Survey of Physics Practice Exam - 3821 Verified Questions

Survey of Physics Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Survey of Physics provides a comprehensive overview of fundamental concepts in physics, designed for students from diverse academic backgrounds. The course covers key topics such as mechanics, thermodynamics, electromagnetism, optics, and modern physics, emphasizing both conceptual understanding and practical application. Through a combination of lectures, demonstrations, and problem-solving exercises, students gain insight into the physical laws governing the natural world, the scientific method, and the relevance of physics in everyday life and technological advancements.

Recommended Textbook College Physics A Strategic Approach 3rd Edition by Randall D. Knigh

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30 Chapters

3821 Verified Questions

3821 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Representing Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) An oak tree was planted \(22 \text { years }\) ago. How many seconds does this correspond to? (Do not take leap days into account.)

A) 6.9 × 10⁸

B) 1.2 × 10⁷

C) 2.9 × 10⁷

D) 2.8 × 10⁸

Answer: A

Q2) In the sum A + B + C, A is accurate to 5 decimal places, B is accurate to 2 decimal places, and C is accurate to 3 decimal places. What is the correct number of decimal places in the sum?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

E) 10

Answer: A

Q3) A 2.00-qt bottle of soda is on sale for $1.29. What should be the price of a 2.00-L bottle of the same soda to yield the same value? (1.00 qt = 0.947 L)

Answer: $1.36

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the absence of air resistance, a ball is thrown vertically upward with initial speed v. An identical ball is thrown upward with initial speed 2v. If the first ball reaches a maximum height h, what maximum height will the second ball reach?

A) 8h

B) 4h

C) 2h

D) \(\sqrt { 2 }\) h

E) h

Answer: B

Q2) You drive 6.0 km at 50 km/h and then another 6.0 km at 90 km/h. Your average speed over the 12 km drive will be

A) greater than 70 km/h.

B) equal to 70 km/h.

C) less than 70 km/h.

D) exactly 38 km/h.

E) It cannot be determined from the information given because we must also know directions traveled.

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Vectors and Motion in Two Dimensions

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Sample Questions

Q1) An athlete participates in an interplanetary discus throw competition during an Olympiad that takes place on a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is 9.7 m/s². He throws the discus with an initial velocity of 20 m/s at an angle of 60° from the vertical. Neglecting air resistance and the height of the discus at the point of release, what is the range of the discus?

A) 21 m

B) 60 m

C) 36 m

D) 40 m

E) 32 m

Q2) If a vector \(\vec { A }\) has components A_x > 0, and A_y < 0, then the angle that this vector makes with the positive x-axis must be in the range

A) 0° to 90°

B) 90° to 180°

C) 180° to 270°

D) 270° to 360°

E) cannot be determined without additional information

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Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) An object that weighs 75 N is pulled on a horizontal surface by a horizontal pull of 50 N to the right. The friction force on this object is 30 N to the left. What is the acceleration of the object?

A) 0.27 m/s²

B) 1.1 m/s²

C) 2.6 m/s²

D) 11 m/s²

Q2) A certain aircraft has a mass of 300,000 kg. At a certain instant during its landing, its speed is 27.0 m/s. If the braking force is a constant 445,000 N, what is the speed of the airplane 10.0 s later?

A) 10.0 m/s

B) 12.2 m/s

C) 14.0 m/s

D) 18.0 m/s

E) 20.0 m/s

Q3) If the rockets of a spaceship in outer space (far from all gravity) suddenly lose power and go off, the spaceship will gradually slow to a stop.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Applying Newtons Laws

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 55-kg box rests on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of static friction between the box and the surface is 0.30, and the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.20. What horizontal force must be applied to the box to cause it to start sliding along the surface?

Q2) Two objects have masses m and 5m, respectively. They both are placed side by side on a frictionless inclined ramp and allowed to slide down from rest without any air resistance. Which one of the following statements about these objects is correct?

A) It takes the lighter object 5 times longer to reach the bottom of the ramp than the heavier.

B) It takes the lighter object 10 times longer to reach the bottom of the ramp than the heavier.

C) It takes the heavier object 5 times longer to reach the bottom of the ramp than the lighter.

D) It takes the heavier object 10 times longer to reach the bottom of the ramp than the lighter.

