Survey of Physical Science
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Survey of Physical Science provides an overview of the foundational concepts in physics, chemistry, astronomy, and earth sciences. This course introduces non-science majors to the scientific method as well as the fundamental principles that govern the physical world, including motion, energy, matter, atomic structure, chemical reactions, the solar system, and geological processes. Through lectures, demonstrations, and laboratory experiences, students gain an appreciation for the role of physical science in everyday life and develop critical thinking skills needed to interpret scientific phenomena.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physical Science 5th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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29 Chapters
3515 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Patterns of Motion and Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) While in an airplane flying at 100 km/h you look down from the window and spot another airplane flying at the same speed in the opposite direction. Relative to you, the speed of the spotted plane is A)zero.
B)100 km/h.
C)150 km/h.
D)200 km/h.
Answer: D
Q2) When a ball increases in speed by the same amount each second, its acceleration A)also increases each second.
B)decreases each second.
C)is constant.
D)varies.
Answer: C
Q3) An object in free fall has a speed of 60 m/s. One second later its speed is A)10 m/s.
B)30 m/s.
C)60 m/s.
D)70 m/s.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Newtons Laws of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The force required to maintain an object at a constant velocity in free space is equal to A)zero.
B)the mass of the object.
C)the weight of the object.
D)the force required to stop it.
Answer: A
Q2) To steadily (constantly)increase the velocity of something requires a A)steadily increasing force.
B)constant force.
C)decreasing force.
D)none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) If you are learning to juggle it would be good to slow the ball's acceleration. You can do this by using A)lighter balls.
B)heavier balls.
C)more balls.
D)none of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Momentum and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The force that accelerates a rocket in outer space is exerted on the rocket by the A)rocket's engine.
B)rocket's wings.
C)atmospheric pressure.
D)exhaust gases.
E)none of the above
Answer: D
Q2) No work is done by gravity on a bowling ball that rolls along a bowling alley because
A)no force acts on the ball.
B)no distance is covered by the ball.
C)the force on the ball is at right angles to the ball's motion.
D)no potential energy converts to kinetic energy.
E)its kinetic energy may vary.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Gravity, Projectiles, and Satellites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neglecting air resistance, after a ball leaves your hand when you toss it upward, the force on it
A)gradually decreases until the ball reaches the top of its path.
B)first acts upward and then downward after reaching the top.
C)s only the force due to gravity, always directed downward.
D)none of the above
Q2) If Earth's mass decreased to one-half its original mass with no change in radius, your weight would
A)decrease to one-quarter.
B)decrease to one-half.
C)remain the same.
D)none of the above
Q3) If the masses of two planets doubles and the distance between reduces by half, the force between them would be
A)unchanged.
B)half as much.
C)twice as much.
D)four times as much.
E)none of the above
Q4) How is stepping off a curb similar to taking a ride aboard the space shuttle?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Fluid Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to the density of a kilogram of feathers, the density of a kilogram of lead is
A)less.
B)more.
C)the same.
Q2) A liter-sized block of ordinary wood floats in water. The volume of water displaced is A)less than 1 L.
B)1 L.
C)more than 1 L.
D)none of the above
Q3) In a vacuum, an object has no A)buoyant force.
B)mass.
C)weight.
D)temperature.
E)all of the above
Q4) What is the approximate density of a fish, compared with the density of water? Defend your answer.
Q5) Why will a helium-filled balloon rise in air while an air-filled balloon sinks?
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Chapter 6: Thermal Energy and Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A volume of helium gas has a temperature of 0°C. The same gas twice as hot has a temperature of A)0°C.
B)2°C.
C)100°C.
D)273°C.
E)none of the above
Q2) When ice floats in water, a small part of it extends above the surface. Interestingly, the volume of ice that extends above the surface is equal to the volume of the A)water the ice displaces.
B)vast number of open spaces in the hexagonal ice crystals.
C)both
D)neither
Q3) Water at 4°C will expand when it is slightly A)cooled.
B)warmed.
C)both
D)neither
Q4) Explain what is meant by saying a thermometer measures its own temperature.
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Chapter 7: Heat Transfer and Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) When ice changes phase to become water, energy is A)absorbed.
B)released.
C)unchanged.
Q2) To minimize heat loss it is best that a teapot be A)black.
B)silver.
C)depends on size, not color.
