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Survey of Physical Science offers a broad overview of fundamental concepts in physics, chemistry, astronomy, and earth sciences. Designed for non-science majors, the course emphasizes key principles such as motion, energy, structure of matter, chemical reactions, the universe, and the Earth's physical processes. Through lectures, demonstrations, and interactive activities, students gain an appreciation for the scientific method and the relevance of physical science in everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 14th Edition by James Shipman(Numbers)
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Q1) The speed of light in a vacuum is 300,000,000 m/s.Represented in powers-of-10 notation,this is
A) 30 × 10<sup>8</sup>m/s.
B) 3 × 10<sup>7</sup>m/s.
C) 30 × 10<sup>6</sup>m/s.
D) 3 × 10<sup>8</sup>m/s.
Answer: D
Q2) The natural sciences are divided into physical sciences and ______________ sciences.
Answer: biological
Q3) A measurement of 0.00254 g is the same as
A) 0.254 mg.
B) 25.4 mg.
C) 254 mg.
D) 2.54 mg.
E) none of these.
Answer: D
Q4) The natural sciences are divided into ______________ sciences and biological sciences.
Answer: physical

3
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Q1) A golfer hits a ball on a level fairway at an angle of 60° relative to the horizontal,and it lands on the green.Another golfer hits a ball with the same speed but at another angle,and it lands on the green by the other ball.What was the launch angle for the second golfer?
A) 30°
B) 20°
C) 45°
D) 40°
E) 10°
Answer: A
Q2) An object that is moving in a linear path with an acceleration at a right angle to the motion has a(n)______________ velocity.
A) changing
B) increasing
C) decreasing
D) constant
Answer: A
Q3) A rifle bullet shot horizontally has a vertical acceleration of ______________. Answer: 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>,or 32 ft/s<sup>2</sup> (gravity)
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Q1) The relationship between mass and weight is given by the equation
A) m = wg.
B) w = m/g.
C) g = mw.
D) w = mg.
Answer: D
Q2) G (big G)is not a(n)______________,as g (little g)is.
Answer: acceleration
Q3) A spacecraft in space keeps going at the same velocity,even without firing its rockets,in accordance with the _______________ law of motion.
A) fourth
B) first
C) second
D) third
Answer: B
Q4) For Newton's third law,the action and reaction forces are equal in ______________ and opposite in direction.
Answer: magnitude
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Q1) A student weighing 300 N climbed a flight of stairs 5.0 m high in 6 s.How much work was done by the student?
A) 1500 J
B) 1800 J
C) 1500 W
D) 1800 W
E) 50 W
Q2) Work in the amount of 280 J is done in lifting an object a distance of 4.0 m in a time of 7.0 s.
a. How much force did it take to lift the object?
b. What was the power input?
Q3) The energy of motion is called
A) inertia.
B) power.
C) kinetic energy.
D) potential energy.
Q4) A student weighing 700 N climbs a flight of stairs 5.0 m high.Calculate the work done.
Q5) The value of an object's gravitational potential energy depends on the
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Q1) When a material is found to have no definite volume and no definite shape,what is the phase of the material?
A) Gas
B) Liquid
C) Plasma
D) Solid
Q2) ______________ is the process whereby energetic molecules escape from a liquid.
Q3) Heat transfer that involves mass movement is A) temperature.
B) conduction.
C) convection.
D) radiation.
Q4) A quantity that gives the direction of a thermodynamic process is A) entropy.
B) efficiency.
C) specific heat.
D) energy.
Q5) The SI unit of heat is the ______________.
Q6) A liter of water at room temperature (20°C)is heated to its boiling temperature.How many kilocalories of heat are required?
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Q1) The audible range of sound is from 20 Hz to ______________ kHz.
Q2) Which of the following radiations has the longest wavelength?
A) Infrared
B) Visible
C) Ultraviolet
D) X-rays
Q3) Light in a vacuum has a speed of ______________ m/s.
Q4) A radar pulse returns 9.0 × 10<sup>-4</sup> s after it was sent out and reflected by an object.What is the separation distance of the radar source and the object?
A) 2.7 × 10<sup>5</sup> m
B) 1.4 × 10<sup>5</sup> m
C) 7.4 × 10<sup>-4</sup> m
D) 3.7 × 10<sup>-4</sup> m
Q5) For a wave with a constant speed,the smaller the period,the ______________ its wavelength.