E) The two objects reach the bottom of the ramp at exactly the same time.

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Chapter 6: Gravity

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Sample Questions

Q1) At their closest approach, Venus and Earth are 4.20 × 10¹⁰ m apart. The mass of Venus is 4.87 × 10²⁴ kg, the mass of Earth is 5.97 × 10²⁴ kg, and G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N m²/kg².

What is the magnitude of the gravitational force exerted by Venus on Earth at that point?

A) 1.10 × 10¹⁸ N

B) 4.62 × 10²⁸ N

C) 5.43 × 10²⁶ N

D) 6.30 × 10²⁰ N

E) 1.72 × 10¹⁹ N

Q2) From what height above the surface of the earth should an object be dropped to initially experience an acceleration of 0.54g?

(G = 6.67 × 10^-1¹ N m²/kg²,

M_earth = 5.97 × 10²⁴ kg, R_earth = 6.38 × 10⁶ m)

A) 2300 km

B) 1700 km

C) 5400 km

D) 2900 km

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Chapter 7: Rotational Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) The diameter of the Moon is 3.47 × 10⁶ m, and it subtends an angle of 0.00904 rad when viewed from the surface of Earth. How far is the Moon from Earth?

Q2) A rolling wheel of diameter of 68 cm slows down uniformly from 8.4 m/s to rest over a distance of 115 m. What is the magnitude of its angular acceleration if there was no slipping?

A) 1.8 rad/s²

B) 0.90 rad/s²

C) 5.7 rad/s²

D) 11 rad/s²

Q3) A scooter has wheels with a diameter of 120 mm. What is the angular speed of the wheels when the scooter is moving forward at 6.00 m/s?

A) 47.7 rpm

B) 955 rpm

C) 72.0 rpm

D) 50.0 rpm

E) 100 rpm

Q4) A bicycle wheel has an outside diameter of 66 cm. Through what distance does a point on the rim move as the wheel rotates through an angle of 70°?

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Equilibrium Ad Elasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 3.00-m-long ladder, weighing 200 N, leans against a smooth vertical wall with its base on a horizontal rough floor, a distance of 1.00 m away from the wall. The ladder is not completely uniform, so its center of gravity is 1.20 m from its base. What force of friction must the floor exert on the base of the ladder to prevent the ladder from sliding down?

A) 93.3 N

B) 130 N

C) 28.3 N

D) 102 N

E) 150 N

Q2) If an object remains at rest, then the sum of both the external torques and the external forces on the object must be zero.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Tensile stress is

A) the strain per unit length.

B) the same as force.

C) the ratio of the change in length.

D) applied force per cross-sectional area.

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Momentum

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Sample Questions

Q1) A golf club exerts an average horizontal force of 1000 N on a 0.045-kg golf ball that is initially at rest on the tee. The club is in contact with the ball for 1.8 ms. What is the speed of the golf ball just as it leaves the tee?

A) 30 m/s

B) 35 m/s

C) 40 m/s

D) 45 m/s

E) 50 m/s

Q2) A 0.140 kg baseball is thrown horizontally with a velocity of 28.9 m/s. It is struck with a constant horizontal force that lasts for 1.85 ms, which results in a velocity of 37.0 m/s in the opposite direction. What was the magnitude of the horizontal force?

A) 0.613 kN

B) 2.19 kN

C) 2.80 kN

D) 4.99 kN

Q3) A 14,000-kg boxcar is coasting at 1.50 m/s along a horizontal track when it suddenly hits and couples with a stationary 10,000-kg boxcar. What is the speed of the cars just after the collision?

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Chapter 10: Energy and Work

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Sample Questions

Q1) A tennis ball bounces on the floor three times, and each time it loses 23.0% of its energy due to heating. How high does it bounce after the third time, if we released it \(4.0 {~m}\) from the floor?

A) 180 cm

B) 18 cm

C) 180 mm

D) 240 cm

Q2) When you drop a pebble from height H, it reaches the ground with kinetic energy K if there is no air resistance. From what height should you drop it so it will reach the ground with twice as much kinetic energy?

A) \(\sqrt { 2 }\) H

B) 2H

C) 4H

D) 8H

E) 16H

Q3) You want to store 1,000 J of energy in an ideal spring when it is compressed by only 2.5 cm. What should be the force constant (spring constant) of this spring?

