Survey of Psychology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Survey of Psychology provides a comprehensive introduction to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. This course explores key concepts, theories, and research findings across the major areas of psychology, including biological foundations, learning, memory, development, personality, psychological disorders, and social behavior. Students will gain an understanding of the methods psychologists use to investigate questions, the application of psychological principles to everyday life, and the ethical considerations in research. The course encourages critical thinking about human behavior and promotes an appreciation for the diversity of human experience.
Recommended Textbook
Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by Sandra E. Hockenbury
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Section 1: Introduction and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do clinical psychologists differ from psychiatrists, and how are they similar? Answer: The answer should include the following information: Many people think that psychologists and psychiatrists are the same profession and undergo the same training. However, this assumption is not correct. Psychologists who specialize in clinical psychology are trained in the diagnosis, treatment, causes, and prevention of psychological disorders, leading to a doctorate in clinical psychology-a Ph.D. On the other hand, psychiatry is a medical degree either an M.D. or D.O., followed by several years of specialized training in the treatment of mental disorders. Psychiatrists can hospitalize people, order biomedical therapies, and prescribe medications for individuals. Generally speaking, clinical psychologists cannot order medical treatments or prescribe medications. However, in a few states, laws have been passed that allow clinical psychologists to prescribe medications following specialized training.
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3
Chapter 1: Section 2: Introduction and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Random assignment refers to a procedure that:
A)ensures that all participants have an equal chance of being assigned to any of the experimental conditions or groups.
B)helps psychologists determine which factors should be defined as dependent variables.
C)is used in statistics to determine whether results are random or simply due to chance.
D)randomly assigns different procedures to different researchers in order to minimize experimenter bias.
Answer: A
Q2) The experimental group is the group of:
A)participants exposed to the dependent variable.
B)participants exposed to the independent variable.
C)psychologists who are collaborating on an experiment.
D)variables that require operational definitions.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 1: Section 3: Introduction and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) The word pseudo means "rare" or "unusual."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) John B. Watson believed that conscious processes were worthy of study for psychology and promoted the use of introspection as a technique for studying such processes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Many cultures are neither completely individualistic nor completely collectivistic, but fall somewhere between the two extremes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A sample is always representative of the population from which it is taken.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 1: Section 4: Introduction and Research Methods
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Q1) Professor Karney administered a psychological test measuring shyness to a large number of undergraduate students. The students also completed a lengthy questionnaire on their social life and activities, including number of friends. Professor Karney conducted a statistical analysis of the responses and found a correlation coefficient of -.80 between level of shyness and number of friends. This indicates that:
A)as number of friends increases, level of shyness increases.
B)as number of friends decreases, level of shyness increases.
C)there is no relationship between level of shyness and number of friends.
D)a cause-and-effect relationship exists between shyness and number of friends.
Q2) Professor Wallace studied over 3,000 elderly individuals for a decade and found a statistically significant relationship between survival rate and number of close friends. Specifically, he found that elderly individuals with few close friends had a much higher death rate. To say that the results of his study are "statistically significant" means that:
A)the finding has great practical value and significance.
B)there is a cause-and-effect relationship between the two variables.
C)the finding does not have to be replicated to be accepted by the scientific community.
D)the results are unlikely to have occurred by chance.
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Chapter 1: Section 5: Introduction and Research Methods
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Q1) According to the Science Versus Pseudoscience box, which of the following items is NOT one of the strategies used by proponents of pseudoscience to give credibility to their claims?
A)shifting the burden of proof
B)use of irrefutable or nonfalsifiable claims
C)combining unfounded claims with established scientific findings
D)use of the scientific method and replication of their findings by other scientists
Q2) A hypothesis is a(n):
A)clearly defined independent variable.
B)theory that is supported by research evidence.
C)tentative statement that describes the relationship between two or more variables.
D)operational definition assigned to the independent variable.
Q3) _____ dominated American psychology for the first half of the twentieth century.
A)Behaviorism
B)Psychoanalysis
C)Humanism
D)Structuralism
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Chapter 2: Section 1: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Q1) Describe the sequence of events that occurs when one neuron communicates with another neuron.
Q2) Byron is left handed. His parents have told Byron that his handedness means he is right- hemisphere-dominant. Are Byron's parents correct?
Q3) What is the hypothalamus? What roles does it play?
Q4) What is biological psychology and why is this area of study important?
Q5) Briefly describe the functions of the different subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system.
Q6) What is meant by the phrase lateralization of function?
Q7) What are spinal reflexes? Are they important?
Q8) What does it mean to say that a neuron is polarized?
Q9) Define and give an example of an agonist drug.
Q10) What are the key structures of the midbrain and what roles do they play?
Q11) Explain the difference between structural plasticity and functional plasticity. Give an example of each.
Q13) Compare and contrast the effects of agonist and antagonist drugs. Page 8
Q12) Distinguish between cortical localization and lateralization of function and give an example of each.
Q14) Select two neurotransmitters and describe their influence on behavior.
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is chemically similar to the endorphins?
A)curare
B)morphine
C)L-dopa
D)botox
Q2) Psychologist Roger Sperry is best known for his:
A)discovery of neurogenesis in the brains of rats.
B)case studies of stroke patients with language difficulties.
C)studies of rats that were raised in "impoverished" versus "enriched" environments.
D)studies of split-brain patients.
Q3) All motor neurons have:
A)acetylcholine.
B)dopamine.
C)serotonin.
D)L-dopa.
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10
Chapter 2: Section 3: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Q1) Glial cells are the most abundant cells in the human brain, provide connections between neurons and blood vessels, and are involved in brain development and the communication of information among neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Endocrine glands communication from one part of the body to another by secreting messenger chemicals called pepsin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An excitatory message communicated to a postsynaptic neuron increases the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will generate an action potential.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The corpus callosum is an important midbrain structure that contains many dopamine-producing neurons.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 2: Section 4: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Q1) Lydia experiences a rush of euphoria after her daily five-mile run. This sensation is known as:
A)neurogenesis.
B)the runner's high.
C)the synaptic rush.
D)the split-brain high.
Q2) _____ is the branch of science that is concerned with the study of the nervous system, especially the brain.
A)Plasticity
B)Neuroscience
C)Clinical psychiatry
D)Developmental psychology
Q3) Messages from other neurons or specialized cells and sensory receptors are typically:
A)collected by the synaptic vesicles.
B)relayed by glial cells to the correct node of Ranvier.
C)received by the dendrites.
D)received by the axon terminals.
