adulthood
D) late adulthood
Q2) Lewis is a 70-year-old retired college professor.In contrast to when he was 30,he now probably
A) needs more light when reading.
B) is more susceptible to catching the flu.
C) has significantly fewer neural connections.
D) has all of these problems.
Q3) The differences among adults' abilities to learn and remember are greatest among those in their
A) forties.
B) fifties.
C) sixties.
D) seventies.
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Chapter 17: Perceptual Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although Sue Yen sees her chemistry professor several times a week,she didn't recognize the professor when she saw her in the grocery store.This best illustrates the importance of
A) bottom-up processing.
B) context effects.
C) priming.
D) sensory adaptation.
Q2) Visual perceptions of objects often change when the objects are viewed in different surroundings.This best illustrates A) prosopagnosia.
B) Weber's law.
C) context effects.
D) subliminal stimulation.
Q3) Lonely,anxious people at speed-dating events respond with a ________ threshold,and thus tend to be ________ in reaching out to potential dates.
A) low;unselective
B) high;unselective
C) low;overly selective
D) high;overly selective
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Waking and Sleeping Rhythms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The iris constricts in response to visible ________ light waves.
A) low frequency
B) low amplitude
C) high frequency
D) high amplitude
Q2) Damage to the fovea would have the GREATEST effect on
A) night vision.
B) peripheral vision.
C) detecting fine detail.
D) sensory adaptation.
Q3) When most people stare at a red square and then shift their eyes to a white surface,the afterimage of the square is
A) yellow.
B) red.
C) green.
D) blue.
Q4) Explain how research on size constancy,restored vision,and perceptual adaptation serves to support and/or refute John Locke's emphasis on the importance of learning in perception.
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Chapter 19: Hypnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which theory suggests that large-fiber activity in the spinal cord can prevent pain signals from reaching the brain?
A) place theory
B) dissociation theory
C) gate-control theory
D) frequency theory
Q2) Describe the physical properties of sound waves associated with hearing the loud rumble of thunder.Describe how these sound waves are converted into fluid waves that trigger nerve impulses,which our brain interprets as thunder.
Q3) Mr.Wilkes has difficulty hearing sounds in the range of 20 to 40 decibels,but he has no difficulty hearing sounds above that range.He would most likely profit from today's digital hearing aids because they can deliver sound that is
A) redirected.
B) compressed.
C) rebalanced.
D) compounded.
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Chapter 20: Drugs and Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) A few years ago,while stopped at a red light,Noreen's car was rear ended by a truck.She suffered injuries and was hospitalized after the accident.Since then she has developed a fear of trucks,as well as a fear of red lights.Her fear of red lights illustrates A) discrimination.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) extinction.
D) higher-order conditioning.
Q2) An event that one of Pavlov's dogs could see or hear but did not associate with food was called a(n)
A) secondary conditioner.
B) neutral stimulus.
C) discriminative response.
D) unconditioned stimulus.
Q3) When a CS is not paired with a US,the subsequent fading of a CR is called A) discrimination.
B) generalization.
C) secondary conditioning.
D) extinction.
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22
Chapter 21: Classical Conditioning
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Q1) Janet has almost finished painting a neighbor's house,at which time she'll be paid $2000.The fact that she is increasingly unlikely to quit painting as she nears completion of the job best illustrates that operant behavior is strongly influenced by ________ reinforcers.
A) primary
B) negative
C) immediate
D) partial
Q2) Some teachers have reduced the disruptive classroom behavior of students by imposing a time-out following disruptive behavior.In this case,the time-out is a A) conditioned reinforcer.
B) negative reinforcer.
C) primary reinforcer.
D) punishment.
Q3) Withdrawing a desirable stimulus following an operant response is A) negative punishment.
B) negative reinforcement.
C) positive punishment.
D) positive reinforcement.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Operant Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) It's easier to train a pigeon to peck a disk for a food reward than to flap its wings for a food reward.This illustrates the importance of ________ in learning.
A) extrinsic motivation
B) modeling
C) cognitive maps
D) biological predispositions
Q2) Most of the TV shows that 9-year-old Fred watches involve violence.This is most likely to lead Fred to
A) react with a sense of distress at the sight of two children fighting on the school playground.
