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Survey of Psychology Midterm Exam - 14792 Verified Questions

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Survey of Psychology Midterm

Exam

Course Introduction

Survey of Psychology offers a broad introduction to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. This course examines fundamental concepts and major theories in topics such as biological bases of behavior, learning, perception, memory, development, personality, motivation, emotion, social interactions, psychological disorders, and treatment approaches. Emphasis is placed on understanding research methods in psychology and applying psychological principles to everyday life. Designed for students of all backgrounds, the course provides a solid foundation for further study in psychology or related fields.

Recommended Textbook

Psychology Modules for Active Learning 13th Edition by Dennis Coon

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82 Chapters

14792 Verified Questions

14792 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction

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Sample Questions

Q1) In order to conquer procrastination and become a reflective learner,students should follow the suggestions on the study skills checklist found in their psychology textbook.Which of the following suggestions is NOT on this study skills checklist?

A)Study in a specific place.

B)Study while reading.

C)Make a formal schedule.

D)Avoid overlearning.

Answer: D

Q2) Two ways to become more reflective while reading is to use

A)massed practice and experiential processing.

B)self-projection and transference.

C)animism and egocentrism.

D)self-reference and critical thinking.

Answer: D

Q3) Students that engage in overlearning of test material tend to make lower grades than students who limit their study time.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: How to Study Psychology

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218 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Students who are perfectionists often end up with all-or-nothing work habits that can lead to

A)self-regulated learning.

B)procrastination.

C)overlearning.

D)spaced study sessions.

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a good test-taking suggestion for taking an essay test?

A)Before writing your answer,list the main points you want to make and logically arrange them rather than making an elaborate outline before writing.

B)In answering an essay question,be direct,make a point,and support it.

C)If the question asks for one example,it is better to give several examples in order to gain points.

D)Your ideas are of first importance,so look over your essay answers for errors in spelling and grammar last.

Answer: C

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4

Chapter 3: Introducing Psychology: Psychology, Critical Thinking, and Science

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which pseudopsychology mistakenly listed the part of the brain that controls hearing as a center for "combativeness" within a person's personality?

A)astrology

B)palmistry

C)graphology

D)phrenology

Answer: D

Q2) An expert tells you that "you can catch a cold by not wearing a coat when it is cold." If you are a critical thinker,you would

A)accept his statement since you remember catching a cold after you forgot your coat.

B)accept his statement because it is based on commonsense reasoning.

C)ask him to list additional experts that support his theory.

D)ask to see the empirical evidence that supports his theory.

Answer: D

Q3) An empirical investigation structured to answer questions about the world in a systematic and intersubjective fashion is known as a(n) ______.

Answer: scientific observation

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Chapter 4: Introducing Psychology: Psychology Then and Now

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281 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which psychologist realized that he could study the overt behavior of animals by simply observing the relationship between stimuli and an animal's responses?

A)John B.Watson

B)Wilhelm Wundt

C)Abraham Maslow

D)Max Wertheimer

Q2) Wundt observed stimuli of various kinds and then tried to "look inward" to probe his reactions to these stimuli through a process known as

A)analytical logic.

B)reduction division.

C)transduction.

D)introspection.

Q3) According to your textbook,which of the following is NOT one of the three broad perspectives that shape modern psychology?

A)biological

B)therapeutic

C)psychological

D)sociocultural

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Chapter 5: Introducing Psychology: the Psychology Experiment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Changes in the behavior of research subjects that is caused by the unintended influence of the subjects' own expectations is called the A)research participant bias.

B)observer bias.

C)confirmation bias.

D)anthropomorphic error

Q2) In a study of effects of alcohol on driving ability,the control group should be given A)a high dosage of alcohol.

B)one-half the dosage given the experimental group.

C)a driving test before and after drinking alcohol.

D)no alcohol at all.

Q3) Describe the classic study at the U.S.Air Force Preparatory School on how expectations can influence people,and discuss its findings and implications.

Q4) A single-blind experiment would most likely be used to minimize researcher bias.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The participants exposed to the independent variable would be in the ______ group.

7

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Chapter 6: Introducing Psychology: Non-Experimental

Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) A psychologist observes the confrontation between two rival neighborhood gangs from the window of an abandoned building.This method of collecting observations is best described as

A)experimental regression.

B)naturalistic observation.

C)controlled experimentation.

D)clinical case study.

Q2) An entire group of animals or people belonging to a particular category is called a A)biased sample.

B)representative sample.

C)population.

D)natural clinical test.

Q3) From her studies of chimpanzees in the wild in Tanzania,Jane Goodall showed that humans are not the only tool- making animals.In discovering this information,Jane Goodall used which type of research method?

A)field experiments

B)experimental control

C)correlational studies

D)naturalistic observation

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Psychology in Action: Thinking Critically About the Media

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Sample Questions

Q1) At least ten testimonials or case examples are required in order to validate the claim of a product or treatment.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In 2002,baseball pitcher Randy Johnson began wearing a particular metal-impregnated twisted rope necklace designed to "stabilize the electricity flow through the body." He claimed that it improved his pitching and his batting.By the 2010 World Series,hundreds of players were wearing one,all without any scientific explanation of,or evidence for,this rope necklace's efficacy.They bought this necklace

A)due to a single example.

B)due to a causal correlation.

C)because they failed to distinguish observation from inference.

D)due to the performance of the control group.

Q3) Most of the time the stories in the media regarding psychology are based more on critical thinking or science than on just entertainment value.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Brain and Behavior: Neurons and the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The process by which nerve impulses conducted down the axons of neurons coated with myelin jump from gap to gap in the myelin layer is called a(n) _______ conduction.

Q2) Jeff's drug addiction to cocaine occurred because cocaine overstimulated the reward system in his brain and disturbed the function of which neurotransmitter?

A)serotonin

B)acetylcholine

C)dopamine

D)histamine

Q3) As you study your psychology textbook,you are changing your mind and your brain about psychology through a process known as A)brain osmosis.

B)synaptic malleability.

C)self-directed neuroplasticity.

D)self-directed neural induction.

Q4) When you give directions and point down the street,the part of the peripheral nervous system that controls this voluntary movement of your finger is the _______ nervous system.

Q5) The cell body of a neuron is also called the _______.

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Chapter 9: Brain and Behavior: Brain Research

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Sample Questions

Q1) The study of how biological processes,the brain,and the nervous system are related to behavior is called

A)neuroinduction.

B)biopsychology.

C)physiological behaviorism.

D)ablation.

Q2) In order to determine if Marta had a stroke,the doctors used a computer-enhanced X-ray image of her brain,a technique known as a fMRI.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Three of these techniques allow scientists to observe the activity of parts of the brain without doing any damage at all.Which technique would cause some degree of damage to the living brain?

A)EEG.

B)fMRI.

C)PET scan.

D)ablation.

Q4) Describe and compare the two main structural imaging techniques.

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Chapter 10: Brain and Behavior: Hemispheres and Lobes of the Cortex

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Sample Questions

Q1) A researcher electrically stimulates a part of Raphael's brain,and Raphael "hears" a series of sounds.This researcher most likely stimulated Raphael's _______ lobes.

A)temporal

B)parietal

C)occipital

D)frontal

Q2) The cerebral cortex in humans accounts for what percent of all the neurons in the central nervous system?

A)10 percent

B)40 percent

C)70 percent

D)99 percent

Q3) If the right side of the brain is damaged,people lose their ability to understand jokes,irony,sarcasm,implications,and other nuances of language.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The increased size and wrinkling of the cerebral cortex in higher animals is referred to as _______.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Brain and Behavior: Sub-Cortex and Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Of the brain parts listed below,which two would you NOT want to damage and why? hippocampus,Wernicke's area,reticular formation,medulla,Broca's area

Q2) One of your college friends who is an athlete tells you that he is thinking about using anabolic steroids in order to "bulk up" his muscle growth and improve his athletic performance.After reading the section on the endocrine system,what would you tell him regarding the effectiveness and side effects of using steroids?