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12
Chapter 2: Section 5: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Q1) Broca is to _____ as Wernicke is to _____.
A)expressive aphasia; receptive aphasia
B)the left cerebral hemisphere; the right cerebral hemisphere
C)structural plasticity; functional plasticity
D)receptive aphasia; expressive aphasia
Q2) In general, neural messages are received by the _____ and transmitted by the _____.
A)cell body; dendrites
B)axons; nucleus
C)dendrites; axon
D)axon; dendrites
Q3) According to the box Critical Thinking: "His" and "Her" Brains, research indicates that:
A)brain structures and functions in men and women are essentially the same.
B)men and women are much more different than they are similar.
C)women are less effective at problem solving and decision making.
D)men are much more emotional than previously believed.
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Chapter 3: Section 1: Sensation and Perception
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Q1) What sensory receptors and pathways are associated with painful sensations? How are these sensations produced?
Q2) Distinguish the fast and slow pain pathways in terms of the sequence of nervous system structures to which pain signals are transmitted.
Q3) Provide an example of perceptual set and explain how it influences perceptual experiences.
Q4) Describe the two types of sensory thresholds and give an example of each.
Q5) How do rods and cones differ?
Q6) What properties of a sound wave correspond to our perception of sound?
Q7) What is the basic pathway for information transmission from the eye to the brain?
Q8) Discuss the basic assumptions of Gestalt psychology. Explain their contributions to psychological studies of visual perception.
Q9) Describe the series of events that culminate in visual perception including the structure of the eye and/or brain area involved in each step.
Q10) Describe the electromagnetic spectrum. Distinguish between the visible and invisible portions of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Page 14
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) You dream that you win $20 million in the state lottery. The next morning you find a $20 bill lying on the sidewalk. If you were to conclude that your dreams could predict the future, which logical fallacy would you have committed?
A)the ganzfeld fallacy
B)the fallacy of positive instances
C)the intuitive fallacy
D)the precognitive fallacy
Q2) When Don took his daughter Laura to the doctor for a tetanus shot, he instructed her to look at his face and count backward from 10 as the nurse injected the needle into her arm. Which strategy of pain control was Don using with his daughter?
A)imagery
B)positive self-talk
C)counterirritation
D)distraction
Q3) Psychologists have found that the effects of subliminal stimuli tend to be:
A)weak and short-lived.
B)weak but long-lasting.
C)fairly strong but short-lived.
D)fairly strong and long-lasting.
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Page 15
Chapter 3: Section 3: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research indicates that subliminal messages exert very powerful influences on our subconscious minds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Biofeedback involves the use of equipment that detects subtle bodily changes and helps people gain a greater degree of conscious control over largely automatic body functions, such as blood pressure and muscle tension.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Scientific research has demonstrated that stimuli that are presented subliminally (that is, below the threshold of conscious perception) have no effect on attitudes or behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Damage to the hair cells in the basilar membrane or to the auditory nerve can result in nerve deafness, a form of deafness that cannot be helped by a hearing aid.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 3: Section 4: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) After an injury has healed, it is possible to experience pain signals in or around the injured site. This phenomenon is called:
A)sensitization.
B)adaptation.
C)hallucination.
D)generalization.
Q2) Which perceptual illusions involve size constancy?
A)the moon illusion and the Shepard Tables illusion
B)the Müller-Lyer illusion and the impossible figure illusion
C)the moon illusion and the Müller-Lyer illusion
D)the carpentered-world illusion and the Shepard Tables illusion
Q3) Amy, an accomplished gymnast, has just learned how to do a cartwheel on the balance beam. Which two senses are especially involved in this accomplishment?
A)sense of equilibrium and the vestibular sense
B)proprioception and the kinesthetic sense
C)kinesthetic sense and vestibular sense
D)audition and vision
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Chapter 3: Section 5: Sensation and Perception
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Q1) To reduce the intense pain of her migraine headaches, Lisette's doctor taught her a procedure that involved learning to control the blood flow and muscle tension in her head and neck. What is the technique called?
A)acupuncture
B)counterirritation
C)positive self-talk
D)biofeedback
Q2) Walking into the bakery, you immediately notice the smell of freshly baked bread. What is the name of the process through which physical stimuli, such as odors, are converted into neural signals that are sent to the brain?
A)sensory adaptation
B)the mere exposure effect
C)accommodation
D)transduction
Q3) Without _____, our perception of reality would be in a continual state of flux.
A)perceptual constancy
B)sensation
C)motion cues
D)depth perception
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Chapter 4: Section 1: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Q1) Quinn observed a carjacking a few months ago when he was leaving work. The incident occurred so fast that Quinn only has a vague recollection of what happened. He knows that the suspect was a white male and that the vehicle was a black SUV. Quinn's friend wants him to undergo hypnosis, believing that it will help enhance his memory of the incident. Is Quinn's friend correct? Explain, using research from the textbook in your answer.
Q2) Professor Albertson is interested in the most common themes that appear in adults' dreams. List these themes.
Q3) What happens to people who are sleep deprived?
Q4) What are the potential benefits of meditation?
Q5) How do sleep specialists treat obstructive sleep apnea? Give a specific answer.
Q6) Distinguish between sleep thinking and dreams.
Q7) According to research presented in your textbook, is it possible to control your dreams?
Q8) How do patterns of sleep change over the lifespan?
Q9) What is the suprachiasmatic nucleus, and what is its main function?
Q10) Explain how addictive drugs affect the brain, discussing the physical changes that produce drug tolerance, withdrawal, and craving.
Q11) How is sleep involved in the formation of memories? Page 19
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Page 20
Chapter 4: Section 2: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Although they can seem like they last a long time, dreams actually happen in just a few seconds.
B)Dreams can occasionally occur during NREM sleep.
C)Sex or sexual behaviors are the most common elements of dream stories for both males and females.
D)Many people have only one or two dreams per month.
Q2) An unfolding sequence of perceptions, thoughts, and emotions during sleep (usually REM), that is experienced as a series of real-life events is a description of:
A)sleep mentation.
B)a dream.
C)a hypnagogic hallucination.
D)hypnosis.
Q3) Cocaine is derived from:
A)codeine.
B)the opium poppy.
C)the coca plant.
D)the peyote cactus.
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Chapter 4: Section 3: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Q1) Research has substantiated that yawning is often contagious.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you are experiencing alpha brain waves, you are in the deepest stage of sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For many people with narcolepsy, laughter, surprise, or other forms of emotional arousal can trigger an episode of cataplexy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sleepwalking or somnambulism typically occurs during REM sleep as the person acts out his or her dream.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hypermnesia is one of the most powerful effects of hypnosis, providing a reliable way to enhance the accuracy of dim or faint memories.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 4: Section 4: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Q1) _____ cannot be produced through hypnosis.