B) perceive the injuries of victims of violence as less severe.
C) be more inhibited about personally starting a fight on the school playground.
D) overestimate the pain and injury experienced by victims of violent crime.
Q3) Our ability to learn by witnessing the behavior of others best illustrates A) classical conditioning.
B) prosocial behavior.
C) operant conditioning.
D) observational learning.
Q4) Explain how cognitive processes affect operant and classical conditioning.
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Chapter 23: Learning by Observation
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Sample Questions
Q1) To study the impact of practice on memory retention,Hermann Ebbinghaus practiced learning
A) poems.
B) names.
C) short sentences.
D) nonsense syllables.
Q2) Rephrasing text material in your own words is an effective way to promote A) implicit memory.
B) the testing effect.
C) iconic memory.
D) deep processing.
Q3) Annika has difficulty forming long-term memories of classroom lessons because she can't focus her attention long enough to mentally grasp what is being taught.Annika most clearly demonstrates difficulty with A) echoic memory.
B) iconic memory.
C) encoding.
D) retrieval.
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25
Chapter 24: Introduction to Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) A flashbulb memory would typically be a(n)
A) procedural memory.
B) very recent memory.
C) implicit memory.
D) long-term memory.
Q2) A subregion within the ________ is likely to be especially active when people and mice are learning social information.
A) cerebellum
B) basal ganglia
C) hippocampus
D) amygdala
Q3) The recall of sad experiences is often primed by feelings of sadness.This most clearly illustrates
A) the serial position effect.
B) flashbulb memories.
C) implicit memory.
D) mood-congruent memory.
Q4) Detail how emotions impact memory.Provide some real-life examples.
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Chapter 25: Encoding: Getting Information In
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Q1) Having read a story once,certain amnesia victims will read it faster the second time even though they can't recall having seen the story before.They have most likely suffered damage to the A) hippocampus.
B) cerebellum.
C) basal ganglia.
D) amygdala.
Q2) Research reports of repression and recovered memories indicate that A) people rarely recall memories of long-forgotten events.
B) most extremely traumatic life experiences are never encoded in long-term memory. C) only those memories recovered with the help of a professional psychotherapist are likely to be reliable.
D) extremely stressful life experiences are especially likely to be well remembered.
Q3) Repression most clearly involves a failure in A) encoding.
B) retrieval.
C) storage.
D) implicit memory.
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Chapter 26: Storage: Retaining Information
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Q1) Weather forecasters typically avoid overconfidence when making weather predictions because they
A) work with computer-generated algorithms.
B) rely on prototypes for making category judgments.
C) use heuristics to avoid premature conclusions.
D) promptly receive clear feedback on their accuracy.
Q2) After spending two hours trying to solve an engineering problem,Amira finally gave up.As she was trying to fall asleep that night,a solution to the problem popped into her head.Amira's experience best illustrates
A) belief perseverance.
B) the availability heuristic.
C) insight.
D) a mental set.
Q3) The use of heuristics rather than algorithms is most likely to A) save time in solving problems.
B) yield more accurate solutions to problems.
C) minimize the overconfidence phenomenon.
D) involve greater reliance on convergent thinking.
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Chapter 27: Retrieval: Getting Information Out
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Sample Questions
Q1) Morphemes are
A) the smallest speech units that carry meaning.
B) rules for deriving meaning from sounds.
C) the smallest distinctive sound units of a language.
D) rules for combining words into grammatically correct sentences.
Q2) Which of the following best illustrates productive language?
A) word comprehension
B) telegraphic speech
C) linguistic determinism
D) babbling
Q3) People's procedural memory of how to open the front door of their house is most likely to consist of
A) a neural network.
B) a mental image.
C) telegraphic speech.
D) universal grammar.
Q4) Discuss evidence demonstrating the importance of critical periods for learning language.Explain what these critical periods suggest regarding the biological and environmental influences on language development.
Q5) Compare and contrast the language abilities of humans and nonhuman animals.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Applying
Memory Principles to Your Own Education
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Q1) Gardner's argument for multiple intelligences receives support from the A) existence of creative intelligence.