Q6) When a jet plane exceeds the speed of sound,a(n)______________ forms,resulting in a sonic boom.
Q7) How many times greater is the speed of red light ( = 700 nm)than the speed of violet light ( = 400 nm)in a vacuum?
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Q1) An object is placed 5 cm to the left of a converging spherical lens.The lens has a focal length of f = 10 cm.What kind of image is formed and what is its orientation?
A) Real/Upright
B) Virtual/Upright
C) Virtual/Inverted
D) Real/Inverted
Q2) A reflected ray of light leaves a plane mirror's surface at an angle of 60° relative to the normal.The angle of incidence was
A) 60° relative to the surface.
B) 60° relative to the normal.
C) 90° from the surface.
D) none of these.
Q3) Reflection from smooth surfaces is called ______________ reflection.
Q4) ______________ waves cannot be polarized.
Q5) If a ray of light passes from air into glass,the light will
A) travel along the normal.
B) bend toward the normal.
C) bend away from the normal.
D) continue traveling in the same direction.
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Q1) The electrical power dissipated in an appliance depends on A) voltage.
B) current.
C) resistance.
D) all of these.
Q2) Power may be expressed as _____________ times resistance.
Q3) In a dc motor,the polarity and current are reversed by a(n)______________.
Q4) Two oppositely charged particles ______________ one another.
Q5) Three resistors,10 ,20 ,and 30 ,are wired in series and connected to a 120-V battery.How much current flows in the circuit?
Q6) If two protons are moved 3 times farther apart,the electrical force between them is what factor of the original force?
Q7) A system of 11 protons and 15 neutrons has a net charge of
A) 17.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
B) -17.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
C) 41.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
D) 11.0 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
E) -41.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
Q8) A(n)______________ converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
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Q1) A CD player uses a laser whose light frequency is 3.85 × 10<sup>14</sup>
Hz.Calculate the energy,in joules,of the photons.
Q2) The lines in the visible region of the hydrogen spectrum are known as the A) Lyman series.
B) Balmer series.
C) Paschen series.
D) Bohr series.
Q3) The unit called the hertz (Hz)is equivalent to A) 1/s only.
B) a reciprocal second only.
C) s<sup>-1</sup> only.
D) all of these.
Q4) Calculate the radius in nanometers of the orbit of a hydrogen atom's electron with n = 5.
A) 0.27
B) 2.7
C) 1.3
D) 0.13
Q5) Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of a 0.145-kg baseball moving at a speed of 45.2 m/s.
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Q1) Which of the following types of radiation has the greatest ability to penetrate matter?
A) Gamma rays
B) Beta particles
C) Alpha particles
D) Protons
Q2) The smallest amount of a fissionable material that will give a self-sustaining chain reaction is called the
A) mass defect.
B) mass number.
C) atomic mass.
D) critical mass.
Q3) The central core of the atom is called the ______________.
Q4) The number of protons in an atom of is \({ } _ { 9 } ^ { 19 } \mathrm {~F}\)
Q5) A gas of electrons and protons or other nuclei is called a(n)______________.
Q6) The common unit of radiation absorbed dosage is the ______________.
Q7) The c in E = mc<sup>2</sup> stands for ______________.
Q8) The time it takes for one-half of a sample of a radionuclide to decay is called its
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Q1) Which of the following Period 4 elements has the smallest atom?
A) Kr
B) Ga
C) Ca
D) Br
Q2) The alkali metals have ______________ valence electron(s).
Q3) What is the preferred name for Mg<sub>3</sub>N<sub>2</sub>?
A) Magnesium trinitride
B) Magnesium nitride
C) Dimagnesium trinitride
D) Manganese nitrate
Q4) An element that tends to lose its valence electrons during chemical reactions is classified as a(n)______________.
Q5) Electrons in the outermost shell are referred to as ______________ electrons. A) valence
B) orbital
C) f shell
D) s shell
Q6) Arrange the atoms magnesium,fluorine,strontium,and sulfur in order of increasing ionization energy.
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Q1) In chlorine gas,the bond between the two chlorine atoms is
A) ionic.
B) single covalent.
C) triple covalent.
D) double covalent.
