Survey of Criminal Justice Final Exam
Questions
Course Introduction
Survey of Criminal Justice provides an overview of the American criminal justice system, examining its foundational components: law enforcement, courts, and corrections. The course explores the historical development, organization, and functions of each segment, addressing their roles in maintaining social order and administering justice. Students will analyze the processes of crime reporting, investigation, prosecution, adjudication, and punishment, as well as major issues such as due process, the rights of the accused, and the impact of contemporary policy debates. Emphasis is also placed on ethical considerations and the challenges faced by the system in a diverse society.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Criminal Justice 15th Edition by Larry J. Siegel
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Chapter 1: Crime and Criminal Justice
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perspective sees the justice system as a mechanism of caring for and treating people who cannotmanage themselves, and assumes that people are at the mercy of social, economic, and interpersonal conditions.
A)Equal justice
B)Crime control
C)Rehabilitation
D)Due process
Answer: C
Q2) Decriminalization, deinstitutionalization, and pretrial diversion are favored by those adhering to the _____perspective
Answer: nonintervention
Q3) Who sponsored the research in the 1950s that revealed that the criminal justice system was composed of agenciesthat could be connected in an intricate network of decision-making processes
A)American Bar Foundation project
B)President's Commission on Law Enforcement and Administration of Justice
C)Chicago Crime Commission
D)Wickersham Commission
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Nature and Extent of Crime
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Q1) One of the most important sources of self-report data is the _____ study, conducted annuallyusing approximately 2,500 high school seniors.
A)Monitoring the Future
B)Juvenile Arrest
C)National Center for Information about Crime
D)Juvenile Social Survey
Answer: A
Q2) ___________ is the legal term for theft.
Answer: Larceny
Q3) One higher-ranking police captain believes that the increase in instrumental crimes is theproblem. Which of the following is an example of an instrumental crime
A)A young man who shoots the cashier of a convenience store that he is attempting to rob.
B)A drunken husband who shoots his wife during a late night fight.
C)A parent who strikes his child with a belt.
D)An alcoholic who commits a DUI and kills a child who is attempting to cross the street.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Understanding Crime and Victimization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under critical criminal justice, the criminal justice system is viewed as a means of controlling the poor.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Social process theories suggest that criminal behavior is learned.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Delinquents who begin their offending career at a very early age and continue to offend into adulthood are known as ______________________.
Answer: life-course persisters
Q4) Disinhibition is when adults are viewed as being rewarded for violence and when violence is seen as socially acceptable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) A _______________ may occur when a state institution fails to enforce a law. Answer: State corporate crime
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Chapter 4: Criminal Law: Substance and Procedure
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is possible to defend against a speeding ticket by claiming a mistake of fact.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Fifth Amendment protects against double jeopardy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Self-defense as a justification requires imminent danger and an inability to escape from the attacker.
A)True
B)False
Q4) U.S. criminal law is static and unchanging.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mala in se crimes are statutory crimes that reflect existing social conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the four broad categories into which law can be divided.
Q7) _________________________ due process refers to a citizen's rights to be protected from biased, discriminatory, or unfair criminal laws.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: 5 Public Policing and Private Security
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Q1) __________ technology consists of new materials and equipment, such as Tasers andspecialized metal detectors, used by the police to catch criminals or prevent crime.
Q2) Which arrangement in early English society required that every person in a village beresponsible for protecting the settlement from thieves
A)The runner system
B)Community policing
C)The pledge system
D)The watch system
Q3) ____________________ can classify fingerprints and identify up to 250 characteristics on theprint.
Q4) Which of the following is an example of hard technology used by law enforcement
A)Ignition interlock systems
B)Facial recognition software
C)Crime mapping
D)Gunshot location devices
Q5) The shire reeve was considered the first police officer in the United States.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Police: Organization, Role, and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________ is concerned with making decisions that are arrived at through proceduresthat are viewed as fair.
Q2) Other improvements to patrol need to be made according to Chief Williams's assessment. Hebelieves that the police should be maintainers of community order and safety. This model ofpolicing is referred to as:
A)The technological model.
B)The broken windows model.
C)Procedural justice.