Q3) Which part of the hindbrain prioritizes incoming messages and modifies outgoing commands to the body,which affects muscle tone,posture,and movements of the eyes,face,head,body,and limbs?

A)pons

B)hypothalamus

C)amygdala

D)reticular formation

Q4) The hormone melatonin regulates

A)growth.

B)male and female sex drives.

C)salt balance in the body.

D)sleep cycles.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Psychology in Action: Handedness

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Sample Questions

Q1) The only sure way to check brain dominance is to perform a medical test that involves

A)deep lesioning within each hemisphere.

B)assessing one cerebral hemisphere at a time.

C)spatial ablation.

D)karotyping and DNA analysis for lateralization.

Q2) One's dominant hemisphere is considered the side of a person's brain that A)controls hand movement.

B)controls eye movement.

C)organizes and plans activities.

D)produces language.

Q3) The proportion of left-handers in individualist societies,such as the United States and Canada,is only about half that found in collectivist societies,such as Japan and India.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The physical size and shape of the two cerebral hemispheres of right-handed persons is more alike than that of left- handed persons.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Human Development: Heredity and Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) When an individual develops from a zygote to an embryo to a fetus to a neonate and so on until one's death,this overall pattern of physical development is known as the A)human growth sequence.

B)senescence pattern.

C)adaptation sequence.

D)zone of proximal development.

Q2) Considering what is now known about the effects smoking on the unborn,the best advice for the mother is to

A)smoke tobacco or marijuana in moderation.

B)smoke only tobacco,not marijuana.

C)smoke marijuana occasionally,but not tobacco.

D)discontinue smoking tobacco and marijuana.

Q3) Lance is a newborn infant.During the first weeks following birth,Lance would be referred to as a(n)

A)embryo.

B)neonate.

C)zygote.

D)fetus.

Q4) Within the nucleus of each sperm or each ovum,there are _______ chromosomes.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Human Development: Emotional and Social Development in Childhood

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Sample Questions

Q1) When parents combine praise,recognition,approval,rules,and reasoning to encourage desirable behavior in their children,they are using a type of discipline known as _______ techniques.

Q2) Children who were raised in severely overcrowded orphanages and got almost no attention from adults for the first year or two of their lives

A)were able to readily establish secure attachments once adopted.

B)craved constant attention and wanted to be held a great deal of the time.

C)were more fearful of strangers once they established an attachment with their adoptive families.

D)were anxious and remote and would not make eye contact with others.

Q3) In which parental style is there a healthy and effective balance between the rights of parents and their children?

A)authoritarian

B)permissive

C)authoritative

D)collaborative

Q4) Compare the caregiving styles of mothers and fathers,and explain how both styles contribute to the competence of young children.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Human Development: Language and Cognitive Development in Childhood

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Sample Questions

Q1) To say that a child is egocentric means that he or she is

A)dominated by a concern for the needs of others.

B)aware of the needs of others but has no regard for them.

C)unable to assume the viewpoint of others.

D)spoiled.

Q2) You offer to trade your nickel for a dime held by a child.The child accepts the trade because the nickel is bigger. The child is

A)in the preoperational stage.

B)in the neonatal stage of the growth sequence.

C)obviously past the age of reason.

D)displaying reversibility.

Q3) When parents praise their infants,their parentese usually has low,smooth,drawn-out tones.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Babies begin to coo

A)from birth on.

B)around six to eight weeks of age.

C)around six months of age.

D)around nine months of age.

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Chapter 16: Human Development: Adolescence and

Adulthood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Teens who take pride in their ethnic heritage show which of the following characteristics?

A)low self-esteem

B)high risk of drug use

C)high risk of engaging in violent behavior

D)strong sense of personal identity

Q2) A failure to develop a consistent identity results in

A)isolation.

B)inferiority.

C)role confusion.

D)stagnation.

Q3) An exchange of favors,a reward,or the avoidance of punishment would be examples of the direct consequences that would guide one's choices if the person were exhibiting which level of moral development?

A)preconventional

B)postconventional

C)conventional

D)relational exchange

Q4) According to Kohlberg,older children and most adults exhibit moral development at the _____ level.

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Chapter 17: Psychology in Action: Well-Being and Happiness

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding their personality,happier people tend to be optimistic,worry-free,and _____.

Q2) Regarding the relationship of personal factors to happiness,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Less educated people tend to be a little happier than the more educated.

B)Overall,men and women do not differ in happiness,although women do have a tendency to experience higher emotional highs and lower lows than men do.

C)People who are satisfied with their jobs tend to be happier,but the association between happiness and job satisfaction is weak.

D)Married people report greater happiness than people who are divorced,separated,or single.

Q3) Research shows that people tend to be happy if they are making progress toward their personal _____.

Q4) Some people are more temperamentally disposed to be happy,regardless of life events.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: Sensation and Perception: Sensory Processes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Matt has been studying for several hours and begins to rub his eyes.He immediately "sees" stars,checkerboards, and flashes of color.These visual sensations caused by Matt rubbing his eyes are called

A)visual pop-outs.

B)phosphenes.

C)visual spectrals.

D)artificial vision.

Q2) Sensory receptors respond best to A)changes in stimulation.

B)changes in threshold.

C)subliminal images.

D)repetitive stimuli.

Q3) Which of the following appears to be based on the ability of brain structures to choose and divert incoming sensory messages?

A)sensory deceleration

B)sensory adaptation

C)selective attention

D)selective accommodation.

Q4) Light sensations caused by pressure applied to the eye are referred to as _____.

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Chapter 19: Sensation and Perception: Vision

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Sample Questions

Q1) Within one's eye,the light­sensitive cells are called A)photoreceptors.

B)phosphenes.

C)tympanics.

D)stereocilia.

Q2) Jake is being administered a test of his visual acuity in which he will be required to read rows of letters of diminishing size until he can no longer distinguish them.Jake's visual acuity is being assessed using the A)Refraction Test.

B)Ishihara test.

C)Landolt rings.

D)Snellen chart.

Q3) Caucasian males are more likely to be red-green color-blind than Asian,African,or Native American males.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Explain what happens during dark adaptation,including the importance of rhodopsin,how long dark adaptation takes to occur,how it can be wiped out,and how it can be speeded up.

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Chapter 20: Sensation and Perception: The Other Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) The artist Van Gogh cut off the external part of his ear.A psychologist would refer to the part that was cut off as the A)pinna.

B)cochlea.

C)auditory ossicle.

D)stereocilia.

Q2) The pitch of a sound corresponds to which aspect of the sound wave?

A)amplitude

B)frequency

C)rarefaction

D)compression

Q3) Some video games can cause motion sickness because the computer-generated visual images change as if the viewer's body is in motion,but the viewer is being "told" he or she is standing still by the _______ system.

A)limbic

B)auditory

C)vestibular

D)parasympathetic

Q4) The stapes is attached to a membrane on the cochlea called the _______.

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Chapter 21: Sensation and Perception: Perceptual

Processes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Perceiving objects or events that have no external reality describe A)hallucinations.

B)stroboscopic movement.

C)figure-ground images.

D)illusions.

Q2) Identify and describe the first perceptual ability to appear after cataract patients regain their sight,and then explain four of the six Gestalt organizing principles of perception and give examples of each.

Q3) An initial guess or plan about how to organize a stimulus pattern is referred to as a A)cognitive style.

B)perceptual hypothesis.

C)sensory hypothesis.

D)perceptual closure.

Q4) Perceptual construction proceeds in two major ways,which are _______ processing.

A)inductive and intuitive

B)top-down and bottom-up

C)deductive and divergent

D)lateral and vertical

23

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Chapter 22: Sensation and Perception: Perception and Objectivity

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Sample Questions

Q1) When you download a new song from iTunes,the music initially holds your attention all the way through.But when the song becomes "old," it may play without you really attending to it.This illustrates A)habituation.

B)sensory gating.

C)perseveration.

D)dishabituation.

Q2) The text suggests that enhanced perceptual accuracy is LESS likely if we A)rely only on our motivations and expectations.

B)voluntarily direct attention toward sensations that are normally tuned out.