A)Temporary blindness or deafness
B)Temporary moments of superhuman strength
C)Relief from pain
D)Loss of sensation in a specific body area, such as an arm or a leg,
Q2) The activation of the _____ area(s) in the brain reflect the emotional qualities of dreams.
A)prefrontal cortex
B)limbic system
C)language
D)left hemisphere
Q3) The Psych for Your Life section provides a number of tips to help minimize sleep problems. Which of the following is NOT one of those recommendations?
A)Use stimulus-control therapy.
B)Engage in regular daytime exercise.
C)Use depressant drugs, such as alcohol or barbiturates, that cause drowsiness.
D)Develop a consistent sleep-wake cycle.
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23
Chapter 4: Section 5: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Q1) During his therapy session, Brent told his psychotherapist that he had a recurring dream in which he was fighting a pilot on an airplane and struggling to take over the controls. In terms of Freud's psychoanalytic view of dreams, the airplane, the pilot, and fighting would all be considered to be the dream's _____ content.
A)latent
B)manifest
C)activated
D)synthesized
Q2) According to the Critical Thinking box, psychologists Irving Kirsch and Wayne Braffman propose that many highly suggestible participants are just as responsive to suggestions when they have not been hypnotized as when they have been hypnotized. They note that hypnosis does not reflect a distinct brain state but rather individual differences in the degree to which a person is able to experience an imaginary state of affairs as if it were real. Their explanation of hypnosis is called the:
A)neodissociation theory.
B)imaginative suggestibility view.
C)activation-synthesis model.
D)social-cognitive theory.
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Chapter 5: Section 1: Learning
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Q1) According to your text, what was Skinner's most radical-and controversial-belief? Explain how the concept of gamification is built upon Skinner's operant conditioning principles.
Q2) Define instinctive drift, and explain its implications for operant conditioning.
Q3) Compare and contrast positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement, and provide an original example of each.
Q4) Explain how Robert Rescorla demonstrated that mental processes are involved in classical conditioning.
Q5) Describe a study that shows indirect evidence of mirror neurons in humans.
Q6) Describe at least three strategies that can be used to change behavior without resorting to punishment.
Q7) What conditions increase the likelihood that a behavior will be imitated?
Q8) Explain what is meant by the "adaptive nature of learning" as it relates to classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and observation/imitation.
Q9) Identify three species of animals that have shown evidence of observational learning. Describe one study that had provided evidence of observational learning in animals.
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Q10) Explain how the idea of biological preparedness can be applied to human phobias.
Chapter 5: Section 2: Learning
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Q1) In applying conditioning principles in the workplace, a large retailer allowed employees to choose their own reinforcers. A casual dress code and flexible work hours proved to be effective in increasing productivity. The employer has used _____ to improve employee performance.
A)classical conditioning
B)behavior modification
C)higher order conditioning
D)the partial reinforcement effect
Q2) Elected president of the American Psychological Association in 1996, _____ launched a new movement called positive psychology, which would emphasize research on human strengths, rather than human problems.
A)B. F. Skinner
B)John Garcia
C)Martin Seligman
D)Robert Rescorla
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Chapter 5: Section 3: Learning
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Q1) Motivation is not a factor in Albert Bandura's model of observational learning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Robert Rescorla views classical conditioning as a process that involves the active processing of information about stimuli.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pavlov classically conditioned a dog to salivate at the sound of a tone. He then repeatedly paired the tone with another stimulus, a bell. Later, when he rang the bell the dog salivated, even though the bell had never been paired with food. This example illustrates higher order conditioning (second-order conditioning).
A)True
B)False
Q4) To enhance the effectiveness of positive reinforcers, you should make sure the reinforcer is reinforcing to the individual whose behavior you want to modify.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Section 4: Learning
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Q1) Daniel's young twins often get into arguments about toys and what to watch on television. To reduce the number of arguments, Daniel started setting time limits during play and TV viewing. If the boys refrained from arguing during the set time, they were immediately rewarded with verbal encouragement and stars for their sticker charts. According to the box In Focus: Changing the Behavior of Others, Daniel is using the strategy of:
A)punishment by removal.
B)time-out from positive reinforcement.
C)reinforcing the non-occurrence of the problem behavior.
D)punishment by application.
Q2) A television commercial for a new camera features a handsome man taking photographs of beautiful women in bikinis on a California beach. This commercial uses _____ conditioning techniques, following an approach to advertising that was pioneered by _____.
A)operant; B. F. Skinner
B)classical; John B. Watson
C)operant; Edward L. Thorndike
D)classical; Ivan Pavlov
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28
Chapter 5: Section 5: Learning
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Q1) According to Bandura, what four cognitive processes are necessary for imitation of observed behavior?
A)attention, reinforcement, motivation, and cognitive maps
B)attention, memory, ability to perform the behavior, and motivation
C)reinforcement, discriminative stimuli, motivation, and ability to perform the behavior
D)reinforcement, discriminative stimuli, cognitive maps, and consequences for the behavior
Q2) Which of the following advertising techniques is based on classical conditioning principles?
A)a $5.00 coupon toward your next purchase of Brand A
B)the maker of Brand A explaining why the product works so well
C)an attractive model using Brand A
D)people shopping for Brand A
Q3) The _____ served as the foundation for what Pavlov eventually referred to as classical conditioning.
A)development of learned helplessness in dogs that were given inescapable shock
B)use of food rewards in training dogs
C)training of rats to navigate a maze
D)role of saliva in digestion
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Page 29
Chapter 6: Section 1: Memory
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Q1) Describe schemas and scripts, and explain how they can potentially contribute to inaccurate memories.
Q2) Identify the role played by at least three brain structures involved in memory.
Q3) According to the Culture and Human Behavior: Culture's Effects on Early Memories box in your text, what cultural factors likely contribute to differences in autobiographical memory?
Q4) Javier participates in mixed martial arts competitions. Two weeks ago, Javier sustained a concussion following a direct kick to his head and neck. Javier's family and girlfriend are concerned, as Javier has no memory of the events leading up to the injury and is even having some difficulty remembering events that occurred several months before the injury. Two days ago marked the date of Javier and his girlfriend's two-year anniversary of meeting. However, he was unable to recall where they met or how they spent their first date. Based on this information, explain what type of memory disruption Javier is demonstrating.
