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Survey of Physics is an introductory course designed to provide students with a broad overview of the fundamental concepts and principles of physics. The course covers a range of topics including mechanics, energy, waves, electricity and magnetism, thermodynamics, and modern physics concepts such as relativity and quantum theory. Emphasis is placed on conceptual understanding, practical applications, and the development of problem-solving skills. This course is suitable for students in non-technical majors or those seeking a foundational understanding of physics in preparation for further study. Laboratory activities and demonstrations may be integrated to enhance learning and reinforce theoretical concepts.
Recommended Textbook College Physics 11th Edition by Raymond A. Serway
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Q1) An apartment has 1 100 ft<sup>2</sup> of floor space.What is the approximate volume of the apartment?
A)10<sup>2</sup> ft<sup>3</sup>
B)10<sup>3</sup> ft<sup>3</sup>
C)10<sup>4</sup> ft<sup>3</sup>
D)10<sup>5</sup> ft<sup>3</sup>
E)10<sup>6</sup> ft<sup>3</sup>
Answer: C
Q2) If point A is located at coordinates (-10,7)and point B is located at coordinates (8,-8),what is the distance from A to B if the units of the coordinated system are meters?
A)549 m
B)23 m
C)28 m
D)33 m
E)26 m
Answer: B
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Q1) An object moves at a constant velocity of 12 m/s to the southwest for an interval of 20 s.Halfway through this interval,what is the magnitude of its instantaneous velocity?
A)It can be any value from 0 to 24 m/s.
B)6 m/s
C)12 m/s
D)More information is needed.
Answer: C
Q2) A ball is thrown vertically upwards at 24.5 m/s.For its complete trip (up and back down to the starting position),its average speed is
A)18.4 m/s.
B)12.3 m/s.
C)24.5 m/s.
D)6.1 m/s.
E)not given.
Answer: B
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Q1) A projectile is fired directly upwards at 49.4 m/s.A second projectile is dropped from rest at some higher elevation at the instant the first projectile is fired and passes the first projectile 3.00 s later.From the frame of reference of the first projectile,what is the velocity of the second projectile as it passes by?
A)64.1 m/s,downward
B)71.5 m/s,downward
C)49.4 m/s,downward
D)34.7 m/s,downward
E)104 m/s,downward
Answer: C
Q2) A baseball is thrown by the center fielder (from shoulder level)to home plate where it is caught (on the fly at shoulder level)by the catcher.At what point is the magnitude of the acceleration at a minimum? (air resistance is negligible)
A)just after leaving the center fielder's hand
B)just before arriving at the catcher's mitt
C)at the top of the trajectory
D)acceleration is constant during entire trajectory
Answer: D
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Q1) What condition must apply to a system's state of motion for it to be regarded as an inertial frame of reference?
A)in decreasing velocity
B)in constant velocity
C)in constant acceleration
D)in increasing acceleration
Q2) Three forces,14.0 N,25.0 N,and 20.0 N,are acting on a 9.6-kg object.Which of the following forces could also be acting on the object if it is moving with constant velocity?
A)1.0 N
B)17 N
C)30 N
D)5.0 N
E)any of the above
Q3) The maximum possible value for the coefficient of static friction is:
A)0.50.
B)1.00.
C)a value up to but not quite 1.00.
D)greater than 1.00.
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Q1) A boat with mass of 1 200 kg is traveling at 12 m/s.What is the magnitude of the force required to stop the boat if it undergoes a displacement of 85 m?
A)2 000 N
B)170 N
C)8 500 N
D)1 000 N
Q2) Three different-mass projectiles are launched from the top of a building each at different angles of elevation.Each particle has the same initial kinetic energy.Which particle has the greatest kinetic energy just as it impacts with the ground?
A)The one launched at the highest angle of elevation.
B)The one with the highest mass.
C)The one with the lowest mass.
D)They all will have the same kinetic energy on impact.
Q3) A 180-hp engine can deliver,in SI units,an average power of ____.(1 hp = 746 W)
A)2.4E-1 W
B)4.1E+3 W
C)1.3E+5 W
D)1.8E+2 W
E)9.3E+2 W
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Q1) A rocket with initial mass of 3.0 × 10<sup>4</sup> kg fires its engines at t = 0.The exhaust speed of the rocket is 3.9 × 10<sup>3</sup> m/s.If the velocity of the rocket at t = 200 s is 1 500 m/s,how much fuel did it consume?