Q3) If a volume of air is warmed, it expands. If a volume of air expands, it A)warms.
B)cools.
C)neither
Q4) The process of boiling water tends to A)warm the water.
B)cool the water.
C)both warm and cool the water at the same time.
D)have no effect on water's temperature.
Q5) From a molecular point of view, explain why evaporation is a cooling process. What cools?
Q6) Why does a good emitter of heat radiation appear black at room temperature?
9
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Chapter 8: Static and Current Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electric force between charges depends on the A)magnitude of electric charges.
B)separation distance between electric charges.
C)both
D)none of the above
Q2) A negatively charged rod is brought near a metal can that rests on a wood table. You touch the opposite side of the can momentarily with your finger. The can then becomes
A)positively charged.
B)negatively charged.
C)uncharged.
Q3) The unit of electric charge, the coulomb, is the charge on A)one electron. B)one proton.
C)a specific large number of electrons.
Q4) The electric current in a copper wire is normally composed of A)electrons.
B)protons.
C)ions.
D)all or any of the above
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Magnetism and Electromagnetic Induction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A transformer for a laptop computer converts a 120-V input to a 24-V output.
Compared with the number of turns on the primary coil, the secondary has
A)1/5 as many turns.
B)5 times as many turns.
C)the same number of turns.
D)none of the above
Q2) A superconducting electromagnet makes use of
A)low-resistance coils of wire.
B)super-high temperatures.
C)high-speed electrons.
D)close packing of high-density magnetic domains.
Q3) Every spinning electron is
A)electrically charged.
B)is a tiny magnet.
C)both
D)none of the above
Q4) A magnetic field exists in a current-carrying coil of wire
A)if it contains a piece of iron.
B)with or without a contained piece of iron.
C)only if the current changes.
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Chapter 10: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is resonance and the conditions for resonance? Give examples.
Q2) During a single period, the distance traveled by a wave is A)one-half wavelength.
B)one wavelength. C)two wavelengths.
Q3) Sound travels fastest in A)water vapor
B)water C)ice
Q4) Sound energy that is not reflected is A)transmitted.
B)absorbed. C)either or both
Q5) What moves from place to place in wave motion is A)energy. B)momentum.
C)pressure. D)matter.
Q6) What is an echo, and why is it weaker than the original sound?
Q7) Why will a struck tuning fork sound louder when it is held against a table?
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Chapter 11: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the color of seawater greenish blue?
Q2) Which will warm up quicker in sunlight?
A)a piece of colored glass
B)a piece of clear glass
C)both the same
Q3) Reflected light from the Moon in a lake often appears as a vertical column when the water is
A)perfectly still.
B)slightly rough.
C)very rough-churning with waves.
Q4) Clouds are semi-transparent to A)ultraviolet light.
B)infrared light.
C)none of the above.
Q5) Colors seen on the cover of our physical science book result from color A)addition.
B)subtraction.
C)either
D)neither
Q6) Why are clouds white?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Atoms and the Periodic Table
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following statement describes which subatomic particle best? It is a nucleon.
A)an electron
B)a proton
C)a neutron
D)A and B
E)B and C
Q2) The following statement describes which subatomic particle best? It has a relatively large mass.
A)an electron
B)a proton
C)a neutron
D)A and B
E)B and C
Q3) How is the term photon related to the term quantum?
A)A quantum of light is actually one photon.
B)A quantum of photons is equal to the wavelength.
C)A quantum is a particle of light while a photon is a wave of light.
D)A quantum is a particle of light exactly one photon long.
E)A quantum is a wave of light while a packet of quanta equals one photon.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What property of half-lives makes radioactive material so problematic?
A)There is no known way to shorten a half-life.
B)Radioactivity is limited by the natural decay-time to stable isotopes.
C)All half-lives are long.
D)There is no known way to measure half-lives with any accuracy.
E)both A and B
Q2) Why is the carbon-14 dating not accurate for estimating the age of materials more than 50,000 years old?
A)This form of radioactive dating is only accurate back 1,400 years.
B)The concentration of carbon-14 in a body after 50,000 years is too low.
C)Living organisms are too decomposed after 50,000 years.
D)Actually, carbon-14 dating is accurate back to around 5 million years ago.
Q3) Which shape is likely to need more material for a critical mass, a cube or a sphere? Why?
A)a sphere because it has the greater surface area to volume ratio.