Q4) How fast must a 6.0-kg cat run to have a kinetic energy of 150 J?

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Using Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) An ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic process while doing 25 J of work. What is the change in the internal (thermal) energy of the gas?

A) 0 J

B) 25 J

C) -25 J

D) 50 J

E) -50 J

Q2) A sealed rigid tank contains 29 moles of an ideal gas, at an initial temperature of \(270 \mathrm {~K}\) The pressure of the gas is increased until the final pressure equals 1.90 times the initial pressure. The heat capacity at constant pressure of the gas is \(24.0 \mathrm {~J} / \mathrm { mol } \cdot \mathrm { K }\) How much heat is absorbed by the gas during this process? (R = 8.31 J/mol K)

A) 110 kJ

B) 170 kJ

C) 230 kJ

D) -52 kJ

E) 7.0 kJ

Q3) What is absolute zero on the (a) Celsius scale and (b) on the Fahrenheit scale?

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Thermal Properties of Matter

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many moles are there in 2.00 kg of copper? The atomic weight of copper is 63.5 g/mol and its density is 8.90 g/cm³.

A) 15.3

B) 31.5

C) 51.3

D) 53.1

Q2) A lab assistant pours 330 g of water at 45°C into an 855-g aluminum container that is at an initial temperature of 10°C. The specific heat of aluminum is \(900 \mathrm {~J} / \mathrm { kg } \cdot \mathrm { K }\) and that of water is 4186 J/kg K. What is the final temperature of the system, assuming no heat is exchanged with the surroundings? A) 28°C

B) 32°C

C) 31°C

D) 33°C

E) 35°C

Q3) How many molecules are in (a) 1.0 cm³ of air at STP and (b) 1.0 cm³ of helium at STP? (R = 8.31 J/mol . K, N_A = 6.022 × 10²³ molecules/mol)

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fluid flows at 2.0 m/s through a pipe of diameter 3.0 cm. What is the volume flow rate of the fluid?

A) 1.4 × 10^-3 m³/s

B) 5.7 × 10^-3 m³/s

C) 14 m³/s

D) 57 m³/s

Q2) An object floats with half its volume beneath the surface of the water. The weight of the displaced water is 2000 N. What is the weight of the object? The density of water is 1000 kg/m³.

A) 1000 N

B) 2000 N

C) 4000 N

D) It cannot be determined because we do not know the volume of the object.

Q3) A plastic block of dimensions 2.00 cm × 3.00 cm × 4.00 cm has a mass of 30.0 g. What is its density?

A) 0.80 g/cm³

B) 1.20 g/cm³

C) 1.25 g/cm³

D) 1.60 g/cm³

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Oscillations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 0.50-kg box is attached to an ideal spring of force constant (spring constant) 20 N/m on a horizontal, frictionless floor. The box oscillates in simple harmonic motion and has a speed of 1.5 m/s at the equilibrium position.

(a) What is the amplitude of vibration?

(b) At what distance from the equilibrium position are the kinetic energy and the potential energy the same?

Q2) A sewing machine needle moves up and down in simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 1.27 cm and a frequency of 2.55 Hz. What are the (a) maximum speed and (b) maximum acceleration of the tip of the needle?

Q3) A 1.5-kg cart attached to an ideal spring with a force constant (spring constant) of 20 N/m oscillates on a horizontal, frictionless track. At time t = 0.00 s, the cart is released from rest at position x = 10 cm from the equilibrium position.

(a) What is the frequency of the oscillations of the cart?

(b) Determine the maximum speed of the cart. Where does the maximum speed occur?

(c) Find the maximum acceleration of the mass. Where does the maximum acceleration occur?

(d) How much total energy does this oscillating system contain?

(e) Express the displacement as a function of time using a cosine function.

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Chapter 15: Traveling Waves and Sound

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 15-m rope is pulled taut with a tension of 140 N. It takes 0.545 s for a wave to propagate along the rope. What is the mass of the rope?

A) 1.7 kg

B) 2.1 kg

C) 2.8 kg

D) 5.1 kg

E) 3.2 kg

Q2) A plucked guitar string produces a sound wave of frequency 0.44 kHz on a day when the speed of sound is 340 m/s.