Q5) Your textbook lists seven factors that can contribute to the development of false memories. Pick four factors and explain them, giving an example of each.
Q6) Describe the different types of long-term memory, and give an example of each.
Q7) What is memory consolidation, and how can it be disrupted in humans?
Page 30
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Memory
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Q1) The inability to recall information that was previously available to memory is called:
A)encoding failure.
B)forgetting.
C)the misinformation effect.
D)source confusion.
Q2) The "misinformation effect" refers to a:
A)memory disruption that occurs when the true source of the memory is forgotten.
B)phenomenon in which existing memories are distorted by exposing people to misleading information.
C)memory distortion caused by the context effect.
D)memory phenomenon in which vividly imagining an event markedly increases confidence that the event actually happened.
Q3) According to Freud, _____ memories remain unconscious yet are still capable of influencing behavior and personality.
A)repressed
B)suppressed
C)prospective
D)retrospective
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Memory
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Q1) Research has consistently shown that, like photographs, flashbulb memories are unaffected by the passage of time. Thus, they tend to be highly accurate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The standard stage model of memory has three distinct memory components: the phonological loop, the visuospatial sketchpad, and the central executive.
A)True B)False
Q3) Sensory memory is also called working memory.
A)True B)False
Q4) Using visual imagery is a good way to improve memory. A)True B)False
Q5) Brain-imaging studies have confirmed that performing a complex memory task involves only a single region of the brain, the hippocampus.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 6: Section 4: Memory
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Q1) According to George Miller, the capacity of short-term memory:
A)is about four items of information, plus or minus one.
B)can be increased by clustering.
C)can be increased by maintenance rehearsal of the information.
D)is about seven items of information, plus or minus two.
Q2) _____ is the gradual, physical process of converting new long-term memories into stable, enduring memory codes.
A)Memory consolidation
B)Short-term to working memory transfer
C)Clustering
D)Memory activation
Q3) In Baddeley's model of working memory, one component called the _____ is specialized for verbal material, such as lists of numbers or words.
A)visuospatial sketchpad
B)semantic network
C)phonological loop
D)central executive
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Chapter 6: Section 5: Memory
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Q1) Which of the following statements about long-term memory is FALSE?
A)Information stored in long-term memory can potentially last a lifetime.
B)The amount of information that can be held in long-term memory is limitless.
C)The three components of long-term memory are the phonological loop, the visuospatial sketchpad, and the central executive.
D)One category of long-term memory is semantic memory.
Q2) In the earliest stages of Alzheimer's disease, the MOST common symptoms are:
A)agitation and moodiness.
B)spontaneous recovery of long-term and working memories.
C)forgetting names of familiar people and the locations of familiar places.
D)misplacing common objects and moodiness, such as one's keys, glasses, or checkbook.
Q3) _____ refers to the hypothetical brain changes associated with the formation of a long-term memory.
A)The memory trace, or engram,
B)A schematic
C)Working memory
D)Repressed memory
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34
Chapter 7: Section 1: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) Describe the differences between algorithms and heuristics, and give an example of each.
Q2) How can mental sets and functional fixedness interfere with finding solution to problems?
Q3) Describe and explain the contributions of genetics and environmental factors that influence IQ scores. How do researchers approach questions related to these variables?
Q4) Can nonhuman animals "think"? Do they consciously reason? Such questions may be unanswerable. Describe the approach that contemporary comparative psychologists take today instead.
Q5) Define stereotype threat, and provide an example of psychological research that has demonstrated its effects on test performance.
Q6) Describe Lewis Terman's contribution to intelligence testing.
Q7) Define stereotype lift, and explain how psychological research has demonstrated its effects on test performance.
Q8) Describe the experimental procedure and major findings of Kathleen O'Craven and Nancy Kanwisher's fMRI study of mental imagery involving faces and places.
Q9) Describe the two-stage model of intuition.
Page 35
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) The In Focus box, "Neurodiversity: Beyond IQ," presents information on the idea of neurodiversity and notes that people with a mild form of autism spectrum disorder typically:
A)have IQ scores of 70 or below but high levels of social competence.
B)show normal, even advanced language development, have narrow interests and inflexible behavior, and by definition, have normal-to-above-average intelligence.
C)have low scores on the Raven's Progressive Matrices test (50 or below) and high scores on the WAIS (100 or above).
D)show abnormal and slow language development, have narrow interests and inflexible behavior, and by definition, have an IQ of 70 or below.
Q2) Syntax is to _____ as generative is to _____.
A)rules for combining words; creative
B)creative; rules for combining words
C)displacement; rules for combining words
D)rules for combining words; displacement
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) Cognition refers to the mental activities involved in acquiring, retaining, and using knowledge.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Generally, a test is considered reliable if it produces a normal distribution of scores and measures what it is intended to measure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In comparing the average IQ for various racial groups, the IQ score for the majority or dominant group tends to be lower than the IQ scores of the minority groups.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The representativeness heuristic and the availability heuristic are two rule-of-thumb strategies that help us estimate the likelihood of events.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Section 4: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) According to the In Focus box on neurodiversity, an individual with Asperger's syndrome (a mild form of autism spectrum disorder) is likely to:
A)score below the 30th percentile on a test of overall cognitive ability.
B)have narrow interests and inflexible behavior, but average to above-average intelligence.
C)have extraordinary long-term memory but is at risk for early-onset Alzheimer's disease.
D)require life-long support in daily living skills.
Q2) According to psychologist _____, there are multiple, independent forms of intelligence, such as linguistic intelligence, spatial intelligence, or interpersonal intelligence.
A)Charles Spearman
B)David Wechsler
C)Howard Gardner
D)Lewis Terman
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Chapter 7: Section 5: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) According to Claude Steele, how does stereotype threat tend to impair performance?
A)It causes the individual to focus on the self rather than others.
B)Irrelevant mental images are produced, which lead to maladaptive thinking.
C)It creates a sense of neurotic self-efficacy.
D)It leads to the fear that one might confirm the stereotype.
Q2) A well-designed psychological test has which of the following characteristics?
A)reliability, validity, and variability
B)verification, standardization, and reliability
C)reliability, standardization, and validity
D)standardization, validity, and variability
Q3) Several problems have been assigned as part of your physics homework. One problem asks you to determine the relative velocity of a variety of moving objects. To answer the question, you solve a complex mathematical equation. Which problem-solving strategy are you using?