B)a sphere because it has the smaller surface area to volume ratio.
C)a cube because it has the greater surface area to volume ratio.
D)a cube because it has the smaller surface area to volume ratio.
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15
Chapter 14: Elements of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A TV screen looked at from a distance appears as a smooth continuous flow of images. Up close, however, we see this is an illusion. What really exists are a series of tiny dots (pixels). This is similar to a chemist's view of matter in that
A)the fundamental particles of matter can also be seen when looked at closely with a magnifying glass.
B)on the submicroscopic level, chemist's find that matter is made of extremely small particles, such as atoms and molecules.
C)anything that a chemist can see, touch, hear, smell, or taste is an illusion.
D)elements are made up of only three basic types of matter.
Q2) The boiling point of methanol is 65°C and the boiling point of ethanol is 78°C. Which of the following statements is true?
A)At 70°C you would have methanol gas and liquid ethanol.
B)At 90°C you would have methanol and ethanol as solids.
C)At 50°C you would have methanol and ethanol as gases.
D)At 40°C the methanol reacts with the ethanol.
E)none of the above
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16
Chapter 15: How Atoms Bond and Molecules Attract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would have the highest boiling point?
A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
B)C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub>
C)C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>22</sub>
D)C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>26</sub>
E)not enough information given
Q2) Which should be larger, the potassium atom, K, or the potassium ion, K ?
A)The potassium ion, K is larger since charging an atom always makes it larger.
B)The potassium atom, K, with an additional shell of electrons is larger.
C)The potassium ion, K is larger since it has an extra electron which increases its size.
D)The potassium atom and the potassium ion are exactly the same size and only differ in charge.
Q3) List the following bonds in order of increasing polarity:
A)N-O < N-N < N-F < H-F
B)N-N < N-O < N-F < H-F
C)H-F < N-F < N-O < N-N
D)N-N < N-O < H-F < N-F
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Chapter 16: Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a suspension differ from a solution?
A)A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture whose components can be separated by simple filtration. A solution is a homogeneous mixture which cannot be separated by simple filtration.
B)A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture consisting of different phases whereas a solution is a homogeneous mixture consisting of a single phase.
C)Although a solution and suspension are both homogeneous mixtures, only the components of a suspension will separate by spinning the mixture in a centrifuge.
D)The difference between a suspension and a solution can only be determined by chemical means.
Q2) Red blood cells have a high concentration of dissolved ions. When placed into pure water they rupture. Why?
A)Osmosis draws water into the cell until it pops.
B)Water dissolves the cell membrane.
C)Osmosis draws water out of the cell until it tears.
D)The cells are not stable outside of a biological host.
E)none of the above
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Page 18
Chapter 17: How Chemicals React
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given that the above energy profiles have the same scale, which of the reactions is the most exothermic?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)none of the above
Q2) Balance the following chemical equation. ____ N<sub>2</sub> + ____
H<sub>2</sub> ____ NH<sub>3</sub>
A)1, 3, 2
B)1, 2, 3
C)3, 2, 1
D)2, 6, 4
E)1/2, 3/2, 1
Q3) What is a chemical equation?
A)It is a shorthand notation for illustrating a chemical reaction.
B)It is the sum of the masses of the products and reactants.
C)It is the chemical combination of equal numbers of reactants and products.
D)It is a picture of the atoms undergoing a chemical equalization.
E)It is any type of reaction that takes place at the equator.
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Chapter 18: Two Classes of Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following set of redox reactions takes place when iron is dipped into a solution of copper ions. Fe Fe<sup>+2</sup> + 2eCu<sup>+2</sup> + 2e- Cu
Which of the following describes what is happening with the electrons in the solution?
A)The iron metal is releasing electrons and they are traveling to the copper ions.
B)The copper is releasing electrons and they are traveling to the iron ions.
C)The iron ions are gaining electrons from the copper metal.
D)The copper ions are releasing electrons and they are traveling to the iron metal.
E)none of the above
Q2) For the following acid-base reaction, identify what compound is formed in the space marked. HNO<sub>3</sub> + KOH ???? + H<sub>2</sub>O
A)KNO<sub>3</sub>
B)H<sub>3</sub>ONO<sub>3</sub>
C)KOH<sub>2</sub>
D)KOH<sub>2</sub>NO<sub>3</sub>
E)none of the above
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Chapter 19: Organic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an alcoholic beverage has a proof of 151, what is the percentage of alcohol in the beverage?