(a) What is the wavelength of the sound wave?

(b) How much time elapses between the impacts of two adjacent compressions of the sound wave on your eardrum?

Q3) An elephant can hear sound with a frequency of 15 Hz. What is the wavelength of this wave if the speed of sound in air is 343 m/s?

Q4) The vertical displacement y(x,t) of a horizontal string aligned along the x-axis is given by the equation y(x,t) = (6.00 mm) cos[(3.25 m^-1)x - (7.22 s^-1)t]. What are the (a) wavelength and (b) period of this wave?

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Chapter 16: Superposition and Standing Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two taut strings of identical mass and length are stretched with their ends fixed, but the tension in one string is 1.10 times greater than in the other. Waves on the string with the lower tension propagate at 35.2 m/s. The fundamental frequency of that string is 258 Hz. What is the beat frequency when each string is vibrating at its fundamental frequency?

A) 11.0 Hz

B) 9.00 Hz

C) 13.7 Hz

D) 12.6 Hz

E) 17.1 Hz

Q2) One of the harmonics of a column of air in a tube that is open at both ends has a frequency of 448 Hz, and the next higher harmonic has a frequency of 576 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the air column in this tube?

A) 32 Hz

B) 64 Hz

C) 88 Hz

D) 128 Hz

E) 256 Hz

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18

Chapter 17: Wave Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A piece of glass has a thin film of gasoline floating on it. A beam of light is shining perpendicular on the film. If the wavelength of light incident on the film is 560 nm and the indices of refraction of gasoline and glass are 1.40 and 1.50, respectively, what is the minimum nonzero thickness of the film to see a bright reflection?

A) 500 nm

B) 400 nm

C) 300 nm

D) 200 nm

E) 100 nm

Q2) A pair of narrow slits that are 1.8 mm apart is illuminated by a monochromatic coherent light source. A fringe pattern is observed on a screen 4.8 m from the slits. If the wavelength of the monochromatic light is 450 nm, what is the angular separation between adjacent dark fringes on the screen, measured in milliradians?

A) 0.15 mrad

B) 0.20 mrad

C) 0.25 mrad

D) 0.30 mrad

E) 0.36 mrad

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Chapter 18: Ray Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A flashlight beam makes an angle of 60° with the plane of the surface of a calm lake before it enters the water. In the water what angle does the beam make with the plane of the surface? The index of refraction of water is 1.33.

A) 0°

B) 30°

C) 60°

D) 22°

E) 68°

Q2) An object is 5.7 cm from a spherical concave mirror. If the image is 4.7 cm tall and 10 cm from the mirror, how tall is the object?

A) 12 cm

B) 11 cm

C) 8.2 cm

D) 2.7 cm

Q3) When an object is placed 118 cm from a thin diverging lens, its image is found to be 59 cm from the lens. The lens is removed, and replaced by a thin converging lens whose focal length has the same magnitude as the diverging lens. This second lens is at the original position of the first lens. Where is the image of the object now?

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Optical Instruments

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Sample Questions

Q1) The focal length of a converging lens is 10 cm. What is the angular magnification of this lens if the image is viewed by a relaxed eye with a near point of 25 cm?

A) 0.50

B) 1.5

C) 2.5

D) 3.5

E) 4.5

Q2) Assuming a pupil diameter of 3 mm, what is the angular resolution of the human eye for light at the middle of the visible spectrum (550 nm)?

A) 0.8°

B) 0.2°

C) 2 mrad

D) 0.01°

E) 2°

Q3) A student wishing to build a telescope has available an eyepiece of focal length -5.0 cm. What focal length objective is needed to obtain a magnification of 10?

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21

Chapter 20: Electric Fields and Forces

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Sample Questions

Q1) The zirconium nucleus contains 40 protons, and an electron is 1.0 nm from the nucleus. What is the electric force on the electron due to the nucleus?

( e = 1.60 × 10^-19 C, k = 1/4 ₀ = 9.0 × 10⁹ N m²/C²)

A) 2.9 nN

B) 1000 C

C) 3.7 nN

D) 6.8 nN

E) 9.2 nN

Q2) The force of attraction that a -40.0 C point charge exerts on a +108 C point charge has magnitude 4.00 N. How far apart are these two charges?