A)9.6 × 10<sup>3</sup> kg
B)3.0 × 10<sup>4</sup> kg
C)4.4 × 10<sup>4</sup> kg
D)4.8 × 10<sup>3</sup> kg
Q2) In a two-body collision,if the momentum of the system is conserved,then which of the following best describes the kinetic energy after the collision?
A)must be less
B)must also be conserved
C)may also be conserved
D)is doubled in value
Q3) A valid unit for momentum is which of the following?
A)kg m/s<sup>2</sup>
B)kg/m<sup>2</sup>
C)kg m/s
D)N m
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Q1) Suppose a car has a 100 000-mile 10-year warranty on its wheels and axles.How may turns will the wheels of 0.70-m diameter make if both the mileage and time warranties run out simultaneously and what will be the average angular velocities of the wheel? Assume that a mile = 1.6 × 10<sup>3</sup> m and that a year is 3.16 × 10<sup>7 </sup>s.
A)7.3E+7,14 rad/s
B)2.3E+8,1.4 rad/s
C)3.5E+8,1.4 rad/s
D)7.3E+7,1.4 rad/s
E)2.3E+8,14 rad/s
Q2) Two objects are in circular orbits of different radii around the Sun.Which object has the highest orbital speed?
A)The one closest to the Sun.
B)The one farthest from the Sun.
C)Once in orbit around the Sun,all objects have the same orbital speed regardless of distance from the Sun.It is the greater radius and greater resulting circumference that causes the object farther from the Sun to take longer to complete an orbit.
D)This cannot be found without knowing the relative masses of the objects.
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Q1) A baseball pitcher loosens up his pitching arm.He tosses a 0.140-kg ball using only the rotation of his forearm,0.270 m in length,to accelerate the ball.If the ball starts at rest and is released with a speed of 24.0 m/s in a time of 0.425 s,what torque is applied to the ball while being held by the pitcher's hand to produce the angular acceleration?
A)29.3 N·m
B)21.3 N·m
C)2.13 N·m
D)2.93 N·m
E)209 N·m
Q2) A disk has a moment of inertia of 3.0 × 10 <sup>4</sup> kg·m<sup>2</sup> and rotates with an angular speed of 3.6 rad/s.What net torque must be applied to bring it to rest within 3.6 s?
A)3.89E-4 N·m.
B)3.00E-4 N·m
C)4.32E-4 N·m
D)3.00E-4 N·m.
E)1.20E-4 N·m
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Q1) Water is being sprayed from a nozzle at the end of a garden hose of diameter 2.25 cm.If the nozzle has an opening of diameter 1.30 cm,and if the water leaves the nozzle at a speed of 14.0 m/s,what is the speed of the water inside the hose?
A)4.67 m/s
B)41.9 m/s
C)2.38 m/s
D)5.67 m/s
E)also 14.0 m/s
Q2) What is the minimum diameter of a steel wire if it is to support a mass of 80 kg.The elastic limit of steel is 5.0 × 10<sup>8</sup> Pa.
A)1.4 mm
B)2.0 mm.
C)1.0 mm
D)2.0 mm
Q3) In an elastic solid there is a direct proportionality between strain and A)elastic modulus.
B)temperature.
C)cross-sectional area.
D)stress.
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Q1) Evaporation cools the liquid that is left behind because the molecules that leave the liquid during evaporation
A)have kinetic energy.
B)have greater than average speed.
C)have broken the bonds that held them in the liquid.
D)create vapor pressure.
Q2) Which best describes the relationship between two systems in thermal equilibrium?
A)no net energy is exchanged
B)volumes are equal
C)masses are equal
D)zero velocity
Q3) The ideal gas law treats gas as consisting of A)atoms.
B)molecules.
C)chemicals.
D)bubbles.
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Q1) A metal bar is used to conduct heat.When the temperature at one end is 82.0°C and at the other is 37.0°C,heat is transferred at a rate of 9 J/s.If the temperature of the hotter end is reduced to 55.7°C,what will be the rate of heat transfer?
A)2.7 J/s
B)1.6 J/s
C)6.2 J/s
D)3.7 J/s
E)5.0 J/s
Q2) How much heat energy is required to vaporize a 4.40-g ice cube at 0°C? The heat of fusion of ice is 80.0 cal/g.The heat of vaporization of water is 540 cal/g,and c<sub>water</sub> = 1.00 cal/g °C.