A)75.5 percent
B)151 percent
C)15.1 percent
D)Proof is a measure of flammability.
E)Proof is a measure of the age of a fermented beverage.
Q2) Which of the above molecules is a ketone?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)none of the above
Q3) Where would you expect to isolate molecules in a fractionating tower that have very few interatomic attractions?
A)near the bottom
B)near the top
C)near the middle
D)Fractional distillation takes advantage of molecular weight.
E)Fractional distillation takes advantage of the number of isomers.
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Chapter 20: Rocks and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mineral, quartz or feldspar, will crystallize first? Why?
Q2) Which minerals are the first to crystallize in a cooling magma-minerals with a lower percentage of silica or minerals with a higher percentage of silica?
Q3) A composite volcano is formed by
A)successive flows of fluid basaltic lava.
B)a mixture of rock and lava.
C)alternating layers of lava, ash, and mud flow debris.
D)the accumulation of ash, cinders, and rock debris.
Q4) The majority of surface rocks are
A)extrusive.
B)sedimentary.
C)intrusive.
D)metamorphic.
Q5) What is the major rock-forming mineral group? Give examples of minerals in this group.
Q6) Rocks formed by cooling from a molten state are
A)precipitated rocks.
B)igneous rocks.
C)sedimentary rocks.
D)metamorphic rocks.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Plate Tectonics and Earths Interior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Earthquake activity is associated with
A)divergent, convergent, and transform plate boundaries.
B)convergent and transform plate boundaries.
C)divergent and convergent boundaries.
D)transform plate boundaries.
Q2) The San Andreas fault in California is a A)thrust fault.
B)strike slip fault.
C)normal fault.
D)reverse fault.
Q3) and destroyed (subduction zones). At transform boundaries, plates slide horizontally past each other.
Q4) The lithosphere rides on top of the asthenosphere. Lithospheric movement causes A)earthquakes, volcanic activity, and mountain building activity.
B)the subduction of continental crust under oceanic crust.
C)hot-spot activity as found in Hawaii.
D)widespread destruction.
Q5) plates are touching-plate boundaries. When the stress reaches a critical threshold, rocks break, slide past each other, and earthquakes are generated.
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Chapter 22: Shaping Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) What three factors affect stream speed?
Q2) As a distributary channel in a delta becomes choked with sediment, the water in the channel
A)disappears.
B)will find a new route to its destination.
C)will puddle and eventually form a lake.
D)will move back upstream.
Q3) As water is withdrawn from a well, the water table around the well A)subsides.
B)drops, making a cone of depression around the well.
C)dries up.
D)rises.
Q4) In an aquifer where groundwater discharges to a stream, how does the elevation of the water table adjacent to the stream compare with the elevation of the surface of the stream?
A)The water table is lower than the surface of the stream.
B)The water table is at the same elevation as the surface of the stream.
C)The water table is higher than the surface of the stream.
D)Not enough information is given.
Q5) How are sand dunes formed?
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Geologic Timereading the Rock Record
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Q1) Sea level fluctuated several times during the Paleozoic. Which of the following is NOT a representative factor for sea level rise in the Paleozoic?
A)Melting of continental glaciers.
B)Ocean basins stood high on the asthenosphere due to active seafloor spreading.
C)Ocean basins stood high on the asthenosphere due to slow but continuous seafloor convergence.
D)The breakup of the Precambrian supercontinent
Q2) A radiometric date is determined from mica that has been removed from a rock. What does the date signify if the mica is found in granite? What does the date signify if the mica is found in schist?
Q3) The Carboniferous period is well noted for the A)emergence of the insect.
B)evolution of the amniotic egg.
C)age of the reptiles.
D)extinction of shallow water organisms.
Q4) Which isotopes are most appropriate for dating formations from the following ages: (a)the early Precambrian; (b)the Mesozoic; (c)the late Pleistocene?
Q5) What types of changes occurred in land-dwelling animals during the Mesozoic?
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Chapter 24: The Oceans, Atmosphere, and Climatic Effects
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Q1) Why are temperature fluctuations greater over land than water?
Q2) Warm climates favor carbonate deposition because carbonates dissolve more easily in cold water than in warm water. Name two types of carbonate depositional environments.