(k = 1/4 ₀ = 8.99 × 10⁹ N m²/C²)

A) 2.10 m

B) 3.67 m

C) 3.12 m

D) 2.49 m

E) 1.13 m

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Chapter 21: Electric Potential

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the result of your calculation of a quantity has SI units of kg m/(s² C), that quantity could be

A) an electric field strength.

B) a dielectric constant.

C) an electric potential difference.

D) a capacitance

E) an electric potential energy.

Q2) An ideal parallel-plate capacitor consists of two parallel plates of area A separated by a distance d. This capacitor is connected to a battery and charged until its plates carry charges +Q and -Q, and the battery is then disconnected. If the separation between the plates is now doubled, the electrical energy stored in the capacitor will

A) double.

B) quadruple.

C) be cut in half.

D) be cut in fourth.

E) not change.

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23

Chapter 22: Current and Resistance

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Q1) What potential difference is required across an 8.0- resistor to cause 2.0 A to flow through it?

Q2) A battery is rated at 12 V and 160 A-h. How much energy does this battery store?

A) 1.9 kJ

B) 6.0 kJ

C) 1.9 MJ

D) 6.9 MJ

Q3) A simple circuit has a total resistance of 30 . If a 2.0-A current is maintained in this circuit, how much energy is dissipated in this circuit in 4.0 seconds?

A) 24 J

B) 4.8 J

C) 48 J

D) 480 J

E) 6.0 J

Q4) A flashlight draws 0.133 A from a 3.0-V battery pack. In 2.0 minutes (a) how much charge flows from the battery, (b) how much energy does the battery supply, and (c) how many electrons have passed any point in the circuit every second?

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Chapter 23: Circuits

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Sample Questions

Q1) A capacitor C is connected in series with a resistor R across a battery and an open switch. If a second capacitor of capacitance 2C is connected in parallel with the first one, the time constant of the new RC circuit will be

A) the same as before.

B) twice as large as before.

C) three times a large as before.

D) one-half as large as before.

E) one-fourth as large as before.

Q2) A 2.0- resistor is in series with a parallel combination of 4.0- , 6.0- , and 12- resistors. What is the equivalent resistance of this system?

A) 24

B) 4.0

C) 1.8

D) 2.7

Q3) Two 100-W light bulbs of fixed resistance are to be connected to an ideal 120-V source. What are the current, potential difference, and dissipated power for each bulb when they are connected (a) in parallel (the normal arrangement)? (b) in series?

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Magnetic Fields and Forces

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Sample Questions

Q1) An electron has an initial velocity to the south but is observed to curve upward as the result of a magnetic field. This magnetic field must have a component A) to the west. B) to the east.

C) upward.

D) downward.

E) to the north.

Q2) A proton, with mass 1.67 × 10^-27 kg and charge +1.6 × 10^-19 C, is sent with velocity \(2.3\times 10^4 \mathrm {~m} / \mathrm { s }\) in the +x direction into a region where there is a uniform electric field of magnitude 780 \( {~V} / \mathrm { m }\) in the +y direction. What must be the magnitude and direction of the uniform magnetic field in the region if the proton is to pass through undeflected? Assume that the magnetic field has no x component and neglect gravitational effects.

Q3) A flat square coil of wire measures 9.5 cm on each side and contains 175 turns of very thin wire. It carries a current of 6.3 A in a uniform 0.84-T magnetic field. What angle less than 90° should the plane of this coil make with the magnetic field direction so that the magnitude of the magnetic torque on it is 6.5 N m?

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Chapter 25: EM Induction and Em Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) A closed flat loop conductor with radius \(2.0 \mathrm {~m}\) is located in a changing uniform magnetic field. If the emf induced in the loop is \(2.0 \mathrm {~V}\) what is the rate at which the magnetic field strength is changing if the magnetic field is oriented perpendicular to the plane in which the loop lies?