A)a heuristic
B)a trial-and-error strategy
C)insight
D)an algorithm
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Page 39
Chapter 8: Section 1: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) Taking the evolutionary perspective, describe how emotions might help people adapt to their environment. In your answer, note how Charles Darwin viewed the functions of emotional displays in both humans and nonhuman animals.
Q2) Explain the James-Lange theory of emotion, and describe three lines of evidence in support of this approach to explaining emotion.
Q3) Describe how arousal theory accounts for motivation and the qualities that characterize people who are sensation seekers.
Q4) Describe how classical conditioning and operant conditioning motivate eating behavior.
Q5) Ron is a hungry man. Today he is visiting his favorite restaurant where he plans to consume a steak dinner. Ron leads an active lifestyle. For instance, on most days Ron goes hiking in the woods for a prolonged period of time without bringing any food supplies. Describe how the following terms relate to Ron's hunger, satiety, and energy balance: leptin, ghrelin, and cholecystokinin.
Q6) Provide evidence to support the idea that humans may be evolutionarily programmed to overeat when food is abundant.
Q7) How do genes and environmental factors interact in the development of obesity?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) It is an innate characteristic of Canadian geese to fly south in the winter. This behavior is an example of:
A)intrinsic motivation.
B)incentive motivation.
C)an instinct.
D)a drive.
Q2) Which of the following is secreted by the pancreas, helps control blood levels of glucose, and promotes the uptake of glucose by the muscles and other body tissues?
A)cholecystokinin
B)dopamine
C)leptin
D)insulin
Q3) Mark and Martha, who are the same age, have normal weights for their age and height. If Martha is like most women, her basal metabolic rate is:
A)identical to Mark's.
B)higher than Mark's.
C)lower than Mark's.
D)susceptible to much greater fluctuations than Mark's.
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) "My heart is racing and I am trembling, therefore I am afraid" is a comment that would be made by someone who agrees with the James-Lange theory of emotion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A major problem in scientifically establishing whether nonhuman animals experience emotions is determining the nature of the animal's subjective feelings or experiences.
A)True
B)False
Q3) About 30 minutes prior to eating, insulin triggers a slight decrease in blood levels of glucose, which heightens your desire to eat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You can become classically conditioned so that a specific time of the day-for example, 11:30 AM-becomes a conditioned stimulus (CS) that triggers internal bodily changes (the conditioned response) that increase your feelings of hunger and desire to eat.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Section 4: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) _____ is a neurotransmitter that is involved in producing reinforcing feelings of pleasure and satisfaction that may contribute to obesity.
A)Serotonin
B)Dopamine
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Neuropeptide Y
Q2) Which of the following increases the sensitivity of the stomach's stretch receptors and promotes satiation?
A)the hormone insulin
B)the hormone ghrelin
C)the neurotransmitter dopamine
D)the hormone cholecystokinin (CCK)
Q3) In collectivistic cultures, achievement motivation tends to reflect:
A)individual goals.
B)an urge to control or influence the behavior of other people or groups.
C)increasing the success or status of one's family or group.
D)the quest for personal self-efficacy.
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43
Chapter 8: Section 5: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) High blood levels of the hormone ghrelin:
A)cause negative energy balance and loss of weight.
B)stimulate appetite and eating behavior.
C)cause a loss of appetite and suppression of normal eating behavior.
D)increase the sensitivity of stomach receptors, promote satiation, and reduce or stop eating behavior.
Q2) Marshall sleeps, on average, five hours per night. Compared to adults who sleep seven to eight hours a night, Marshall is 50 percent more likely to:
A)be underweight.
B)lose weight but gain it back.
C)be obese.
D)have a high basal metabolic rate.
Q3) As a result of a genetic mutation, ob/ob mice lack the ability to produce: A)CCK.
B)neuropeptide Y.
C)leptin.
D)ghrelin.
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44
Chapter 9: Section 1: Lifespan Development
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Q1) Marissa and Blake are concerned that their daughter, Peige, is approaching her teenage years. They have commented to friends that they are terrified of the idea of peer pressure and wonder if they should place restrictions on Peige's activities and friends. Would you recommend that Marissa and Blake respond in this way? Explain, citing research from the textbook in your answer.
Q2) Identify the major stages of the lifespan.
Q3) Compare and contrast the views of Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky on the cognitive development of children.
Q4) Describe Kohlberg's theory of moral development and specify what characterizes each level and stage of his theory.
Q5) Describe Jean Piaget's views about the nature of cognitive development in children.
Q6) Discuss the relationship between adolescent behavior and adolescent brain development.
Q7) Explain the four different parenting styles described by Diana Baumrind and other psychologists, and describe how a parent from each style might deal with a child who wants to spend an excessive amount of time watching cartoon programs on television.
Q8) Define teratogens, and list five known teratogens.
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development
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Q1) Videos developed for infants and toddlers have claimed that they promote brain development. However, a study by Zimmerman and colleagues showed that viewing baby media was _____ with vocabulary growth in infants.
A)not correlated
B)positively correlated
C)negatively correlated
D)quasi-correlated
Q2) When does a developing organism double in weight, gaining an additional 3 to 4 pounds of body fat?
A)during the last two months of the fetal period
B)during the third and fourth months of the germinal period
C)during the first two months following conception
D)during the first two to eight weeks of prenatal development
Q3) Which of the following people developed gender schema theory to explain gender-role development?
A)psychologist Sandra Bem
B)physician William Masters
C)behavioral scientist Virginia Johnson
D)psychologist David Buss
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Lifespan Development
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Q1) Important limitations of Kohlberg's theory are: (1) moral reasoning doesn't always predict moral behavior, and (2) people don't necessarily respond to real-life dilemmas as they do to hypothetical dilemmas.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On average, girls experience the physical changes associated with puberty about two years earlier than boys.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For some women, andropause involves hot flashes, disturbances in sex drive and sleep, and emotional instability.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Stem cells can divide indefinitely, renew themselves, and give rise to a variety of other types of cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Section 4: Lifespan Development
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Q1) According to research on gender-role stereotypes, which individual is likely to be the MOST rigid in his or her beliefs?
A)Deacon, who is 9
B)Renee, who is 14
C)Rose, who is 40
D)George, who is 65
Q2) and Mrs. Cotter are the parents of nine-year-old Cody. Although Cody is not yet an adolescent, the Cotters are already worried about how peer pressure will affect their son. You can tell the Cotters that susceptibility to peer influence peaks during:
A)middle childhood.
B)early adolescence.
C)late adolescence.
D)emerging adulthood.
Q3) Which theorist proposed the zone of proximal development?