Q3) If the composition of the atmosphere changed so that less terrestrial radiation was allowed to escape, the Earth would experience
A)higher average temperatures.
B)lower average temperatures.
C)greater atmospheric pressure and higher temperatures.
D)no change in pressure or temperature.
Q4) The Coriolis force greatly affects the path of air circulation, and is the result of A)global winds.
B)Earth's rotation.
C)Earth's tilt.
D)all of these
Q5) Identify erosional features of the shoreline. Identify depositional features of the shoreline.
Q6) What is the most common depositional feature created by the work of the oceans?
Q7) What is the significance of the ozone layer?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Driving Forces of Weather
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Q1) The Chinook wind is a warm, dry wind that descends the eastern slope of the Rocky Mountains. What makes these winds so warm and dry?
Q2) As an air parcel moves up the side of a mountain, it
A)expands and cools.
B)expands and warms.
C)compresses and cools.
D)compresses and warms.
Q3) What information is needed in order to forecast today's weather?
Q4) What happens if nearly saturated air experiences a quick, significant temperature drop?
A)Relative humidity drops.
B)Relative humidity rises.
C)Condensation occurs.
D)Outcome depends on the temperature of the air.
Q5) Why do cumulus clouds often form, disappear, and then reform in the same place?
Q6) Air moves from
A)a region of low pressure to a region of high pressure.
B)a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure.
C)a region of stability to a region of instability.
D)a cold front to a warm front.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is Jupiter the largest planet in the solar system?
A)Because that's just the way it happened.
B)Being the oldest planetary core, it had more time than the other planets to accumulate enough gas around itself before solar winds blew interplanetary dust away.
C)Due to a massive collision with another protoplanet
D)Because of its distance from the Sun, the gravitational attraction between it and the Sun is perfectly balanced so as to create a density that results in the largest size of any planet.
Q2) In a museum collection you can likely see a
A)meteoroid but not a meteorite.
B)meteor but not a meteoroid.
C)meteorite but not a meteoroid.
Q3) How much greater is the atmospheric pressure of Jupiter than Earth's? More than A)ten times.
B)one hundred times.
C)ten thousand times.
D)a million times.
Q4) Distinguish between an asteroid, a meteoroid, and a comet.
Q5) Why do the tails of comets point away from the Sun?
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Chapter 27: Stars and Galaxies
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Q1) How does the mass of a giant star compare with the mass of the black hole it may become? How do the densities compare?
Q2) Which one of these elements is normally the remnant of a supernova?
A)hydrogen
B)helium
C)silver
D)none of these
Q3) Red giant stars are
A)close to exhausting their supply of hydrogen.
B)have already exhausted their supply of hydrogen.
C)are close to exhausting their supply of helium.
D)have already exhausted their supply of helium.
Q4) If the Sun collapsed to a black hole, the time required for the Earth to orbit the collapsed Sun would
A)increase.
B)decrease.
C)stay the same.
Q5) What are the outward forces that act on a star? What are the inward forces? How do these compare?
Page 29
Q6) What event marks the birth of a star, and what event marks its death?
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Chapter 28: The Structure of Space and Time
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55 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a 1-g gravitational field, in 1 s, a light beam will curve beneath a perfectly straight line by
A)much less than 4.9 m.
B)about 4.9 m.
C)much more than 4.9 m.
Q2) Cepheids are types of stars that regularly change how bright they are over a period of a few
A)days.
B)months.
C)year.
D)decades.
Q3) Dark energy bends the curvature of spacetime
A)in the exact same fashion as gravity.
B)in the opposite manner of gravity.
C)by absorbing all lightwaves that pass through it.
D)Dark energy does not bend the curvature of spacetime.
Q4) A clock on the surface of a shrinking star will run progressively
A)slower.
B)faster.
C)no difference
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Chapter 29: Prologue: the Nature of Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Science is concerned mainly with the A)natural world.
B)spiritual world.
C)difference between right and wrong.
D)search for eternal truths.
Q2) A truly educated person is knowledgeable about A)science.
B)the arts.
C)religion.
D)all of the above
Q3) Science and technology are A)really one and the same.
B)responsible for all the good in the world.
C)responsible for all that is wrong in the world.
D)fundamentally different from each other.
Q4) Success in science is mainly linked to emphasis on A)experiments.
B)luck.
C)trial and error.
D)philosophical discussions.
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