A) 0.16 T/s

B) 1.0 T/s

C) 0.080 T/s

D) 2.0 T/s

Q2) What is the energy (in eV) of an optical photon of frequency \(6.43 \times 10^{14} \mathrm {~Hz}\) (h = 6.626 × 10^-34 J s, 1 eV = 1.60 × 10^-19 J)

A) 2.66 eV

B) 1.62 eV

C) 1.94 eV

D) 3.27 eV

Q3) A flat coil having 40 turns, each one of cross-sectional area 12.0 cm², is oriented with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. The field varies steadily from 0.00 T to 1.20 T in 20.0 ms. What emf is induced in the coil during this time?

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Chapter 26: AC Electricity

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Q1) An ideal transformer with 120 turns in its secondary supplies 12 V at 220 mA to a toy train. The primary is connected across a 120-V wall outlet.

(a) How many turns are in the primary?

(b) What is the primary current?

(c) What power is delivered by the wall outlet?

Q2) The potential applied to a 20- resistor is v = (60 V) cos(33t). What is the rms current through this resistor?

Q3) The current through a 50- resistor is I = (0.80 A) sin(240t), where t is measured in seconds. How much power on average is dissipated in the resistor?

A) 16 W

B) 32 W

C) 45 W

D) 64 W

Q4) A transformer is a device that normally A) operates on either dc or ac. B) operates only on ac. C) operates only on dc.

Q5) At what frequency does a 10- F capacitor have a reactance of 0.12 k ?

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Chapter 27: Relativity

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Sample Questions

Q1) One of the first atomic explosion released approximately 1.0 × 10¹⁴ J of energy. How much matter had to be changed into energy to produce this yield? (c = 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s)

A) 1.1 g

B) 23 g

C) 13 g

D) 0.45 kg

E) 1.1 kg

Q2) One of Einstein's postulates in formulating the special theory of relativity was that the laws of physics are the same in reference frames that A) accelerate.

B) move at constant velocity with respect to an inertial frame. C) oscillate.

D) are stationary, but not in moving frames.

Q3) An electron-volt is the energy gained by an electron if it is accelerated through a potential difference of one volt. What is the equivalent to an electron-volt in kilograms? (c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m/s, e = 1.60 × 10^-19C)

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Chapter 28: Quantum Physics

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Q1) Light of a given wavelength is used to illuminate the surface of a metal, however, no photoelectrons are emitted. In order to cause electrons to be ejected from the surface of this metal you should

A) use light of a longer wavelength.

B) use light of a shorter wavelength.

C) use light of the same wavelength but increase its intensity.

D) use light of the same wavelength but decrease its intensity.

Q2) Protons are being accelerated in a particle accelerator. When the speed of the protons is doubled, their de Broglie wavelength will

A) increase by a factor of 4.

B) increase by a factor of 2.

C) decrease by a factor of 2.

D) increase by a factor of \(\sqrt { 2 }\) .

E) decrease by a factor of \(\sqrt { 2 }\) .

Q3) A photoelectric surface has a work function of 2.10 eV. Calculate the maximum kinetic energy, in eV, of electrons ejected from this surface by electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 356 nm. (1 eV = 1.60 × 10^-19 J, c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m/s, h = 6.626 × 10^-34 J s)

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30

Chapter 29: Atoms and Molecules

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a hydrogen atom, a given electron has n = 7. How many possible values can have?

A) 6

B) 7

C) 15

D) 98

Q2) In a hydrogen atom, an electron with n = 7 can exist in how many different quantum states?

A) 6

B) 7

C) 15

D) 98

Q3) In the n = 1 state, the energy of the hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What is its energy in the n = 2 state?

A) -6.79 eV

B) -4.53 eV

C) -3.40 eV

D) -1.51 eV

Q4) What is the energy (in electron-volts) of the n = 3 state of atomic hydrogen?

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Chapter 30: Nuclear Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the nuclear reaction \(^{3} _{1}

H + ^{3} _{1}

H X + ^{4} _{2}

He\), what is X?

A) 2 protons

B) 2 neutrons

C) ²H

D) ³H

E) alpha particle

Q2) A ^- particle is also known as

A) an electron.

B) a positron.

C) a helium nucleus.

D) a high-energy photon.

Q3) In the radioactive decay equation \(^{210}_{84}\) Po* \(^{210}_{84}\)Po + X, what is X?

Q4) The half-life of tritium is 12.3 y. What is its mean life (time constant)?

Page 32

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