A)2 730 cal
B)3 170 cal
C)2 820 cal
D)3 520 cal
E)2 380 cal
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Q1) The specific heat at constant volume per mole of 3R/2 is for what type of molecule?
A)monatomic
B)diatomic
C)polyatomic
D)any type
Q2) Two cars,each of mass 2 200 kg and traveling at 14.0 m/s,undergo a head-on completely inelastic collision.What is the change in entropy of the Universe which results from this collision? Assume the ambient temperature is 20.0S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C.
A)1.47E+3 J/K
B)2.2E+4 J/K
C)7.35E+2 J/K
D)6.2E+5 J/K
Q3) Area on a PV diagram has units associated with A)energy.
B)momentum.
C)temperature.
D)change in temperature.
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Q1) Transverse waves travel with a speed of 105 m/s along a taut copper wire that has a diameter of 2.28 mm.What is the tension in the wire? (The density of copper is 8.93 g/cm<sup>3</sup>. )
A)1 610 N
B)803 N
C)402 N
D)201 N
E)128 N
Q2) A mass on a spring vibrates in simple harmonic motion at a frequency of 4.20 Hz and an amplitude of 7.50 cm.If the mass of the object is 0.260 kg,what is the spring constant?
A)6.86 N/m
B)696 N/m
C)181 N/m
D)24.1 N/m
E)339 N/m
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Q1) Which of the following best describes a sound level of intensity 1 W/m<sup>2</sup>?
A)extremely loud
B)about that of a power mower
C)normal conversation
D)like a whisper
Q2) A chamber that can be filled with different gases has placed in it a source of sound that in air produces a frequency of 200 Hz and a microphone to pick up the sound for frequency analysis.First the chamber is filled with helium (speed of sound 1 000 m/s at room conditions),then the helium is replaced with oxygen (speed of sound 330 m/s at room conditions),and then finally the helium is replaced with carbon dioxide (speed of sound 269 m/s at room conditions).In which gas is the highest frequency of sound found by the microphone during this experiment?
A)helium
B)oxygen
C)carbon dioxide
D)They all have the same frequency of sound.
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Q1) A charge Q accumulates on the hollow metallic dome,of radius R,of a Van de Graaff generator.A probe measures the electric field strength at various points outside the sphere surface.If the probe is initially at a distance 2R from the sphere's center and then is moved to 3R,by what factor will the electric field reading change?
A)(3/2)<sup>2</sup>
B)3/2
C)2/3
D)(2/3)<sup>2</sup> E)1
Q2) An electron with a charge value of 1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup> C is moving in the presence of an electric field of 400 N/C.What force does the electron experience?
A)8.0E-21 N
B)6.4E-22 N
C)6.4E-17 N
D)4.0E+17 N
E)1.6E-17 N
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Q1) If a doubly-ionized oxygen atom (O<sup>-2</sup>)is accelerated from rest by going through a potential difference of 32 V,what will be the change in its kinetic energy?
A)16 eV
B)32 eV
C)64 eV
D)51 eV
E)none of the above
Q2) Two capacitors with C<sub>A</sub> greater than C<sub>B</sub> are connected in parallel with a battery.Which of the following is true?
A)There is more potential difference across C<sub>A</sub>.
B)There is more potential difference across C<sub>B</sub>.
C)There is the same charge stored on each capacitor.
D)There is the same potential difference across both capacitors.
Q3) If two parallel,conducting plates have equal positive charge,the electric field lines will:
A)leave one plate and go straight to the other plate.
B)leave both plates and go to infinity.
C)enter both plates from infinity.
D)none of the above.
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Q1) A resistor is made of a material that has a resistivity that is proportional to the current going through it.If the voltage across the resistor is doubled,what happens to the current through it?
A)It doubles.
B)It quadruples.
C)It increases by a factor of 2<sup>3/2</sup>.
D)It increases by a factor of 2<sup>1/2</sup>.
Q2) A light bulb is connected to a 12-V battery.Because light bulbs are non-Ohmic,the resistance of the bulb is not constant,but increases as the bulb gets hotter.As the bulb heats up,which value remains unchanged?
A)The power consumed by the bulb.
B)The current through the bulb.
C)The voltage across the bulb.
D)All the above change.
Q3) Which is not a force?
A)gravity
B)electrical force
C)voltage
D)friction
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Q1) Which voltage is not caused by a source of emf?