B) 28-year rule.
C) characteristics of savant syndrome.
D) existence of a g factor.
Q2) Rebecca makes straight As in all her classes but is not good at drawing,painting,writing,or singing.Sternberg would say that Rebecca is high in
A) practical intelligence but low in analytical intelligence.
B) analytical intelligence but low in creative intelligence.
C) creative intelligence but low in practical intelligence.
D) practical intelligence and high in analytical intelligence.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of intelligence,according to Charles Spearman?
A) Intelligence comprises multiple abilities that come in different packages.
B) Those who score high in one area of intelligence typically score higher than average in other areas.
C) Every act of intelligence is backed by a different factor of intelligence.
D) General intelligence was a form of intelligence that helped people solve novel problems,not everyday problems.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intelligence test is best described as a method designed to assess
A) academic achievement.
B) mental aptitudes.
C) inherited skills.
D) chromosomal abnormalities.
Q2) Raul has taken the GRE three times and his scores varied by only 10 points each time.Raul's test scores reflect the GRE's
A) standardization.
B) predictive validity.
C) reliability.
D) content validity.
Q3) Academic aptitude test scores are MOST likely to predict accurately the academic success of ________ students.
A) elementary school
B) high school
C) college
D) graduate school
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Chapter 30: Language and Thought
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Sample Questions
Q1) Comparing the intelligence test scores among people from distinctly different age cohorts requires
A) crystallized intelligence.
B) cross-sectional studies.
C) correlational studies.
D) longitudinal studies.
Q2) Children who are more intelligent live longer lives than their less intelligent peers.Ian
Deary has suggested as one possible reason the fact that a high level of intelligence
A) promotes a socially independent lifestyle.
B) inhibits early childhood infectious diseases.
C) reduces the amount of time spent working.
D) facilitates a healthy lifestyle.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a normal demand of independent living?
A) conceptual skills
B) social skills
C) verbal skills
D) practical skills
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32
Chapter 31: Introduction to Intelligence
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97 Verified Questions
97 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) J.McVicker Hunt began a training program for the caregivers in an Iranian orphanage.This program trained caregivers to
A) ignore babies' crying.
B) imitate babies' babbling.
C) calculate babies' intelligence quotients.
D) do all of these things.
Q2) Brain scans reveal that identical twins' brains have ________ gray matter volume and ________ white matter volume.
A) similar;dissimilar
B) dissimilar;similar
C) similar;similar
D) dissimilar;dissimilar
Q3) Psychologists would be likely to agree that
A) intelligence tests have greater predictive validity for men than for women.
B) intelligence tests have comparable predictive validity for Whites and Blacks.
C) intelligence tests have less predictive validity for poor students than for rich students.
D) all of these statements are true.
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33
Chapter 32: Assessing Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a hungry person,the consumption of food serves to
A) create an incentive.
B) create an instinctual drive.
C) maintain homeostasis.
D) eliminate homeostasis.
Q2) Which of the following refers to a physiological state that usually triggers a state of motivational arousal?
A) need
B) homeostasis
C) drive
D) incentive
Q3) A thick,juicy hamburger is to hunger as ________ is to ________.
A) need;drive
B) incentive;drive
C) homeostasis;thirst
D) incentive;instinct
Q4) Robert was caught robbing a liquor store.Describe what incentives would drive Robert's bank-robbing behavior.How might this behavior be explained by arousal theory? Also,contrast the differences between incentives and arousal theory in this situation.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Genetic and Environmental Influences on Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prisoners of war placed on a semistarvation diet in which their food intake is cut in half are likely to
A) lose half their original body weight.
B) show an increased interest in sex and politics.
C) spend a great deal of time daydreaming about food.
D) do all of these things.
Q2) ________ is the main source of energy in your body.
A) Glucose
B) Leptin
C) Insulin
D) Ghrelin
Q3) Feelings of hunger are ________ by high levels of PYY and ________ by high levels of leptin.
A) increased;decreased
B) decreased;increased
C) increased;increased
D) decreased;decreased
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Introduction to Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypothalamus activates in an area governing sexual arousal when ________ are given a whiff of scent derived from men's sweat.