Q2) Draw the Lewis structure for Freon-12,CF<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) If a compound is solid,has a high melting point,conducts electricity in the liquid phase,and dissolves in water,it is most likely to be a(n)______________ compound.
A) intermediate
B) organic
C) covalent
D) ionic
Q4) ______________ is the measure of the ability of an atom to attract shared electrons to itself.
Q5) Identify each of the following molecules as either polar or nonpolar.
a. ClO
b. N<sub>2</sub>
c. Cl<sub>2</sub>
d. CH<sub>4</sub>
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Q1) When there is a net release of energy in a chemical reaction,it is called a(n)______________ reaction.
A) exothermic
B) activation
C) endothermic
D) combustion
Q2) Reacting an acid with a base gives water and A) a carbonate.
B) ammonia.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) a salt.
Q3) Balance the chemical equation: Al<sub>2</sub>S<sub>3</sub>+ H<sub>2</sub>O ? Al(OH)<sub>3</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>S
Q4) When the equation Al + O<sub>2</sub> Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> is balanced,the coefficient of Al is A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q5) Name four factors that influence the rate of chemical reactions.
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Q1) During ester formation,the -OH is removed from the A) carboxylic acid.
B) amine.
C) alcohol.
D) sugar.
Q2) Which of the following atoms normally has one covalent bond to it?
A) At
B) Se
C) Si
D) P
E) Ne
Q3) Draw the two structural formulas for the molecular formula C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>7</sub>N.
Q4) Which of the following could be the formula of an alkyne?
A) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
B) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
C) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
D) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
Q5) Any chemical that can cause cancer is called a(n)______________.
Q6) Draw the structural formula for 1,1-dimethylcyclopropane.
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Q1) The angle measured from the horizon to the line of sight to the celestial object is called the ______________.
Q2) The slow,25,800-year rotation of Earth's axis is called ______________.
Q3) The 75°W longitude meridian is the center of the ______________ Standard Time zone in the United States.
A) Pacific
B) Mountain
C) Eastern
D) Central
Q4) When it is 12 noon,May 6,in Perth,Australia (33°S,116°E),what are the standard time and date in Ottawa,Canada (44°N,76°W)?
Q5) On June 21,the noonday Sun is overhead at what latitude?
A) 0°
B) 23.5°N
C) 23.5°S
D) That of the Tropic of Cancer
Q6) Coordinated Universal Time (UTC)is based on ______________.
Q7) Determine the maximum altitude of the Sun on December 22 for an observer located at 30°N.
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Q1) Our solar system is thought to have evolved from a(n)______________.
Q2) Gravity acting on ______________ played an important role in the condensation process of forming nebulae.
Q3) The Great Dark Spot is a feature of ______________.
Q4) The planet Mercury
A) has retrograde motion.
B) is the closest planet to Venus.
C) is the smallest of the terrestrial planets.
D) has a uniquely circular orbit.
Q5) The rings of Saturn were discovered by ______________.
Q6) The surface of the terrestrial planet ______________ cannot be seen from Earth.
Q7) The fourth planet from the Sun is ______________.
Q8) "Canals" are a feature once associated with the planet ______________.
Q9) Other planetary systems are best detected by the Doppler shifts that change the pattern of the star's
A) spectrum.
B) brightness.
C) rotational period.
D) twinkling.
Q10) The solar system model of Copernicus is known as the ______________ model. Page 18
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Q1) Moonquakes are believed to have caused the Moon's A) rays.
B) craters.
C) rills
D) plains (maria).
Q2) A high tide is occurring at Charleston,South Carolina (70°W,12°N).At approximately what other longitude is a high tide occurring?
A) 110°E
B) 70°E
C) 20°E
D) 20°W
E) 110°W
Q3) Comets are composed of ______________.
A) dust and ice
B) rock
C) helium
D) lead
E) iron
Q4) The names of the Martian moons,Phobos and Deimos,mean ______________ and ______________.
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Q1) The most distant objects yet detected in the universe are
A) quasars.
B) pulsars.
C) superclusters.
D) globular clusters.
Q2) Polaris,the pole star,is 208 parsecs away.Calculate the distance to Polaris in kilometers.
Q3) A faint white dwarf that temporarily increases in brightness as a consequence of nuclear explosions on its surface is termed
A) a nova.
B) a Type II supernova.
C) a bright nebula.
D) a red giant.