C)engage in reality testing.

D)interrupt habituation and break perceptual sets.

Q3) Creative people habituate more slowly than average.

A)True

B)False

Q4) One study of eyewitness cases found that the percentage of time that a wrong person was chosen from police lineups was _______ percent.

Q5) A readiness to perceive in a particular manner,induced by strong expectations is called a(n) _______.

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Chapter 23: Psychology in Action: Extrasensory Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) Critics of modern ESP research argue that subjects who temporarily show ESP have received credit for a(n)

Q2) The purported ability to perceive events in ways that cannot be explained by known sensory capacities is referred to as

A)top-down processing.

B)bottom-up processing.

C)the perceptual set.

D)extrasensory perception.

Q3) Improved research techniques in parapsychology have resulted in

A)the ability to replicate spectacular results.

B)fewer positive results.

C)less skepticism among scientists about ESP.

D)fewer instances of the "decline effect."

Q4) Parapsychologists believe the "decline effect" shows

A)the consistency of positive results and adds credibility to the existence of ESP.

B)a run of luck.

C)cheating by participants.

D)that parapsychological skills are very fragile.

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Chapter 24: Consciousness: States of Consciousness

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Q1) Because the mind and consciousness are fundamentally first-person phenomena,the basic challenge of understanding the brain and behavior involves the use of _______ studies.

A)intuitive

B)subjective

C)objective

D)parapsychology

Q2) Discuss the two theories of hypnosis,including Hilgard's demonstration involving the painful use of ice water.

Q3) Ernest Hilgard's view of hypnosis as a "split" in awareness is referred to as which theory of hypnosis?

A)the state theory

B)the nonstate theory

C)the neurocognitive theory

D)the autosuggestion hypothesis

Q4) How many people out of ten can actually be hypnotized?

A)four

B)six

C)eight

D)nine

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Chapter 25: Consciousness: Sleep and Dreams

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Q1) During the teen years,rapid physical changes during puberty increase the need for sleep,while overall sleep time decreases,resulting in most adolescents experiencing excessive daytime sleepiness known as _______.

Q2) According to research on the use of sleeping pills to treat insomnia,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Nonprescription sleeping pills have little sleep-inducing effects.

B)Prescription sedatives increase Stage 4 sleep and REM sleep.

C)The use of prescription sedatives can lead to drug-dependency insomnia.

D)Newer drugs,such as Ambien and Lunesta,can induce sleep but can also cause amnesia,depression,and sleepwalking.

Q3) Which of the following sleep disturbances may occur because the brain stops sending signals to the diaphragm to maintain breathing or because there is blockage in the upper air passages?

A)sleep apnea

B)narcolepsy

C)cataplexy

D)somnambulism

Q4) The pattern of EEG waves present when one is awake and alert is characterized by _______ waves.

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Chapter 26: Consciousness: Psychoactive Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Terrence has three term papers due and four major tests in the next three weeks.His friends suggest that he take a "study drug" to help him stay awake and focus better.The "study drug" that his friends have suggested that he Take illegally is most likely

A)GHB.

B)Ritalin.

C)Xanax.

D)Rohypnol.

Q2) Sara tried marijuana because she was curious about what effects this drug would have on her;thus,Sara's pattern of drug-taking behavior would be classified as situational. A)True

B)False

Q3) Barbiturates are a class of sedative drugs that A)act by depressing the general activity in the brain. B)are useful in counteracting the effects of alcohol poisoning. C)are not physically addictive. D)are rarely associated with overdoses.

Q4) The resinous material scraped from cannabis leaves is called _______.

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Chapter 27: Psychology in Action: Exploring and Using Dreams

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which dream theorist believed that most dreams are special messages about what's missing in our lives,what we avoid doing,or feelings that need to be "re­owned"?

A)Ernest Hartmann

B)Stephen LaBerge

C)Otto Loewi

D)Fritz Perls

Q2) A procedure outlined in your textbook for using dreams in problem-solving involves which of the following?

A)Use stimulus control and sleep restriction to tap into creativity during dreaming.

B)Use prescription medication to increase your likelihood of dreaming.

C)Concentrate on the problem just before going to bed and then use dream catching techniques.

D)Increase your time spent in sleep,thus directly increasing the time for dreams to occur.

Q3) In order for you to be able to periodically review your past dreams,it is recommended that you record your dreams in chronological order within a permanent dream .

Q4) Describe Sigmund Freud's four dream processes and give an example of each.

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Chapter 28: Conditioning and Learning: Types of Learning

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Q1) When three-year-old Ashley hears a truck pull into the driveway,it means that Daddy is home.The sound of the truck would be a(n)

A)respondent stimulus.

B)consequence.

C)antecedent.

D)prologue.

Q2) Learning by consequences occurs during A)respondent conditioning.

B)insight learning.

C)classical conditioning.

D)operant conditioning.

Q3) Educational simulations allow students to explore an imaginary situation and are the most complex type of A)serious games.

B)token economies.

C)latent learning exercises.

D)educational feedback loops.

Q4) The type of learning that involves higher mental processes,such as understanding,knowing,or anticipating is called _______ learning.

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Chapter 29: Conditioning and Learning: Classical Conditioning

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Q1) What is meant by the statement,"Classical conditioning is a reversible process"?

A)A conditioned response can be extinguished.

B)An involuntary response will reverse during conditioning.

C)The conditioned response (CR)is the reverse of the unconditioned response (UR).

D)The conditioned response (CR)may elicit the unconditioned stimulus (US).

Q2) During training,a conditioned response must be established and strengthened during the period known as

A)acquisition.

B)the instrumental step.

C)shaping.

D)latent learning.

Q3) Which of the following is the weakening of a conditioned response through the removal of the connection between the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus?

A)stimulus generalization.

B)extinction.

C)spontaneous recovery.

D)stimulus discrimination.

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Chapter 30: Conditioning and Learning: Operant

Conditioning

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Q1) If you make a snide remark to the school bully and you get "beat up," you will be less likely to make another snide remark to this bully due to the consequence known as

A)negative reinforcement.

B)positive punishment.

C)negative punishment.

D)response cost.

Q2) Which of the following decreases the likelihood that the response will occur again by initiating discomfort?

A)negative reinforcement

B)response cost

C)positive punishment

D)negative punishment

Q3) The learned expectancy in operant conditioning is that the A)US will follow the CS.

B)CS will follow the US.

C)response will have a specific effect.

D)consequence will follow the antecedent.

Q4) Define discriminative stimuli,and provide two real-life examples of its use.

Page 32

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Chapter 31: Conditioning and Learning: Reinforcement and Punishment

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Q1) Learning to make a response in order to postpone or prevent discomfort is known as A)avoidance learning.

B)escape learning.

C)latent learning.

D)respondent conditioning.

Q2) Children who are punished often by parents or teachers

A)learn to dislike parents and teachers.

B)develop an internalized moral sense of right and wrong.

C)learn to suppress aggressive behaviors.

D)learn to respect the person punishing them.

Q3) Which schedule of reinforcement involves reinforcement being given for the first correct response made after a varied amount of time has passed since the last reinforced response?

A)fixed ratio

B)fixed interval

C)variable interval

D)variable ratio

Q4) Describe three problems that occur as punishment increases in severity.

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Q5) Time-out is an example of negative punishment,which is also called _______.

Chapter 32: Psychology in Action: Behavioral

Self-Management

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Q1) If you want to exercise more,attend more classes,concentrate longer,or read more books,one of the best solutions would be to

A)attend a Gestalt encounter group.

B)use behavioral self-management.

C)use systematic desensitization.

D)learn and use self-hypnosis.

Q2) The strategy for breaking bad habits that consists of trying to discover what is reinforcing an unwanted response and removing,avoiding,or delaying the reinforcement involves the use of the operant conditioning principle of

Q3) Choosing a target behavior,recording a baseline,establishing goals,choosing reinforcers,recording progress, rewarding progress,and adjusting one's plan are the steps making up a procedure known as A)behavioral self-management.

B)top-down processing.