A) lesbian women and gay men
B) lesbian women and straight men
C) straight women and straight men
D) straight women and gay men
Q2) People often refer to homosexuals as persons rather than referring to homosexual behavior as something persons do.In fact,those who experience homosexual desires or engage in homosexual practices are often assumed to be gay or lesbian in the same sense that they are male or female.Describe the potential advantages and disadvantages of this assumption,and critically evaluate how it might influence research on the origins of differing sexual orientations.
Q3) During which phase of the sexual response cycle does the refractory period begin?
A) the plateau phase
B) the resolution phase
C) the excitement phase
D) orgasm
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36
Chapter 35: Hunger
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Sample Questions
Q1) Our need to belong is most clearly threatened by A) chain migration.
B) self-esteem.
C) ostracism.
D) autonomy.
Q2) When settling refugees in the United States,government officials have learned that placing them in an area populated by those of the same ethnic group reduces loneliness and depression.This technique is known as A) chain migration.
B) self-disclosure.
C) self-transcendence.
D) ostracism.
Q3) Juan and his family were recently resettled in the United States from Honduras.The resettlement agency placed Juan and his family in an area where other Honduran families were settled.This resettlement procedure is called A) ostracism.
B) self-disclosure.
C) self-actualization.
D) chain migration.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Sexual Motivation and the Need to Belong
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike the low-road brain pathway,the high road for emotional responses extends through the A) thalamus.
B) cortex.
C) hypothalamus.
D) cerebellum.
Q2) While entering her darkened apartment Juanita feels someone tap her shoulder from behind (her roommate).Juanita's sympathetic nervous system triggers her adrenal glands to release the stress hormones epinephrine (adrenaline)and norepinephrine (noradrenaline),which stimulates behavior.This has prepared her A) for the spillover effect.
B) to fight or flee.
C) for appraisal.
D) for reappraisal.
Q3) The two-factor theory of emotion was proposed by A) Walter Cannon and Philip Bard.
B) Robert Zajonc and Richard Lazarus.
C) William James and Carl Lange.
D) Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer.
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Chapter 37: Motivation at Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) It has been suggested that baring the teeth is universally associated with the expression of anger because this ability to convey threats has helped humans to survive.This suggestion best illustrates A) the evolutionary perspective.
B) the facial feedback effect.
C) Ekman's theory of facial expressions.
D) how gestures depict emotions worldwide.
Q2) The facial feedback effect suggests that A) culture plays no role in the subjective experience of emotion.
B) facial expressions of a specific emotion have no effect on the subjective experience of that particular emotion.
C) expressing a specific emotion,especially facially,influences the subjective experience of that particular emotion.
D) emotions are determined by one's behavioral response.
Q3) Describe the female advantage regarding nonverbal communication.
Q4) Compare and contrast the facial feedback effect and the behavior feedback effect.Provide an example of each.
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Chapter 38: Introduction to Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The frequency of positive and negative emotion words used by U.S.Facebook users indicates that their most positive moods were expressed on A) Thursdays.
B) Fridays.
C) Saturdays.
D) Sundays.
Q2) Research on the well-being of the average U.S.citizen indicates that the A) vast majority of Americans currently declare themselves to be very happy.
B) personal happiness of Americans has been increasing during the last half-century.
C) buying power of Americans has been decreasing during the last half-century.
D) increase in the buying power of Americans during the last half-century has provided no apparent boost to their personal happiness.
Q3) The study of positive emotions,desirable character traits,and enabling institutions is central to the subfield known as A) cognitive psychology.
B) behaviorism.
C) positive psychology.
D) humanistic psychology.
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Chapter 39: Experienced Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stress is most likely to speed the progression from HIV to AIDS by
A) stimulating the release of endorphins.
B) accelerating the production of NK cells.
C) inhibiting the release of lymphocytes.
D) slowing the shortening of telomeres.
Q2) Although stress does not create cancer cells,it may affect their growth by suppressing the activity of A) telomeres.
B) B lymphocytes.
C) the adrenal glands.
D) T lymphocytes.
Q3) Avoiding stress is LEAST likely to inhibit the progression of ________ in humans.