A)Piaget
B)Darwin
C)Kohlberg
D)Vygotsky
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Chapter 9: Section 5: Lifespan Development
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Q1) While writing a paper on the development of moral reasoning, Hugh read that there is not much evidence to support Carol Gilligan's idea that men and women have entirely different approaches to moral reasoning. However, he found that there is empirical evidence that:
A)Kohlberg's theory predicts the way humans engage in moral reasoning and also how they behave morally.
B)the best predictor of moral behavior in real-life situations is moral reasoning in response to hypothetical dilemmas.
C)men and women use a mix of both the ethic of individual rights and justice and the ethic of care and responsibility.
D)the development of moral reasoning follows a universal sequence of levels and stages, suggesting a strong genetic influence.
Q2) Which of the following is the CORRECT term for a segment of DNA that encodes the formula for a particular protein molecule?
A)gene
B)genotype
C)chromosome
D)phenotype
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Chapter 10: Section 1: Personality
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Q1) What are the two major criticisms of the humanistic perspective on personality?
Q2) Compare the views of Sigmund Freud and Albert Bandura on human aggression.
Q3) What is a self-report inventory? Describe the MMPI, the CPI, and the 16PF personality tests, and explain what each one is used for.
Q4) List the key strength and two weaknesses associated with the social cognitive perspective on personality.
Q5) How did Freud describe the structure of personality?
Q6) What is the social cognitive perspective on personality, and how does it differ from psychoanalytic and humanistic perspectives?
Q7) Based on the text's discussion of behavioral genetics, discuss the role of genetic and environmental influences on personality development. How do researchers determine whether or not a trait is genetically influenced?
Q8) What was Freud's personality theory? Describe the personal, historical, and cultural factors that may have influenced the development of Freud's personality theory.
Q9) What personality types did Hans Eysenck describe in his trait theory of personality?
Q10) Summarize the key ideas proposed by Carl Jung.
Page 50
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Chapter 10: Section 2: Personality
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Q1) The inferiority complex is to _____ what basic anxiety is to _____.
A)Alfred Adler; Karen Horney
B)Carl Jung; Alfred Adler
C)Karen Horney; Carl Jung
D)Alfred Adler; Carl Jung
Q2) According to Table 10.5, Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, Jr., are the key theorists associated with the _____ perspective on personality.
A)humanistic
B)psychoanalytic
C)trait
D)social-cognitive
Q3) Many psychoanalytic ideas are difficult to test because:
A)they cannot be operationally defined and objectively measured.
B)ethical guidelines prohibit this kind of research.
C)it is impossible to recruit naive research subjects who are unaware of Freud's ideas.
D)Freud's original notes and experimental data were destroyed by the Nazis.
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Chapter 10: Section 3: Personality
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Q1) A key strength of the social cognitive perspective on personality is its emphasis on naturalistic, real-world observations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Shelly was assessed at a career counseling service using a self-report test that determined her personality type was introverted, sensing, feeling, and perceiving (ISFP). Shelly has been given the Rorschach Inkblot Test.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the past the CIA relied on graphology to help agents recruit and manage spies. A)True
B)False
Q4) In contrast to the psychoanalytic idea that behavior is determined by unconscious motives, the social cognitive perspective emphasizes the idea that people have the capacity to consciously control and direct their own behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Section 4: Personality
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Q1) In his career counseling practice, Dr. Tremaine uses a personality test called the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI). This test differs from other self-report inventories, such as the MMPI, CPI, and 16PF, in that:
A)the results can be applied to accurately determine the best vocational choice and predict future occupational success for an individual.
B)it has high reliability and validity, and test results are consistent on different test-taking occasions.
C)it is designed to measure personality types rather than personality traits, and suffers from validity and reliability problems.
D)it is designed to assess unconscious motives, conflicts, psychological defenses, and personality traits.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a nonshared environmental influence?
A)socioeconomic status
B)illness
C)parenting
D)neighborhood
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Chapter 10: Section 5: Personality
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Q1) _____ are aspects of the self-concept that reflect images that people hope, fear, or expect to become in the future.
A)Personality factors
B)Personality traits
C)Possible selves
D)Heritability ratings
Q2) Of the following, which represents a key STRENGTH of the social cognitive perspective?
A)The social cognitive perspective evaluates unconscious drives and motivations.
B)Social cognitive concepts, such as self-efficacy, can be operationally defined and empirically tested.
C)The social cognitive perspective is closely aligned with behaviorism.
D)The social cognitive perspective helps explain individual differences in aggression, gender identity, and creativity.
Q3) Basic anxiety is to _____ as feelings of inferiority is to _____.
A)Karen Horney; Alfred Adler
B)Alfred Adler; Karen Horney
C)Carl Rogers; Albert Bandura
D)Carl Jung; Hans Eysenck
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Page 54
Chapter 11: Section 1: Social Psychology
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Q1) Describe the four principles that guide person perception, and give a "real world" example of each.
Q2) Using the tips listed in Table 11.5 of your textbook describe how to resist an authority's unacceptable orders.
Q3) Explain how the fundamental attribution error, the hindsight bias, and the just-world hypothesis contribute to people's tendency to "blame the victim" of misfortune.
Q4) Describe the findings of Solomon Asch's research on conformity.
Q5) Under what conditions are bystanders most likely to help a stranger? Least likely to help a stranger?
Q6) What was the basic experimental setup in Stanley Milgram's original obedience experiment?
Q7) What aspects of the experimental situation in Milgram's obedience experiment increased the likelihood of destructive obedience?
Q8) What is implicit cognition, and what is an implicit personality theory? Why do these reactions occur, and how can they potentially lead to faulty perceptions of other people?
Q9) Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of the social categorization process.
Q10) Name and describe seven common attributional biases and explanatory patterns.
Page 55
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Social Psychology
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Q1) Nadine is a casual dresser who loves wearing jeans and hates worrying about clothes. However, when she went for a job interview she decided to wear a professionally tailored suit. Nadine's behavior best illustrates the importance of:
A)informational social influence.
B)prosocial behavior.
C)normative social influence.
D)the "feel good, do good" effect.
Q2) In relation to factors that influence perceptions, deliberate, conscious mental processes are to _____ as automatic, nonconscious mental processes are to _____.
A)the self-serving bias; the self-effacing bias
B)explicit cognition; implicit cognition
C)the self-effacing bias; the self-serving bias
D)implicit cognition; explicit cognition
Q3) Attitudes:
A)tend to be strongest in members of individualistic cultures.
B)are primarily cognitive in nature.