C)cognitive mapping.

D)perceptual habituation.

Q4) Explain why self-recording is so important to a behavioral self-management program.

Page 34

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Chapter 33: Memory: Memory Systems

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Q1) Memories that can be fully expressed only as actions (or "know­how")and represent the most basic "automatic" elements of conditioning,learning,and memory are called _______ memories.

Q2) Selective attention determines what information moves from sensory memory into short-term memory.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The filmed automobile accident study conducted by Loftus and Palmer illustrated that

A)new information can be integrated into memory and create false memories.

B)memory traces are permanent and overwhelmingly accurate.

C)logical interference and information processing combine to encode visually detailed memories.

D)memory is,in fact,just like a video recorder.

Q4) The worst that happens when hypnosis is used as an aid to memory in solving a crime is that

A)the subject is not susceptible to hypnotic suggestion.

B)hypnotized witnesses lack confidence in their memories when they testify.

C)testimony based on hypnotic induction is not believed by juries.

D)additional memories are produced that are largely false.

Page 35

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Chapter 34: Memory: Forgetting

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Q1) Patterns of blood flow within the brain show that the front of the brain cortex is related more to _______ memories.

A)episodic

B)semantic

C)procedural

D)skill

Q2) The graph that shows the amount of memorized information remembered after varying lengths of time is called the

A)scatter plot of memory loss.

B)histogram of retention.

C)memory interference scatter plot.

D)curve of forgetting.

Q3) Memory loss accompanying electroconvulsive shock probably occurs because A)consolidation is disrupted.

B)memory decay is accelerated.

C)powerful emotions are aroused.

D)neurons are destroyed.

Q4) Ebbinghaus plotted a graph that showed the amount of information remembered after varying lengths of time with this graph being called the _______.

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Chapter 35: Memory: Exceptional Memory and Improving Memory

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Q1) Regarding the review of material before a test,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Hold the amount of new material to be studied to a minimum during the review before a test.

B)Reviewing shortly before an exam cuts down the time during which you must remember details that may be important for the test.

C)Last minute cramming of a large amount of new material has not been shown to interfere with what you already know.

D)Review is considered a type of retrieval practice.

Q2) Recitation is effective in improving memory because it

A)provides a protection against interference.

B)forces one to practice retrieving information.

C)provides insight into unconscious processes that may distort memory.

D)changes sensory memory.

Q3) To learn college-level information,you must mentally reflect and look for connections between the information you are learning and your existing knowledge,a strategy known as _______.

Q4) Explain the differences in mental images and eidetic imagery.

Page 37

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Chapter 36: Psychology in Action: Mnemonics

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Q1) To remember the Spanish word "gato" for cat,you link the English word cat to the word gate by imagining "a cat sitting on a gate." You are using the _______ method.

Q2) An excellent technique to use when you want to work "backward" from an English word to a foreign vocabulary word is the _______ method.

A)mental walk

B)keyword

C)acrostic

D)story-chain

Q3) Mnemonic memories work best in the short run and are more fragile than conventional memories.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Provide an example of how each of the following mnemonic methods could be used to remember a psychology concept or term: (a)the keyword method, (b)forming a story or a chain, (c)taking a mental walk,and (d)using a system.

Q5) The four basic principles of mnemonics are (1)make things meaningful, (2)make information familiar, (3)form bizarre,unusual,or exaggerated mental associations,and (4)use _______.

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Page 38

Chapter 37: Cognition and Intelligence: Imagery, Concepts, and Language

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Q1) When we group together all cars,regardless of the make of an individual car,because they share common characteristics or attributes,we are using A)algorithms.

B)heuristics.

C)concept formation.

D)divergent thinking.

Q2) A form of imagery in which images cross normal sense barriers,such as sounds being experienced as colors,is called A)synesthesia.

B)hallucinations.

C)eidetic imagery.

D)pseudoperceptions.

Q3) Images,concepts,and symbols are A)types of morphemes.

B)examples of heuristics.

C)types of semantics.

D)basic units of thought.

Q4) The basic units of thought: concepts,language,and _______.

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Q5) The process of thinking or mentally processing information is called _______.

Chapter 38: Cognition and Intelligence: Problem Solving

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Q1) Regarding fixation,which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Fixation is also known as conditional thinking.

B)Fixation is a way of using insight to solve a problem.

C)Fixation is a type of mnemonic device.

D)Fixation is a barrier to problem solving.

Q2) You tell your parents about the "funny stories" that your psychology teacher uses to explain various concepts and theories.Your parents respond that they are not sending you to college to hear "funny stories" and that the teacher should lecture on the subject like when they went to college.Which barrier to problem solving is illustrated by your parents' comment?

A)emotional barrier

B)cultural barrier

C)learned barrier

D)perceptual barrier

Q3) Amateurs become experts in their fields when they start basing their solutions on

A)trial and error methods.

B)rote learning.

C)understanding.

D)the use of algorithms.

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Page 40

Chapter 39: Cognition and Intelligence: Creative Thinking and Intuition

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Q1) Scores on the Rorschach inkblot test include a consideration of how unusual a person's responses are.This aspect of the test is similar to a measure of creativity known as

A)fluency.

B)flexibility.

C)originality.

D)logic.

Q2) Which stage of creative thought produces the "Aha!" experience and is often depicted in cartoons as a light bulb appearing over the thinker's head as the solution to the problem occurs?

A)verification

B)incubation

C)illumination

D)fixation

Q3) Which way of framing or stating a problem usually produces the best decision?

A)framing that is narrow and specific

B)framing that is broad

C)framing that is more convergent

D)framing that is simple and concise

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Chapter 40: Cognition and Intelligence: Intelligence

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Q1) A bell-shaped curve characterized by a large number of scores in the middle area,tapering to very few extremely high or low scores is referred to as a(n) _______ curve.

Q2) Occupations,such as art,music,writing,dramatics,science,and leadership,have been shown to be strongly related to A)IQ scores.

B)training.

C)creativity.

D)school grades.

Q3) If one psychologist administers a test simultaneously to several people with minimal supervision,it must be a(n) __________ test.

A)projective

B)performance

C)group

D)individual

Q4) An intellectual disability is defined as having an IQ score of approximately 70 or below and a significant difficulty with abilities,such as dressing,eating,communicating,shopping,or working,which are called _______ behaviors.

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Chapter 41: Psychology in Action: Enhancing Creativity

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Q1) Randomly looking up words in a dictionary is a way to seek varied input and enhance creativity,according to creativity researcher

A)Nalini Ambady.

B)Edward de Bono.

C)Malcolm Gladwell.

D)Howard Gardner.

Q2) When ideas are freely generated during brainstorming,it

A)leads to faulty logic.

B)results in the cognitive overload effect.

C)leads to functional fixedness.

D)enhances creativity.

Q3) Which of the following psychologists states that one can become more creative by "making a commitment to do things well,seeking challenges,following what sparks one's interests,and taking time for thinking and relaxing"?

A)Mihalyi Csikszentmihalyi

B)Howard Gardner

C)Malcolm Gladwell

D)Nalini Ambady

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43

Chapter 42: Motivation and Emotion: Overview of Motives and Emotions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Emotional expressions are the part of emotion with which we are usually most familiar.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Basic emotions,such as fear,are likely first processed by subcortical brain structures in the

A)brain stem.

B)reticular activating system.

C)limbic system.

D)endocrine system.

Q3) According to Maslow,needs associated with impulses for self-actualization,such as perfection,justice,and beauty,are called

A)prepotent needs.

B)meta-needs.

C)supportive needs.

D)autonomy needs.

Q4) The value of a goal above and beyond its ability to fill a need is known as its homeostatic value.

A)True B)False

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Chapter 43: Motivation and Emotion: Motivation in Detail

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Sample Questions

Q1) For most normal daily activities,arousal is

A)zero.

B)low.

C)moderate.

D)high.

Q2) Regarding sex as a biological motive,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Most psychologists believe that sex is necessary for individual survival.

B)In lower mammals,a normal male is almost always ready to mate.