A) bacterial infections
B) viral infections
C) coronary heart disease
D) advanced cancer
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Chapter 40: Expressed Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prisoners allowed to move their furniture and adjust their lighting feel less stress.This best illustrates the value of
A) mindfulness.
B) aerobic exercise.
C) perceived control.
D) an external locus of control.
Q2) Learned helplessness is most likely to promote
A) problem-focused coping.
B) an internal locus of control.
C) meditation.
D) pessimism.
Q3) Practicing ________ has been observed to reduce temporarily the mental energy needed for other tasks.
A) stress appraisal
B) optimism
C) self-control
D) mindfulness meditation
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Chapter 41: Stress and Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the years immediately following the introduction of school desegregation in the United States and the passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964,White Americans expressed diminishing racial prejudice.According to the text author,this best illustrated the impact of
A) role playing.
B) actions on attitudes.
C) the fundamental attribution error.
D) attributions.
Q2) Bart complied with his friends' request to join them in smashing decorative pumpkins early one Halloween evening.Later that night he was surprised by his own failure to resist their pressures to throw eggs at passing police cars.Bart's experience best illustrates
A) cognitive dissonance.
B) the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
C) the fundamental attribution error.
D) central route persuasion.
Q3) Steven is driving on the interstate when suddenly a car cuts him off.Steven had to slam on his brakes to avoid hitting the car.Based on the fundamental attribution error,how might Steven interpret the situation?
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Coping With Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) After an exciting football game in which the home team loses by one point,angry fans throw bottles and begin to tear up the field.This behavior is best understood in terms of A) groupthink.
B) deindividuation.
C) cognitive dissonance.
D) social facilitation.
Q2) Conformity resulting from the acceptance of others' opinions about reality is said to be a response to A) group polarization.
B) social facilitation.
C) informational social influence.
D) normative social influence.
Q3) Alexandra is well liked by her friends,most likely because she mimics their gestures and seems to match their moods.Researchers would suggest that this social contagion is a component of A) empathy.
B) subjectivity.
C) authenticity. D) prejudice.
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Chapter 43: Modifying Illness-Related Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an Implicit Association Test,________ White respondents took longer to identify pleasant words when presented with Black-sounding names rather than with White-sounding names.
A) none of the B) some of the C) many of the
D) almost all
Q2) The difference between prejudice and discrimination is most similar to the difference between
A) ingroup bias and the just-world phenomenon.
B) outgroup homogeneity and ingroup bias.
C) blaming the victim and hindsight bias.
D) attitude and behavior.
Q3) White children are better at recognizing White faces than Black faces.This illustrates A) stereotyping.
B) ingroup bias.
C) social scripts.
D) the other-race effect.
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Chapter 44: Psychoanalytic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) GRIT attempts to reduce conflict through A) third-party mediation.
B) intimidation.
C) conciliation.
D) pacifism.
Q2) A sincere word of apology often helps to reduce the tension between two conflicting parties.This best illustrates the value of A) the mere exposure effect.
B) altruism.
C) the bystander effect.
D) conciliation.
Q3) As compared with Western cultures,non-Western cultures have
A) lower divorce rates and consider passionate love as more important for marriage.
B) higher divorce rates and consider passionate love as less important for marriage.
C) lower divorce rates and consider passionate love as less important for marriage.
D) higher divorce rates and consider passionate love as more important for marriage.
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Chapter 45: Humanistic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following techniques was Freud most likely to use in an attempt to discover the hidden conflicts underlying his patients' symptoms?
A) questionnaires
B) free association
C) projective testing
D) fixation
Q2) In Freud's theory,erogenous zones are areas of the body where the
A) ego focuses its pleasure-seeking energies.
B) superego focuses its pleasure-seeking energies.
C) id focuses its pleasure-seeking energies.
D) personality focuses its pleasure-seeking energies.
Q3) Shortly after receiving a traffic ticket for speeding,Fred made numerous hostile comments to his wife about the incompetence of women drivers.Fred's comments illustrate most clearly the defense mechanism of A) reaction formation.
B) rationalization.
C) identification.
D) displacement.
Q4) Outline Freud's proposed stages of psychosexual development.