C)are primarily behavioral in nature.
D)can have cognitive, behavioral, and emotional components.
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Social Psychology
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Q1) People are often prejudiced against groups that are perceived as threatening their in-group's norms and values.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Psychological studies have shown that people are less likely to behave in accordance with their attitudes when they stand to gain or lose something on a particular issue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There were no intrinsic differences between the groups of boys in Sherif's Robbers Cave experiments. Rather than being racially or ethnically diverse, the boys were all white, middle class, Protestant, and psychologically well-adjusted.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The tendency to blame ourselves for our failures and to downplay our successes by attributing them to external, situational causes is called the self-effacing bias.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Section 4: Social Psychology
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Q1) The deliberate attempt to influence the attitudes or behavior of another person in a situation in which that person has some freedom of choice is called:
A)pseudoscience.
B)altruism.
C)social loafing.
D)social striving.
Q2) Follow-up research on Milgram's obedience study indicated that participants were LEAST likely to deliver high levels of shocks when:
A)the experimenter was standing in the same room as the learner.
B)there was physical and psychological separation between the teacher and the learner.
C)the experimenter took responsibility for the learner's well-being.
D)teachers were free to choose the level of shock.
Q3) _____ is the tendency to see members of out-groups as very similar to each other.
A)Ethnocentrism
B)The out-group homogeneity effect.
C)The bystander effect.
D)A self-serving bias.
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Chapter 11: Section 5: Social Psychology
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Q1) For 30 years, the community of Wichita, Kansas, was haunted-and taunted-by a serial killer who dubbed himself the BTK killer, which stood for "bind, torture, kill." In February of 2005, a break in the case came when Wichita police arrested Dennis Rader, age 59, a city inspector, former Boy Scout leader, and church council president who was married with two adult children. Based on what you learned in the social psychology chapter, which of the following statements explains how Rader escaped detection for so many years?
A)Strong feelings of ethnocentrism convinced people that the BTK killer was someone from outside their community.
B)Diffusion of responsibility allowed people to psychologically distance themselves from the people murdered by BTK.
C)Rader contradicted the implicit personality theory that people have for a serial killer.
D)People have a strong, natural tendency to blame the victims for contributing to their fate, rather than the person who murdered them.
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Chapter 12: Section 1: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) What kinds of social support efforts are MOST likely to be perceived as helpful?
Q2) Health psychologists are guided by the biopsychosocial model. Explain the focus of this model.
Q3) Define psychoneuroimmunology, and explain how the nervous, endocrine, and immune systems are linked and how they influence each other.
Q4) What kinds of social support efforts are LEAST likely to be perceived as helpful? What is "invisible support"?
Q5) What is emotion-focused coping? Describe the six forms of emotion-focused coping that are summarized in your textbook.
Q6) Explain how feelings of control influence the experience of stress. Under what conditions does this phenomenon occur, and is this true for all cultures?
Q7) What is a placebo, and how are placebos used in biomedical research?
Q8) How do social isolation and diverse social networks impact health?
Q9) Define telomeres, and describe how they are affected by stress.
Q10) Describe the role of major life events and change in producing stress. Next, list some of the limitations of the life events approach to measuring the impact of stress on health.
Q11) What gender differences have been found in the effects of social support?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Stress, Health, and Coping
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240 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormones that are released by the adrenal cortex and that play a key role in the body's response to long-term stressors are called:
A)corticosteroids.
B)lymphocytes.
C)adrenaline and noradrenaline.
D)catecholamines.
Q2) People in the _____ socioeconomic levels of society tend to have the _____ levels of psychological distress, illness, and death.
A)lowest; lowest
B)highest; highest
C)lowest; highest
D)highest and lowest; same
Q3) According to Figure 12.4, Endocrine System Pathways in Stress, which of the following is NOT listed as an effect of corticosteroid release during prolonged stress?
A)increased release of stored energy
B)reduced inflammation
C)reduced immune system response
D)pupils dilate
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Chapter 12: Section 3: Stress, Health, and Coping
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188 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seeking social support is the emotion-focused coping strategy that involves turning to friends, relatives, or other people for emotional, tangible, or informational support.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The branch of psychology that studies how biological, psychological, and social factors influence health, illness, medical treatment, and health-related behaviors is called psychoneuroimmunology.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Walter Cannon is known for his description of the fight-or-flight response, which involves the sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Research has confirmed the idea that particular life events have essentially the same impact on most people, and this impact can be quantified in terms of a specific number of "life change units."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Section 4: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Martin Seligman, people who use stable, internal, and global explanations for negative events:
A)have a strong immune system response to stress, with high levels of lymphocytes, T-cells, and helper T cells.
B)have an optimistic explanatory style.
C)are prone to the stress contagion effect.
D)have a pessimistic explanatory style.
Q2) Brenda forgot to set her alarm clock, overslept, missed her train, and was late to work. When she got to her office, she realized that she'd left the power adapter for her laptop at home. By afternoon, Brenda had a mountain of work on her desk and a tension headache. Brenda's high level of stress:
A)is due to her Type B behavior pattern.
B)can best be explained as the cumulative effect of daily hassles.
C)can best be explained by the social contagion effect.
D)is due to the release of the hormone oxytocin by the adrenal medulla.
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63
Chapter 12: Section 5: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Table 12.1: The Social Readjustment Rating Scale, which of the following life changes would receive the HIGHEST number of life event units?
A)a change in residence
B)the death of a close friend
C)divorce
D)marriage
Q2) Gertrud participated in a research study at her nursing home where she was given many choices over her daily activities, including what to eat, which activities to attend, and so forth. According to research by Judith Rodin and Ellen Langer, Gertrud is likely to:
A)become ill because of the increased stress associated with having to make so many decisions.
B)be healthier than nursing-home residents in a matched control group who were not given the opportunity to make choices about their daily activities.
C)change her coping style from emotion focused to problem focused.
D)suffer from stress contagion effect because of difficulties adapting to her new living conditions.
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64
Chapter 13: Section 1: Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain what the DSM-5 is, describe how it was developed, and list some of the major criticisms of the manual.
Q2) Discuss the prevalence of cigarette smoking among people with mental disorders, and summarize the key research findings showing a link between cigarette smoking and mental disorders.
Q3) Describe the relationship between paternal age and the risk of producing offsprings who develop schizophrenia.
Q4) Describe the results of a survey of media portrayals of people with mental disorders, and discuss the accuracy of these portrayals.
Q5) Describe the basic premise of the viral infection theory of schizophrenia, and summarize the research supporting it.