A)the voltage across a charged capacitor
B)the voltage across two copper-iron junctions at different temperatures
C)the voltage across the terminals of a dry cell battery
D)the voltage from an electric generator
Q2) A series combination of a 48.0-\(\mu\)F capacitor and a resistor are connected to a 12-V battery.After one second,the voltage across the capacitor is 10 V.What is the resistance of the resistor?
A)11.6 k
B)3.47 k
C)37.3 k
D)208 k
Q3) Household 120-V outlets are made to accept three-pronged plugs.One of the prongs attaches to the "live" wire at 120 V,and another attaches to the "neutral" wire that is connected to ground.What is the round third prong for?
A)It serves as a backup to the hot wire.
B)It lets the appliance run if the neutral wire breaks.
C)It connects the case of the appliance directly to ground for safety purposes.
D)Nothing electrical,it is for mechanical sturdiness.
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Q1) Square coil A has 2N turns and sides of length L,and square coil B has N turns and sides of length 2L.When a current of 2 amps is sent through coil A and a current of 1 amp is sent through coil B,which coil has the greater magnetic moment?
A)coil A
B)coil B
C)Both have the same magnetic moment.
D)More information is needed.
Q2) An electron is moving at a speed of 4.8 × 10<sup>6</sup> m/s at an angle of 30.0° with respect to a uniform magnetic field of 9.2 × 10<sup>-4</sup> T.What is the radius of the resulting helical path? (m<sub>e</sub> = 9.11 × 10<sup>-31</sup> kg,q<sub>e</sub> = 1.60 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C)
A)2.6 cm
B)3.8 cm
C)5.5 cm
D)1.5 cm
E)2.9 cm
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Q1) Superconductors have been discussed as a means for electrical energy storage.Because they are resistanceless,a current once started in a loop would continue without loss.If a current of 1.0 × 10<sup>4</sup> A were started in a huge toroidal coil of radius 1.0 km and inductance 50 H,how much electrical energy (in kWh)could be stored?
A)300 kWh
B)480 kWh
C)690 kWh
D)840 kWh
Q2) When a voltage is generated by rotating a coil in a magnetic field at a constant rate,the period of the voltage equals the time that it takes for the coil to rotate through ________ radians.
A)1
B) /2
C) D)2
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Q1) A resistor and capacitor are connected in series with an applied AC voltage source.Separate voltmeter readings across the resistor and capacitor give values of 23 V and 29 V (rms),respectively.What is the effective (rms)voltage of the source?
A)7.2 V
B)47 V
C)37 V
D)26 V
E)18 V
Q2) A 6.0-J pulse of light from a laser has what momentum?
A)Light does not have momentum because it doesn't have mass.
B)3.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> kg·m/s
C)6.7 × 10<sup>-9</sup> kg·m/s
D)2.0 × 10<sup>-8</sup> kg·m/s
Q3) The peak voltage of an AC source is 296 V.What is the rms voltage?
A)148 V
B)419 V
C)209 V
D)296 V
E)222 V

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Q1) Which of the following describes what will happen to a light ray incident on an air-to-glass boundary?
A)total reflection
B)total transmission
C)partial reflection,partial transmission
D)partial reflection,total transmission
Q2) When white light disperses as it passes through a prism,which of the following colors moves at the lowest speed in the prism?
A)blue
B)green
C)yellow
D)red
Q3) Light in air enters a diamond (n = 2.42)at an angle of incidence of 30.0°.What is the angle of refraction inside the diamond?
A)11.9°
B)4.90°
C)0.208°
D)24.1°
E)30.0°
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Q1) When the reflection of an object is seen in a convex mirror the image will
A)always be real.
B)always be virtual.
C)may be either real or virtual.
D)will always be enlarged.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the image of a convex mirror when the object's distance from the mirror is less than the absolute value of the focal point distance?
A)virtual,upright and magnification greater than one
B)real,inverted and magnification less than one
C)virtual,upright and magnification less than one
D)real,inverted and magnification greater than one
Q3) A contact lens is made of plastic with an index of refraction 1.50.The lens has an outer radius of curvature of + 1.65 cm and an inner radius of curvature of + 5.85 cm.What is its focal length?
A)-4.60 cm
B)+1.53 cm
C)+2.57 cm
D)+4.60 cm
E)-2.57 cm
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Q1) Why are sound waves not polarizable?
A)Because they are not electromagnetic.
B)They are not transverse.
C)They are not longitudinal.