C)In lower mammals,the normal female is interested in mating only when their fertility cycles are in the stage of estrus.

D)In lower animals,the sex drive is directly related to hormones.

Q3) According to the Yerkes-Dodson law,optimum performance on tasks which are simple and direct occurs at levels of arousal that are

A)higher than normal.

B)lower than normal.

C)moderate.

D)almost zero.

Q4) The period during which female animals are sexually receptive is called "heat" or _______.

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Chapter 44: Motivation and Emotion: Emotion in Detail

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Q1) According to the Cannon-Bard theory,

A)the thalamus plays a central role in producing emotions.

B)the cerebellum must give the go-ahead for emotion.

C)activity in the occipital and parietal lobes happens simultaneously to produce emotion.

D)the somatic and sympathetic nervous systems work in concert.

Q2) After a strong emotional shock,the parasympathetic system may overreact and A)raise your blood pressure too much.

B)cause extreme irritability and nervousness.

C)cause a severe migraine headache to occur.

D)lower your blood pressure too much.

Q3) A person taking a "lie detector" test may be asked a question,such as "Was the gun that killed Hensley a,a)Colt, b)Smith & Wesson,c)Walther PPK,or d)Luger?" A guilty person should show more reaction on the polygraph to the correct gun,while an innocent person should the same reaction to all four responses.This type of questioning is part of the __________ test.

A)connotative guilt

B)guilty knowledge

C)relevant details

D)critical incidents

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Chapter 45: Psychology in Action: Emotional Intelligence

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Q1) LaTara is very good at sensing what her friends are feeling,but she tends to have difficulty interpreting her own emotions.In terms of emotional intelligence,LaTara is able to exhibit

A)empathy but has difficulty perceiving her own emotions.

B)bidirectional communication but has difficulty exhibiting empathy.

C)emotional flexibility but has difficulty with emotional conceptualization.

D)bidirectional awareness but has difficulty with cognitions related to self-control.

Q2) Discuss how emotionally intelligent people perceive,use,understand,and manage their emotions.

Q3) A lack of emotional intelligence can ruin careers and sabotage achievement.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Unlike alexithymic people,emotionally intelligent people

A)use objective,rational approaches to make decisions.

B)are aware and are able to recognize their own emotions.

C)focus on positive emotions and suppress negative emotions.

D)do all of these.

Q5) In making choices,sensible but emotionally empty decisions tend to be made if one uses extremely _______ approaches.

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Chapter 46: Human Sexuality: Sexual Development and Orientation

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Q1) Sex as indicated by a preponderance of estrogens (female)or androgens (male)in the body refers to

A)genetic sex.

B)gonadal sex.

C)hormonal sex.

D)gender identity.

Q2) Regarding sexual orientation,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Sexual orientation is a very deep part of personal identity.

B)The chances are practically nil of an exclusively heterosexual or homosexual person being "converted" from one sexual orientation to the other.

C)Sexual orientation is usually quite stable,although,for some people,sexual behavior may change during the course of a lifetime.

D)Sexual orientation is mainly a learned behavior and,therefore,very unstable and changeable.

Q3) A child that is born with an XX pair of chromosomes is genetically considered to A)have Turner's syndrome.

B)have Klinefelter's syndrome.

C)be male.

D)be female.

Page 48

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Chapter 47: Human Sexuality: Gender Development,

Androgyny, and Gender

Variance

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Q1) Four-year-old Debbie tells her father that she wants to fix cars and be a race car driver when she grows up.Her father tells her that she cannot do that because a person has to be "strong and rough and has to understand how machines work,and women have trouble doing that." Debbie's father is

A)explaining how biological biasing affects one's choice of occupations.

B)encouraging gender role stereotypes.

C)explaining what men and women are allowed to do in the American culture.

D)defining society's sexual scripts.

Q2) The researcher who created a sex role inventory that consists of 20 "masculine" traits,20 "feminine" traits,and 20 "neutral" traits was _______.

Q3) Regarding the way children play,

A)girls tend to play indoors and near adults.

B)girls like games that require a lot of verbal give-and-take.

C)boys tend to be more concerned with dominance or who is the boss than girls.

D)all of these statements are true.

Q4) The stress associated with a conflict between your personal "reality" and the expectations associated with a gender role is called _______.

Q5) Your personal,private sense of maleness or femaleness is your _______.

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Chapter 48: Human Sexuality: Sexual Behavior, Response, and Attitudes

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Q1) Which of the following tend to voluntarily associate with people who share their sexual interests and whose sexual behavior only becomes harmful when it becomes extreme?

A)masochists and sadists

B)pedophiles and fetishists

C)frotteurists and transvestites

D)voyeurs and exhibitionists

Q2) It is important to realize that many people who do transmit STDs are initially A)noninfectious.

B)androgynous.

C)androgenital.

D)asymptomatic.

Q3) Discuss Masters' and Johnson's findings regarding the male and female sexual response phases,indicating how these phases are similar and how they are different.

Q4) The growths that occur have to be removed from the genitals by surgery or laser when a person contracts the sexually transmitted disease called _______.

Q5) After orgasm,men experience a short phase during which a second orgasm is impossible,which is referred to as the __________ period.

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Chapter 49: Psychology in Action: Sexual Problems

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Q1) When a disorder,such as erectile dysfunction has a psychological,rather than a physical cause,it is said to be

A)primary.

B)secondary.

C)organic.

D)psychogenic.

Q2) Treatment of genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder is similar to what might be done for a nonsexual phobia.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Hypoactive sexual desire is

A)more common in women.

B)more common in men.

C)equally common in men and women.

D)more common in younger women and older men.

Q4) Roughly what percent of all cases of erectile dysfunction are organic in nature?

A)20 percent

B)40 percent

C)60 percent

D)75 percent

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Chapter 50: Personality: Overview of Personality

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Q1) When Jerome took the MMPI-2,he displayed a pattern of responses that indicated the presence of extreme suspiciousness and feelings of persecution.Jerome most likely had a high score on which clinical subscale of the MMPI-2?

A)mania

B)hysteria

C)paranoia

D)psychopathic deviate

Q2) In working with his clients and in his lectures at the university,Dr.Ferris tends to explain personality and various psychological disorders in terms of a person's responses being reinforced or punished as they were growing up.Dr.Ferris places the most importance on which theories of personality?

A)humanistic theories

B)psychodynamic theories

C)behaviorist theories

D)trait theories

Q3) Tony would be described as a shy,reserved person who focuses most of the time on his own thoughts rather than the outside world.Tony would be referred to as a(n)

Q4) A person's unique and enduring behavior patterns define his or her _______.

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Chapter 51: Personality: Trait Theories

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Q1) Margarita's traits have been assessed using the 16 PF.The graph of her scores on this measure is called a(n)

Q2) Eysenck saw the characteristics of personality as being related to the four types of temperament first recognized by the early Greeks.Which of the following is the correct match between the temperament and its definition?

A)melancholic---sluggish,calm

B)choleric--------hot-tempered,irritable

C)sanguine-------sad,gloomy

D)phlegmatic-----cheerful,hopeful

Q3) Sissy approaches most situations with optimism but tends to expect the worst each time she applies for a job and worries that she won't get it.If her pessimism is limited to this situation or just a few others,then

A)optimism would still be considered a stable disposition for Sissy.

B)pessimism would be a more accurate trait with which to describe Sissy.

C)neither the trait of optimism nor the trait of pessimism should be used to describe Sissy.

D)trait theory would not be a good way to describe or predict Sissy's behavior.

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Chapter 52: Personality: Psychoanalytic and Humanistic

Theories

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Freud,children from age six to puberty experience a quiet,settled time when psychosexual development is "on hold." This is called the _______ period.

A)phallic

B)anal

C)latency

D)genital

Q2) Which theory focuses on our experiences,problems,potentials,and ideals and emphasizes a positive image of people as creative beings capable of free will?

A)psychodynamic theory

B)humanism

C)social learning theory

D)behaviorism

Q3) Freud's theory remains influential because he

A)pioneered the idea of unconscious processes.