Q6) What kinds of themes are commonly present in delusional thinking?
Q7) Compare and contrast the characteristics and possible causes of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.
Q8) Describe the behavior of a person with antisocial personality disorder. What is the difference between a sociopath and a psychopath?
Q9) What can a person do to help someone who expresses suicidal intentions?
Page 65
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Psychological Disorders
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256 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main symptom of a disorder called _____ is frequent, unpredictable, and unexpected panic attacks.
A)general anxiety disorder
B)panic disorder
C)agoraphobia
D)dissociative fugue
Q2) A long-lasting disorder that develops in response to being exposed to a severe and often life-threatening trauma is called _____ disorder.
A)generalized anxiety
B)obsessive-compulsive
C)posttraumatic stress
D)persistent depressive
Q3) Which of the following is an anxiety disorder that is characterized by constant, excessive, and unjustified anxiety about a wide range of issues and circumstances?
A)panic disorder
B)generalized anxiety disorder
C)agoraphobia
D)posttraumatic stress disorder
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66
Chapter 13: Section 3: Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The terms mental disorder and psychological disorder mean the same thing and are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Major depressive disorder tends to be a recurring disorder. However, with each recurrence, the symptoms tend to decrease in severity and the time between major depressive disorder episodes gradually increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Environmental, psychological, and genetic as well as other biological factors are thought to be involved in generalized anxiety disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Disorders that include anxiety are among the most common of all psychological disorders.
A)True
B)False
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67
Chapter 13: Section 4: Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a core symptom of posttraumatic stress disorder?
A)Frequent, intrusive recollections of a traumatic event
B)Numbing of emotional responsiveness
C)Memory loss and an inability to identify threatening situations
D)Avoidance of stimuli that tend to trigger memories of a traumatic event
Q2) _____ has been used to explain why people are more likely to develop phobias of certain animals or situations, such as snakes, heights, slugs, maggots, or cockroaches that were survival threats in our evolutionary history.
A)The DSM-V
B)Psychoanalytic theory
C)Classical conditioning
D)Biological preparedness
Q3) About _____ of people who experience an initial episode of schizophrenia will develop a chronic, ongoing form of the disease that severely impairs their ability to function.
A)one-tenth
B)one-quarter
C)one-half
D)two-thirds
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Page 68
Chapter 13: Section 5: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following statements about major depressive disorder is FALSE?
A)Feelings of worthlessness and self-loathing after the death of a loved one may indicate major depressive disorder.
B)Abnormal sleep patterns are a hallmark of major depressive disorder and include insomnia and, less commonly, excessive amounts of sleep.
C)For people with seasonal affective disorder, repeated episodes of major depressive disorder tend to occur most often with the onset of autumn and winter.
D)In terms of lifetime prevalence, about 25 percent of Americans will be affected by major depressive disorder at some point in their lives.
Q2) According to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R), the median age of onset for any disorder is _____ years.
A)14
B)24
C)29
D)31
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69
Chapter 14: Section 1: Therapies
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Q1) How do paraprofessionals and lay counselors differ?
Q2) How do short-term dynamic therapies differ from traditional psychoanalysis?
Q3) Describe cognitive-behavioral therapy. What techniques does a cognitive-behavioral therapist use?
Q4) Mariah will graduate from college in a year, and she's caught between two possible options for graduate school: a licensed professional counselor or a counseling psychologist. Describe the requirements associated with each of these professions.
Q5) Describe how virtual reality (VR) therapy is used, explain what principles of conditioning are involved, and identify the psychological problems it is used to treat.
Q6) How are the operant conditioning procedures of positive reinforcement and extinction used to modify behaviors?
Q7) Compare and contrast eclectic psychotherapy to integrative psychotherapy.
Q8) What are the basic premises of family therapy? How does family therapy differ from individual psychotherapy?
Q9) According to Carl Rogers, what therapeutic conditions foster change in the therapy client, and why?
Q10) List and describe at least three drawbacks of early antipsychotic medications.
Page 70
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Therapies
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Q1) Mackenzie has just started psychotherapy. If Mackenzie is typical of most psychotherapy clients, she should expect to notice significant progress:
A)immediately.
B)after a few months of weekly sessions.
C)after a year of weekly sessions.
D)after two to three years of weekly sessions.
Q2) Theresa is a psychotherapist who is working with a client named Ross. Currently, Ross is agonizing over whether he should stay married or file for divorce, but he can't seem to make up his mind. According to the guidelines in the textbook, Ross should expect Theresa to:
A)tell him what to do.
B)recommend a good divorce lawyer.
C)help him explore and better understand his own feelings about his marriage, so that he can make a responsible decision.
D)call Ross's wife and tell her how Ross feels.
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Therapies
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Q1) One key advantage of group therapy is that the therapist can directly observe the way a client interacts with other people, rather than relying upon the client's perceptions of his or her interactions with other people.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT) is generally effective for the treatment of major depressive disorder, social anxiety disorder, and some other anxiety disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Two newer antidepressants, Effexor and Cymbalta, are best classified as dual-reuptake inhibitors because they affect brain levels of two neurotransmitters, serotonin and norepinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Trephining was a historical and primitive treatment for mental illness that involved drilling a hole in a person's skull.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Section 4: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) ECT is primarily used to treat:
A)bipolar disorder.
B)seasonal affective disorder.
C)schizophrenia.
D)major depressive disorder.
Q2) MAO inhibitors, tricyclics, and SSRIs are all types of _____ medications.
A)antipsychotic
B)antianxiety
C)antidepressant
D)bipolar
Q3) In her therapy practice, Dr. Castellanos regularly uses the techniques of free association, dream interpretation, transference, resistance, and interpretation. Dr. Castellanos has been trained in _____ therapy.
A)humanistic
B)psychoanalytic
C)behavioral
D)cognitive
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73
Chapter 14: Section 5: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the movie As Good As It Gets, actor Jack Nicholson plays the character of Melvin Udall, a gifted writer who always eats in the same restaurant, brings his own plastic utensils, and engages in strict patterns of behavior, such as repetitive hand washing or walking carefully on the sidewalk to avoid stepping on a crack. Failure to follow these ritual behaviors results in extreme anxiety and distress. The character Nicholson was portraying would probably be diagnosed with _____ disorder.
A)autism spectrum
B)Tourette's
C)borderline personality
D)obsessive-compulsive
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with suicide?
A)flexible thinking and rational beliefs
B)a family history of suicide
C)exposure to cyberbullying
D)presence of a firearm in the home
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