Q4) Familiar groups of stars that are parts of a constellation or parts of different constellations are called
A) configurations.
B) asterisms.
C) major sequences.
D) local groups.
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Q1) The conterminous United States lies predominantly in which wind zone?
A) Westerlies
B) Northeast tradewinds
C) Polar easterlies
D) Doldrums
Q2) To avoid toxic vapor,one can use a(n)____________ barometer to measure pressure.
A) mercury
B) Galileo
C) aneroid
D) Torricelli
Q3) Radio waves are reflected by which of the following ion layers?
A) C
B) D
C) F
D) A
Q4) The absolute moisture content of the air is 7.7 g/ft<sup>3</sup> on a day when the air temperature is 75°F.What is the relative humidity?
Q5) Radio waves are reflected by layers in the ______________.
Q6) The rate at which the temperature decreases with altitude is called the
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Q1) The dome of water associated with a hurricane making landfall is called a(n)______________.
Q2) Storms
A) develop as a consequence of frontal activity.
B) are atmospheric disturbances.
C) develop within a single air mass.
D) all of the above
Q3) Smog is a mixture of smoke and A) fog.
B) CO<sub>2.</sub>
C) O<sub>2.</sub>
D) CO.
Q4) A tornado warning is issued
A) when weather conditions suggest that a tornado might form.
B) only when a tornado has been sighted.
C) only when a tornado has been indicated on radar.
D) when a tornado has been either sighted or indicated on radar.
Q5) Coal,gas,and oil are ______________ fuels.
Q6) A tornado ______________ is issued when a tornado has been sighted or indicated on radar.
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Q1) 3 steps on the Richter scale represents about how many times more energy?
A) 32
B) 32000
C) 30000
D) 300
Q2) California's Sierra Nevada are examples of ______________ mountains.
Q3) In the early 1900s,the scientist named __________ revived the idea of continental drift.
A) Alfred Wegener
B) Harry Hess
C) Andrija Mohorovicic
D) None of the above
Q4) The type of plate boundary at which one plate collides with another and subduction occurs is called ______________.
A) transform
B) divergent
C) convergent
D) none of these
Q5) Longitudinal seismic body waves are known by the letter ______________.
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Q6) The Japanese word tsunami means "______________ wave."
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Q1) Which of the following scientists is generally designated "the father of geology"?
A) Friedrich Mohs
B) James Hutton
C) Alfred Wegener
D) Edwin Hubble
Q2) The process of transforming sediment into sedimentary rock is called A) lithification.
B) striation.
C) metamorphism.
D) hardening.
Q3) A volcano with a high,steep slope is a A) composite volcano.
B) stratovolcano.
C) shield volcano.
D) cinder cone.
Q4) A(n)______________ is the surface expression of magma that originates in the asthenosphere and deeper.
Q5) Magma viscosity depends on the silica content and the ______________ of the magma.
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Q1) At the ends and along the sides of a glacier,the sediment deposits may form ridges known as
A) deltas.
B) levees.
C) drifts.
D) moraines.
Q2) The percentage volume of unoccupied space in a material is called the material's ______________.
Q3) A depression on the land surface caused by the collapse of a cavern is called A) a sinkhole.
B) a shrink pit.
C) a culvert.
D) none of the above.
Q4) A stream's load is divided into three components: dissolved load,______________ load,and bed load.
Q5) The three major types of seawater movement are waves,______________,and tides.
Q6) A river's suspended load and bed load may accumulate at its mouth and form a(n)______________.
Q8) A loop-like bend in a river channel is called a(n)______________. Page 26
Q7) Frost wedging is a common type of ______________ weathering.
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Q1) Lack of knowledge of the phenomenon called ______________ led Lord Kelvin to an incorrect estimate of the age of Earth.
Q2) The Triassic is a(n) A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q3) The process of matching up rock layers in different localities by the use of index fossils or other means is called ______________.
Q4) Archaeopteryx fossils are those of a prehistoric A) bird.
B) crinoid.
C) trilobite.
D) ground sloth.
Q5) Eons are subdivided first into ______________.
Q6) Wood from an ancient stump has a ratio of carbon-14 to carbon-12 that is one-eighth that of new wood.About how old is the stump? (Carbon-14's half-life is 5730 years.)
Q7) The study of fossils is called ______________.
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