B)pioneered the idea of organismic valuing and the possible selves.

C)emphasized that the key to a healthy personality was fixation.

D)used scientific methods to verify his findings and to predict future behavior.

Q4) Threats of punishment from the superego cause _______ anxiety.

Page 54

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Chapter 53: Personality: Behavioral and Social Learning

Theories

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Q1) Connie and Sue are identical twins reared apart and recently reunited.Carl and Fred are unrelated students at a major university.Which of the following statements is TRUE of these pairings?

A)Connie and Sue will probably show a long list of amazing similarities,while Carl and Fred will only share a couple of similarities.

B)Connie and Sue will probably share many similarities;Carl and Fred may share many similarities but are probably not motivated enough to discover them.

C)Connie and Sue will not share as many similarities as will Carl and Fred.

D)Connie and Sue will have more differences than will Carl and Fred.

Q2) The four critical situations Miller and Dollard consider important in the development of personality involved sex,aggression,

A)feeding,and toliet training.

B)cleanliness,and language.

C)attachment,and imitation.

D)social learning,and imitation.

Q3) The "cognitive behaviorism" of social learning theory can be illustrated by three concepts proposed by Julian Rotter, which are the psychological situation,expectancy,and _______.

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Chapter 54: Psychology in Action: Understanding Shyness

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Q1) In starting a conversation,it is best to use a type of question that will gain extra information about the person with whom you are speaking.This type of question is called a(n) _______ question.

Q2) Shyness is most often triggered by which type of social situations?

A)small group

B)large group

C)novel or unfamiliar

D)informal

Q3) Shy people tend to blame circumstances for their social failures and give themselves credit for social successes.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Marilyn who is shy has decided to set reasonable goals for expanding her social experience and skills and to not wait until she is completely relaxed or comfortable before taking a social risk.Marilyn will likely

A)still be shy since these are self-defeating beliefs.

B)increase her private self-consciousness.

C)reduce her shyness with these productive beliefs.

D)increase her evaluation fears and her social anxiety.

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Chapter 55: Health, Stress, and Coping: Health Psychology

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Q1) Stress can be caused by which of the following?

A)travel

B)work pressures

C)sports

D)all of these

Q2) A healthy lifestyle may include a fair amount of "good stress," which is referred to as A)microstressors.

B)LCUs.

C)eustress.

D)a hardy stress reaction.

Q3) In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome does the body mobilize its resources to cope with added stress by producing more adrenaline,noradrenaline,and cortisol?

A)alarm reaction

B)activation phase

C)stage of resistance

D)defensive reaction

Q4) Behaviors that increase the chances of disease,injury,or premature death are called _______ factors.

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Chapter

56: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress, Frustration, and Conflict

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Q1) When one uses the pattern of integration in adapting to a new culture,he or she can expect to experience

A)high stress.

B)moderate stress but with extreme social difficulties.

C)moderate stress but with fewer social difficulties.

D)minimal stress.

Q2) Choosing between your aunt's white chocolate raspberry cheesecake and your grandmother's banana pudding, both of which you love,would be a(n) _______ conflict.

Q3) In adapting to a new culture,the pattern that involves adopting the new culture as your own and having frequent contact with its members is known as A)assimilation.

B)marginalization.

C)integration.

D)separation.

Q4) When emotional "shocks" are predictable and controllable,stress is magnified and damage is likely to result.

A)True

B)False

58

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Chapter 57: Health, Stress, and Coping: Defenses, Helplessness,

and Depression

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Q1) Discuss how the "college blues," or mild depression affects college students,the reasons many college students suffer from this mild depression,how to distinguish the "college blues" from a more serious type of depression,and ways to combat the "college blues."

Q2) As a consequence of his horrendous nightmares,Steve channeled these diabolical images and thoughts into becoming a mystery writer.Which of the following defense mechanisms is he using?

A)regression

B)rationalization

C)reaction formation

D)sublimation

Q3) Often when a newborn baby is brought home from the hospital,the preschool sibling will begin to exhibit behaviors,such as sucking his or her thumb or wetting the bed.These reactions illustrate which defense mechanism?

A)compensation

B)repression

C)reaction formation

D)regression

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Chapter 58: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress and Health

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Q1) If people have support from others and the skills needed to cope with challenge,then A)their "negative" experiences can actually enhance personal growth.

B)they are more likely to seek and accept easy comfort,security,and routine.

C)they are more likely to see themselves passively as victims of circumstances.

D)their emotions will tend to be suppressed and not expressed outwardly.

Q2) Many psychosomatic problems are the result of A)prolonged stress.

B)imagination.

C)sleep deprivation.

D)a nutritional deficiency.

Q3) The qualities that psychologist Salvatore Maddi found in people he described as having a hardy personality include

A)a sense that things in life are determined by external forces. B)control over their lives and work.

C)a tendency to see life as a struggle and full of suffering.

D)a tendency to avoid extra responsibilities.

Q4) Explain the benefits of positive emotions and the advantages of being an optimist in life.

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Chapter 59: Psychology in Action: Stress Management

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Q1) When dealing with a stressful situation,statements,such as "I can do this," and "I'll just take it one task at a time" are examples of

A)overly unrealistic thinking.

B)coping statements.

C)the K.I.S.S.strategy.

D)accepting your limits.

Q2) Each evening before going to bed,Michelle tightens all the muscles in her feet,then voluntarily relaxes them.Then she tightens all the muscles in her legs,then voluntarily relaxes them.She does this all the way to her head.Michelle is practicing the technique of

Q3) Jeff has just found out that he has three tests scheduled for the same day.His heart is pounding,his breathing is shallow,and his muscles are tense.Jeff is currently experiencing which element often triggered by stress?

A)upsetting thoughts

B)ineffective behavior

C)bodily effects

D)parasympathetic arousal

Q4) Self-critical thoughts that increase anxiety and lower performance are called _______.

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Chapter 60: Psychological Disorders: Normality and Psychopathology

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Q1) Neurosis is an outdated term not found in the current diagnostic manual but with people still using this term to loosely refer to problems involving excessive anxiety.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If Marty is exhibiting maladaptive behavior,we would expect him to

A)exhibit behavior that is culturally relative but statistically rare.

B)show social nonconforming behavior that may or may not be statistically rare.

C)show a lack of consistent happiness and sociability in his life.

D)have an underlying psychological or biological dysfunction that makes it difficult for him to meet the demands of day-to-day life.

Q3) Sexual dysfunctions involve

A)the different paraphilias.

B)deviations in sexual behavior,such as pedophilia.

C)one's sexual identity not matching one's physical sex.

D)problems in sexual desire,arousal,or response.

Q4) The general risk factors that contribute to psychopathology are biological/organic factors,psychological factors,social conditions,and _______ factors.

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Chapter 61: Psychological Disorders: Psychosis, Delusional Disorders,

and Schizophrenia

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Q1) Harold has kept his wife a prisoner in their home for the last ten years.He disconnects the phone and locks her in the house everyday.Harold believes that his wife will be unfaithful if she ever leaves the house without him.Harold is suffering from which type of delusional disorder?

A)jealous

B)marital

C)erotomanic

D)persecutory

Q2) Regarding psychoses that are directly caused by physical damage to the brain,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Children who eat leaded paint or breathe leaded paint powder can become psychotic or intellectually disabled.

B)Children with higher levels of lead in their blood are more likely to be arrested as adults for criminal offenses.

C)"Poisoning" in the form of drug abuse can produce deviant behavior and psychotic symptoms.

D)Somatic symptom disorders are serious mental impairments in old age caused by deterioration of the brain.

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Chapter 62: Psychological Disorders: Mood Disorders

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Q1) Women are 50 percent more likely to experience depression than men,with the main reason for this difference being

A)sex-linked traits.

B)hormonal levels.

C)differences in the size of the corpus callosum and the amygdala.

D)social and environmental conditions.

Q2) SAD stands for

A)situational affected depression.

B)seasonal affective disorder.

C)sensory attributed depression.

D)simulated apathy disorder.