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Chapter 46: Contemporary Research on Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Lee conducted a study measuring conscientiousness in college students.Her results revealed only a modest relationship between a student being conscientious on one occasion and being similarly conscientious on another occasion.This should make psychologists more cautious about overestimating the impact of ________ on behavior.
A) extraversion
B) personality traits
C) self-esteem
D) environment
Q2) Evidence of the impact of biology on personality traits includes the fact that A) extraverts seek stimulation because their normal brain arousal is relatively low. B) extraverts seek stimulation because their normal brain arousal is relatively high.
C) introverts seek stimulation because their normal brain arousal is relatively low. D) introverts seek stimulation because their normal brain arousal is relatively high.
Q3) Generally,how did humanistic theorists view personality? Provide a comparison of the two pioneering humanistic theorists.
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Chapter 47: Introduction to Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A criticism of social-cognitive theories has been that they
A) overestimate the importance of unconscious factors in personality.
B) fail to acknowledge the pervasive nature of self-serving bias.
C) underestimate the importance of enduring personality traits.
D) overlook the results of contemporary research on learning processes.
Q2) People with high self-esteem are LESS likely than those with low self-esteem to A) be persistent at difficult tasks.
B) overestimate the accuracy of their beliefs.
C) manifest self-serving bias.
D) give in to conformity pressures.
Q3) Research on self-perception indicates that most people
A) feel more personally responsible for their failures than for their successes.
B) view themselves very favorably in comparison to most others.
C) underestimate the accuracy of their beliefs and judgments.
D) are unrealistically pessimistic about their personal future.
Q4) Self-confidence that is easily punctured by criticism is most indicative of A) unconditional positive regard.
B) the spotlight effect.
C) defensive self-esteem.
D) free association.
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following people is LEAST likely to commit a violent crime?
A) Jessica,who has a history of violence
B) Brandon,who is angry and has access to a loaded gun
C) Sam,who has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder
D) John,who is intoxicated.
Q2) The ________ established the RDoC as an approach to the classification of psychological disorders that will complement the DSM-5.
A) U.S.National Institute of Mental Health
B) American Psychiatric Association
C) American Psychological Association
D) medical model
Q3) Both the inseparability of mind and body and the interaction of nature and nurture are most clearly emphasized by
A) the DSM-5.
B) the medical model.
C) the learning perspective.
D) the biopsychosocial approach.
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Chapter 49: Dissociative and Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phobic behaviors such as avoiding insects or snakes may increase in frequency because they reduce anxiety.This best illustrates the impact of
A) observation.
B) panic.
C) reinforcement.
D) survivor resiliency.
Q2) Whether a creaky sound in an old house triggers a panic attack depends on whether we interpret the sound as the wind or as a possible knife-wielding intruder.This best illustrates the importance of ________ in the occurrence of a panic attack.
A) stimulus generalization
B) cognitive processes
C) natural selection
D) operant conditioning
Q3) Compulsions are best described as
A) persistent fears.
B) repetitive behaviors.
C) traumatic thoughts.
D) false beliefs.
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Chapter 50: Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Between 1994 and 2003,there was a 40-fold increase in the number of people under age 20 diagnosed each year with
A) persistent depressive disorder.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) seasonal pattern depression.
D) major depressive disorder.
Q2) Daniel has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder.Describe the symptoms he most likely experienced prior to treatment.
Q3) Inanna suffers from chronic depression.According to the social-cognitive perspective,how is she most likely to respond when told that she performed very poorly on a test she took the previous day?
A) "I'm academically incompetent and always will be."
B) "Yesterday was just my unlucky day."
C) "I suspect that none of the students in my class did well on that test."
D) "Hardly any of the professors are effective teachers."
Q4) A guest on a TV talk show claims that "major depressive disorder is not a psychological problem;it's a disease that can be medically treated." Evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of this claim.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Schizophrenia
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the hallmarks of schizophrenia is disorganized speech and behavior.Theorists suggest that people with such disorganized speech and behavior have
A) negative symptoms.
B) a breakdown in selective attention.
C) low levels of dopamine.
D) increased working-memory capacity.