D)But this is readily possible!
Q2) In a Young's double-slit experiment,what happens to the angular separation between the fringes when the wavelength is increased at the same time that the slit separation is decreased?
A)It increases.
B)It decreases.
C)It stays the same.
D)The relative sizes of the changes need to be known before a definite answer can be given.
Q3) A silicon monoxide thin film (n = 1.45)of thickness 77.6 nm is applied to a camera lens made of glass (n = 1.55).This will result in a destructive interference for reflected light of what wavelength?
A)720 nm
B)558 nm
C)450 nm
D)522 nm
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Q1) A diverging lens will be prescribed by the eye doctor to correct which of the following?
A)myopia
B)presbyopia
C)hyperopia
D)astigmatism
Q2) A magnifying lens of power d (in diopters)gives what magnification when the viewing eye is relaxed assuming a near point of 25 cm?
A)25d
B)0.25/d
C)d/4
D)The correct answer is not given.
Q3) Doubling the aperture diameter of a camera lens will change the f-number by what factor?
A)1/4
B)1/2
C)2
D)4
E)1/3
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Q1) An unknown particle in an accelerator moving at a speed of 1.50 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s has a measured total energy of 3.30 × 10 <sup>9</sup> J.What is its mass? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
A)4.23E-26 kg
B)9.17E-27 kg
C)7.78E-26 kg
D)3.18E-26 kg
E)3.67E-26 kg
Q2) Relativity dealing with gravitation is known as:
A)inertial relativity.
B)gravitational relativity.
C)Galilean relativity.
D)general relativity.
Q3) In 2015,gravity waves were observed using which device?
A)The Large Hadron Collider
B)The Sudbury Graviton Observatory
C)The Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory
D)The Superconducting Super Collider
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Q1) The Compton wavelength,h/m<sub>e</sub>c,equals 0.002 43 nm.In Compton scattering,what is the greatest shift, ,in wavelength that can occur?
A) > 2 h/m<sub>e</sub>c
B) = 2 h/m<sub>e</sub>c
C) = h/m<sub>e</sub>c
D) < h/m<sub>e</sub>c
Q2) As the temperature of a radiation emitting blackbody becomes higher,what happens to the peak wavelength of the radiation?
A)increases
B)decreases
C)remains constant
D)is directly proportional to temperature
Q3) Which of the following is an indication that one is dealing with a wave property instead of a particle property?
A)energy
B)quanta
C)interference
D)momentum
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Q1) The Paschen series of hydrogen corresponds to electron transitions from higher levels to n = 3.What is the shortest wavelength in that series? (R = 1.097 × 10<sup>7</sup> m <sup>1</sup> and 1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)
A)1875 nm
B)820 nm
C)1580 nm
D)656 nm
E)1094 nm
Q2) Characteristic K x-rays are the result of:
A)inner electron transitions.
B)outer electron transitions.
C)nuclear electron states.
D)buckytubes.
Q3) Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for laser action?
A)A ruby or similar crystalline material must be used.
B)A population inversion must occur.
C)The photons must be red.
D)A binary system must be used.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67701
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Q1) What is the energy released for the reaction where the products are 0.0051 u less than the reactants? (1 u = 931.5 MeV/c<sup>2</sup>)
A)7.6 MeV
B)5.2 MeV
C)4.8 MeV
D)8.5 MeV
Q2) The neutrino is
A)a little neutron.
B)another name for a positron.
C)the particle detected in carbon dating.
D)a particle proposed to account for "missing" energy and momentum in beta decay.
Q3) The alpha emission process results in the daughter nucleus differing in what manner from the parent?
A)Atomic mass increases by one.
B)Atomic number decreases by two.
C)Atomic number increases by one.
D)Atomic mass decreases by two.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67702
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Q1) What is the "cosmological constant?"
A)The universe has existed forever and on the average (over billions of cubic light years)does not change.
B)This is the ratio between "dark energy" and "dark matter."
C)This is a quantity also referred to as "quintessence."
D)This is a self-admitted blunder in his theory of general relativity by Einstein,that might not be a blunder after all.
Q2) Mesons are always composed of
A)two quarks,one being classified as a quark and the other as an antiquark.
B)a quark of one color and an antiquark of the anticolor.
C)an up or down quark and a down or up antiquark.
D)Two of the above choices are correct.
Q3) A positron and an electron differ in A)charge.
B)mass.
C)spin.
D)energy.
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