Q3) Explain the role that biology plays in the development of mood disorders,including one's genetic vulnerability and the effects of different levels of brain chemicals and transmitter substances;discuss the psychoanalytic,behavioral,and cognitive explanations for mood disorders and the effects of social and environmental stresses.

Q4) Major disturbances in emotion are among the most serious of all psychological conditions and are referred to as __________ disorders.

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Chapter 63: Psychological Disorders: Anxiety-Based

Disorders and Personality Disorders

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Q1) Which of the following is the new disorder in the DSM-5 that literally means "body-form" disorder?

A)psychosomatic disorder

B)somatic symptom disorder

C)somatic delusional disorder

D)dissociative identity disorder

Q2) Munchausen syndrome and Munchausen by proxy syndrome are types of _______ disorders.

A)factitious

B)obsessive-compulsive and related

C)neurocognitive

D)dissociative

Q3) Which of the following would NOT be considered a trauma- and stress-related disorder?

A)acute stress disorder

B)adjustment disorder

C)anxiety disorder

D)post-traumatic stress disorder

Q4) If a person fakes the medical problems of someone in his or her care,he or she would be diagnosed with Munchausen _______ syndrome

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Chapter 64: Psychology in Action: Suicide

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Q1) In 90 percent of all suicides,a diagnosable mental disorder is a factor and is usually either depression or a(n) __________ disorder.

A)obsessive-compulsive

B)dissociative identity

C)conversion

D)substance abuse

Q2) Which of the following represents the most serious need for crisis intervention?

A)A person confides in a friend the details of a feasible plan for killing himself with carbon monoxide.

B)After surviving a car accident,a young man takes up several high-risk activities,including hang gliding.

C)After weeks of depression,a woman abruptly gives away a book autographed by her favorite author.

D)The most serious sign is no sign at all - most people give no warning before attempting suicide.

Q3) Describe the specific ways that you can help a friend who is having mild suicidal thoughts and what you should do if a suicide attempt appears imminent.

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Chapter 65: Therapies: Treating Psychological Distress

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Q1) Regarding commercial telephone and Internet therapy,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Psychologists licensed in one state can legally do therapy in any other state via the telephone or the Internet.

B)Compared with traditional office visits,distance therapies are less expensive.

C)The Internet makes it possible to create two-way audio-video links,and although it still lacks the close personal contact of face-to-face interaction,it removes many of the objections to doing therapy at a distance.

D)Clients can more easily remain anonymous using Internet therapies,although emails may not be completely confidential since it is possible for emails to be intercepted and misused.

Q2) Regarding how therapies are conducted,the basic aspects described in your textbook include all of the following EXCEPT whether the psychotherapy is A)nondirective versus directive.

B)insight versus action.

C)chronic versus acute.

D)individual versus group.

Q3) The first true psychotherapy was _______.

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Chapter 66: Therapies: Humanistic and Cognitive Therapies

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Q1) According to logotherapy,even in less dire circumstances,which of the following adds greatly to one's psychological well-being?

A)reducing one's use of defense mechanisms

B)understanding one's unconscious motives

C)having a sense of purpose in life

D)the ability to think rationally

Q2) Which therapy states that events do not cause us to have feelings,rather we feel the way we do because of our beliefs?

A)rational-emotive behavior therapy

B)psychodynamic therapy

C)existential therapy

D)client-centered therapy

Q3) Compared to a psychoanalyst,a psychologist practicing client-centered psychotherapy is more likely to use

A)an analysis of resistance and transference.

B)hypnotic regression.

C)an exploration of conscious thoughts and feelings.

D)tactics to uncover repressed memories.

Q4) Rational-emotive behavior therapy was developed by _______.

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Chapter 67: Therapies: Behavior Therapies

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Q1) When a response is followed by a reward,this response will occur more often.This illustrates

A)stimulus control.

B)time out.

C)positive reinforcement.

D)situationally controlled.

Q2) Learning exercises that produce total relaxation while experiencing disturbing items in a hierarchy of fear-provoking situations is based on A)reciprocal inhibition.

B)aversion conditioning.

C)vicarious conditioning.

D)cognitive therapy.

Q3) Systematic desensitization involves A)transference and resistance.

B)reflection and empathy.

C)a hierarchy and relaxation.

D)confrontation and rational thinking.

Q4) The use of classical or operant conditioning to directly alter human responses is known as _______.

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Chapter 68: Therapies: Medical Therapies

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Q1) Although major tranquilizers have relieved the symptoms of schizophrenia in some previously "hopeless" cases,15 percent of patients taking major tranquilizers for long periods develop

A)Alzheimer's Disease.

B)vision problems and possible blindness.

C)a non-remitting relapse within ten years.

D)a neurological disorder that causes rhythmic facial and mouth movements.

Q2) Somatic therapy includes pharmacotherapy,psychosurgery,and

A)eye movement desensitization and reprocessing.

B)REBT.

C)aversion therapy.

D)brain stimulation therapy.

Q3) Regarding halfway houses,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Halfway houses are designed to ease a patient's return to the community.

B)Halfway houses are helpful in keeping patients close to their families.

C)Halfway houses can reduce a person's chances of being readmitted to a hospital.

D)Halfway houses are examples of partial hospitalization.

Q4) Major tranquilizers are also referred to as _______ drugs.

Q5) The use of drugs to treat psychopathology is called drug therapy,or _______.

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Chapter 69: Psychology in Action: Self-Management and Seeking Professional Help

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Q1) The best definition of a peer counselor is a

A)graduate student finishing his or her internship in counseling.

B)nonprofessional person who has learned basic counseling skills.

C)member of a self-help group who has the same type of problem as you do.

D)counselor with training and qualifications similar to a licensed psychotherapist.

Q2) To reduce the time you spend watching TV,you vividly imagine yourself failing an important exam because you watched TV rather than studying.This technique is called

A)stimulus substitution.

B)thought control.

C)covert sensitization.

D)thought stopping.

Q3) During self-directed desensitization,when one reaches a card that cannot be visualized without becoming tense in three attempts,one skips this card and proceeds to the next one.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Although a psychiatrist can administer somatic therapy and prescribe drugs,so can psychologists in New Mexico and __________.

Page 71

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Chapter 70: Social Psychology: Social Behavior and Cognition

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Q1) All groups have unspoken rules of conduct,which establish acceptable behavior in most situations and are referred to as social __________.

Q2) Group structure refers to the

A)strength of the group members' desire to remain in the group.

B)accepted but unspoken standard of conduct for appropriate behavior.

C)organization of roles,communication,and power in the group.

D)degree of attraction among group members.

Q3) You chose your major because of all the opportunities available in the health field,while your rommate chose a degree in finance because he tends to be "greedy and money­hungry." In attributing cause to your behavior of choosing a major and that of your roommate,you have exhibited

A)the low-ball technique.

B)social stereotyping.

C)attributional discrimination.

D)the actor-observer bias.

Q4) The degree of attraction among group members or their commitment to remaining in the group is referred to as group __________.

Q5) The process of making inferences about behavior is known as _______.

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Chapter 71: Social Psychology: Social Influence

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Q1) Recruits are asked to make an escalating series of commitments ending in signing over a bank account or property to the group,moving in with the group,and so forth.Making such major public commitments creates a powerful __________ effect.

A)door-in-the-face

B)fundamental attribution

C)cognitive dissonance

D)broken record

Q2) Compared to attempts at persuasion,brainwashing

A)is much more subtle.

B)is practiced on a captive audience.

C)involves lasting attitude change.

D)relies more heavily on the cognitive dissonance effect.

Q3) In cult conversion,the leader's personality is more important than the beliefs she or he preaches.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Marc was a POW in Vietnam.He was placed in a tiny cell,beaten,and threatened with death on a daily basis.This treatment is a part of the phase of brainwashing known as _______.

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Chapter 72: Social Psychology: Pro-Social Behavior

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Q1) According to Robert Sternberg,different forms of love arise from different combinations of which three components?