Q2) Seeing one-eyed monsters would be a(n)________.Believing that you are Christopher Columbus would be a ________.
A) delusion;compulsion
B) obsession;delusion
C) obsession;compulsion
D) hallucination;delusion
Q3) Many researchers believe that several of the symptoms of schizophrenia result from an overabundance of receptors for the neurotransmitter
A) serotonin.
B) glutamate.
C) dopamine.
D) GABA.
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Chapter 52: The Psychological Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Taylor has no memory of the abuse she experienced as a child.During a session with her clinical psychologist,she suddenly began talking in a deeper voice,claiming to be Adam,a male personality,who remembered all of the abuse.Taylor is demonstrating the symptoms of
A) anorexia nervosa.
B) dissociative identity disorder.
C) bulimia nervosa.
D) narcissistic personality disorder.
Q2) Several weeks after being fired from a job he had held for more than 20 years,Landon awoke one morning in a state of bewildered confusion.He had little sense of who he was and even failed to recognize his wife.Landon's experience is most indicative of
A) a dissociative disorder.
B) borderline personality disorder.
C) schizotypal personality disorder.
D) bulimia nervosa.
Q3) Describe the characteristics of dissociative identity disorder,and discuss the factors that have been implicated in its development.Why are many mental health professionals skeptical about the validity of this disorder?
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Evaluating Psychotherapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joseph Wolpe is best known for promoting the development of A) cognitive therapies.
B) exposure therapies.
C) aversive conditioning.
D) psychodynamic therapy.
Q2) A therapist may encourage a client to change from thinking "I totally failed my exercise training program" to "I fell short of some training goals but I can make some specific changes in my schedule to succeed next time." This technique is used in A) psychoanalysis.
B) cognitive therapy.
C) client-centered therapy.
D) a token economy.
Q3) Which therapeutic approach relies most heavily on patients' discovering their own ways of effectively dealing with their difficulties?
A) psychoanalysis
B) cognitive therapy
C) systematic desensitization
D) client-centered therapy
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Chapter 54: The Biomedical Therapies
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Q1) Jajuan has a mild case of depression initiated by a break-up with his girlfriend.Which therapy has proven to be effective in treating his condition?
A) client-centered therapy
B) behavior therapy
C) recovered memory therapies
D) energy therapies
Q2) The healing power resulting from a client's expectation that a psychotherapeutic treatment will be effective best illustrates
A) the therapeutic alliance.
B) the comorbidity of disorders.
C) meta-analysis.
D) the placebo effect.
Q3) When a client ends therapy with Dr.Sachsen,he assumes it is because their problems have been resolved.Making the association between the ending of therapy and problem resolution,Dr.Sachsen may be
A) assuming a confirmation bias.
B) making an illusory correlation.
C) establishing resilience.
D) creating transference.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Social Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Xanax and Ativan are ________ drugs.
A) antidepressant
B) antipsychotic
C) mood-stabilizing
D) antianxiety
Q2) Engaging in which of the following increases fitness and vitality and stimulates endorphins and can even rival the effectiveness of antidepressant drugs?
A) sleeping 7 to 8 hours each night
B) sleeping 9 to 10 hours each night
C) aerobic exercise for 30 minutes a day,at least three times a week.
D) aerobic exercise for 60 minutes a day,seven days a week
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a lifestyle change that could have a positive effect on mental health?
A) exercise
B) nutrition
C) recreation
D) personal control
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Chapter 56: Appendix
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Q1) Effectively designing physical environments-such as the layout of a kitchen in a way that maximizes safe and efficient meal preparation-is of special interest to
A) personnel psychologists.
B) organizational psychologists.
C) clinical psychologists.
D) human factors psychologists.
Q2) After studying how the different values of collectivist and individualist societies impact leadership,you have concluded that
A) organizations in collectivistic societies tend to have better leadership success.
B) organizations in individualistic societies tend to have better leadership success.
C) there are no universally effective leadership strategies.
D) culture shapes leadership as well as what makes leadership successful.
Q3) Research has shown that social leadership facilitates A) worker morale.
B) 360-degree feedback.
C) a directive management style.
D) strength-based selection systems.
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