A)intimacy,passion,and commitment

B)homogamy,affiliation,and social exchange

C)liking,loving,and similarity

D)self-disclosure,social comparison,and social exchange

Q2) According to Buss and other evolutionary psychologists,the differences between male and female mating patterns are primarily due to different A)levels of commitment.

B)reproductive challenges.

C)reasons for seeking emotional support.

D)needs for affiliation.

Q3) Homogamy is the term used to describe the A)civil union of a homosexual couple.

B)similarity of identical twins.

C)evolutionary origins of the human behavior patterns.

D)tendency we have to marry someone who is similar to us.

Q4) The likelihood that help will be given to a person in need is reduced when there are many people present due to a(n) _______ of responsibility.

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Chapter 73: Social Psychology: Antisocial Behavior

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Q1) The failure of integration in the schools to reduce prejudice is often caused by

A)equal-status contact among students.

B)the creation of superordinate goals.

C)the competitive nature of the schools.

D)the failure of most schools to truly integrate.

Q2) Vinnie is a sportswriter,who believes that black basketball players are naturally superior in athletic ability,while the white players are smarter and harder working than black players.Vinnie's false beliefs are common in sports and are examples of A)social stereotypes.

B)social dominations.

C)ethnocentricities.

D)dogmatic images.

Q3) According to social learning theory,TV violence often leads to children

A)learning new aggressive acts.

B)inhibiting aggressive impulses.

C)relieving their aggressive urges

D)becoming more sensitized to violence.

Q4) When people,who have an authoritarian personality,think their ethnic,national,or religious group is superior to others,they are displaying _______.

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Chapter 74: Psychology in Action: Multiculturalism

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Q1) Although placing people in categories makes the social world more manageable,it almost always causes people in the category to appear more similar than they are,which is the reason one should beware of _______.

Q2) Many times when stereotypes and prejudiced beliefs were learned in childhood,a person may still have lingering unconscious biases even when they are trying hard to "break the prejudice habit." This illustrates the occurrence of A)the stereotype threat.

B)explicit prejudice.

C)symbolic prejudice.

D)implicit prejudice.

Q3) Larry believes that members of another ethnic group are hostile and unfriendly.However,Larry tends to inadvertantly treat people in that group in ways that actually provoke hostile and unfriendly responses.Larry's stereotype of this ethnic group will be reinforced because Larry is unknowingly creating A)groupthink.

B)a just-world belief.

C)a self-fulfilling prophecy.

D)individuating information.

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Chapter 75: Applied Psychology: Industrialorganizational Psychology

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Q1) Regarding assessment centers,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Assessment centers have had considerable success in predicting performances in a variety of jobs,careers,and advanced positions.

B)Assessment centers utilize the leaderless group discussion and the in-basket test.

C)Many of the leading companies,such as Ford,IBM,and Sears,use assessment centers to select their executives and managers.

D)Assessment centers are used in designing work environments that decrease worker stress and increase organizational citizenship.

Q2) Flextime has been shown to decrease workers' productivity and increase absenteeism.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Scientific management,which uses task analysis and job specialization,is also called A)management by objectives.

B)Theory X leadership.

C)Theory Y leadership.

D)participative management.

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Chapter 76: Applied Psychology: Environmental Psychology

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Q1) The systematic study of the human use of space,particularly in social settings is called

A)kinesics.

B)ecopsychology.

C)proxemics.

D)territoriality.

Q2) College students who display posters on the walls of their dormitory rooms or apartments are demonstrating territorial marking.

A)True

B)False

Q3) According to Stanley Milgram,which of the following is a stressful condition caused when sensory stimulation,information,and social contacts make excessive demands on persons living in large densely-packed cities?

A)density bombardment

B)learned helplessness

C)territoriality

D)attentional overload

Q4) The world's population is now approximately _______ billion people.

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Chapter 77: Applied Psychology: the Psychology of

Education, Law, and Sports

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Q1) Regarding styles of teaching,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Teaching styles can have significant effects on students' interest,motivation,and creativity.

B)Discovery learning is somewhat better when learning is measured by tests of abstract thinking,creativity,and problem-solving.

C)Direct instruction is slightly better when learning is measured by the use of achievement test scores.

D)Direct instruction tends to produce students who are more independent,curious,and positive in their attitudes toward school.

Q2) Most members of death-qualified juries are white males with a high income and conservative and authoritarian attitudes.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Discuss four problem areas regarding jury deliberations.

Q4) Sports psychologists have found that children are more likely to benefit from participation in sports when competition is emphasized.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 78: Psychology in Action: Human Factors

Psychology

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Q1) Describe five factors that must be considered in designing a space station in order to accommodate human needs,reduce stress,and help the crews work more effectively.

Q2) One interesting form of usability testing involves people verbalizing their thoughts as they use a machine.This is called the

A)marketing metaphor.

B)thinking aloud protocol.

C)telepresence design.

D)natural design metaphor.

Q3) In which of the following approaches are people's actual performances compared with what they are thinking and make it possible to fine-tune the details of a design?

A)marketing metaphor

B)thinking aloud protocol

C)telepresence design

D)natural design metaphor

Q4) According to Psychologist Donald Norman,the row of vertical buttons in elevators that mimic the layout of the floors is an example of a(n) _______ design.

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Chapter 79: Behavioral Statistics

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Q1) On a graph,the horizontal line or the X axis is called the A)abscissa.

B)ordinate.

C)standard deviation.

D)central tendency.

Q2) The variability of a set of scores refers to which aspect of those scores?

A)average

B)spread

C)uniqueness

D)probability

Q3) Which type of statistics are used to summarize large amounts of data so that they become more meaningful and easier to communicate to others?

A)descriptive

B)inferential

C)nominal

D)ordinal

Q4) Explain the purpose of inferential statistics and how samples and populations are utilized to fulfill this purpose;and explain how a sample is chosen,and why it is chosen in this manner.

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Chapter 80: Life After School

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Q1) You have just graduated from college with a bachelor's degree in psychology.The focus of your academic research during this four-year degree was hypnosis.Besides a knowledge of hypnosis,what other skills have you developed?

A)how to read primary research literature

B)how to find information on your own

C)how to write reports and speak in front of an audience

D)all of these

Q2) You have just obtained a bachelor's degree in psychology.Regarding the skills you have developed to this point, which of the following would NOT be a potential area of employment?

A)educational psychologist

B)psychiatric assistant

C)government researcher

D)probation or parole officer

Q3) The discussion of these topics develops psychology students' _______ skills.

Q4) Psychology majors can become student members of the American Psychological Association as well as other national psychology organizations.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 81: Understanding Descriptive and Inferential

Statistics for Psychological Research

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Q1) Groups of scores from distributions that are approximately normal can be compared because the relationship does not change between the normal curve and the A)standard deviation.

B)median.

C)mode.

D)coefficient of correlation.

Q2) The Pearson r is the most commonly used

A)measure of central tendency.

B)correlation coefficient.

C)measure of variability.

D)standard score.

Q3) Dr.Rodriquez discovers that the more education people have,the more money they tend to earn.Dr.Rodriquez has illustrated a(n) _______ correlation.

Q4) Histograms and frequency polygons are visual representations of

A)frequency distributions.

B)nominal scales.

C)inferential statistics.

D)differential statistics.

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Q5) When measure X gets larger,measure Y gets smaller in a(n) _______ correlation.

Chapter 82: The Competencies of the Undergraduate

Psychology Major

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Q1) You have just graduated from college with a bachelor's degree in psychology.The focus of your academic research during this four-year degree was hypnosis.You should expect to

A)be unemployable.

B)only find a job after obtaining a graduate degree in this field.

C)find work immediately as a hypnosis researcher.

D)have learned and practiced many skills that would be an asset to many different types of companies.

Q2) According to the Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,being able to plan and conduct experiments and collect and interpret data would most fully meet which of the following competencies?

A)knowledge base of psychology

B)values in psychology

C)information and technological literacy

D)research methods in psychology

Q3) The discussion of these topics is developing the students'

A)use of intuition.

B)study skills.

C)research skills.

D)experiential cognition.

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