D)Rapid response.
Q3) Most departments promote police personnel according to the____________________ system.
Q4) The average police officer can expect to make between ten and fifteen arrests permonth for serious crimes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Police agencies have always had the cooperation and respect of the communities theyserve.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Issues in Policing
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Q1) Which police style is associated with the preference to ignore issues of concern or treat them informally, unless the social or political order is being jeopardized
A)Crime fighter
B)Social agent
C)Law enforcer
D)Watchman
Q2) In Graham v. Connor, the Supreme Court created a reasonableness standard for the use of nondeadly force.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What factors are related to police shootings
Q4) While not everyone agrees that ________________ is an actual medical condition, it has been listed as the cause of death in some situations, particularly when the suspect was determined to be under the influence of stimulants.
Q5) Female officers are less likely to use force than male officers.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are the findings from the Knapp Commission
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Chapter 8: Police and the Rule of Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain some of the benefits and pitfalls in using information obtained from informants toprocure search warrants.
Q2) Surveys have revealed that 60% of police chiefs are in agreement that Miranda Warningsare beneficial and should not be rescinded by the courts. It has also been suggested that Mirandawarnings "handcuff" the police. To which point of view do you subscribe, and why
Q3) During the service of a search warrant, contraband not listed in the warrant can belegally seized, as long as it is in plain sight.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Police can conduct a search based on an anonymous tip, such as one that is givenvia telephone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In Colorado v. Spring (1987) the court ruled that suspects need not be aware of allthe possible outcomes of waiving their rights for the Miranda warning to be considered properlygiven.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: 9 Court Structure and Personnel
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Q1) Which is a process of dispute resolution in which a neutral third party renders a decision after a hearing at which both parties agree to be heard
A)Arbitration
B)Dispute resolution
C)Merit selection
D)Circle sentencing
Q2) Define the roles of prosecutors and defense attorneys. What are their main differences and similarities, and how do ethics and morals impact each position
Q3) Discuss the rationale and benefits of specialty courts and how such courts fit into the larger structure of the state court system.
Q4) Discussions between defense counsel and prosecution in which the accused agrees to plead guilty in exchange for certain considerations, such as reduced changes, is referred to as:
A)Plea bargaining.
B)Imploration requesting.
C)Declaration of entreaty.
D)Intermediate sanctioning.
Q5) Explain the role and functions of a judge in the U.S. court system.
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Chapter 10: Pretrial and Trial Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two main ways for the defense to petition an appellate court for review of the procedures once a client is found guilty are through the appeals process and through habeas corpus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Direct examination refers to the prosecution's questioning of a defense witness or the defense's questioning of a prosecution witness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A grand jury is ordinarily made up of five or seven individuals, depending on the requirements of the jurisdiction, which guarantees no ties in the decision process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Supreme Court, in the case of Newspapers Inc v. Virginia (1980) concluded that criminal trials must stay open to the press.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain some of the benefits of pretrial services.
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Chapter 11: Punishment and Sentencing
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Q1) Critics of the death penalty state that it has little deterrent effect on crime. Define what is meant by this statement, and provide evidence from the text to support this claim.
Q2) Of the approximately 10,000 persons convicted each year on homicide charges, only 250 to 300 are sentenced to death, while an equal number receive probation or community supervision only.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Prison sentences for two or more criminal acts, served simultaneously and that run together are called:
A)Consecutive sentences.
B)Concurrent sentences.
C)Conclusive sentences.
D)Concomitant sentences.
Q4) Annually about 70% of convicted felons are sentenced to some time in prison or jail. A)True
B)False
Q5) List and discuss the factors that affect sentencing.
Q6) Describe the history of punishment and how this led to the rise of prisons.
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Chapter 12: Community Sentences: Probation, Intermediate
Sanctions, and Restorative Justice
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Q1) The medieval practice of ________________ allowed for convicted offenders to go unpunished if they agreed to refrain from any further criminal behavior.
Q2) The genesis of probation in the United States can be traced back to the efforts of John Augustus in Boston.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Given Mr. Land's noncriminal past, the judge sentences Robert to nine months in jail but gives him which type of sentence upon completion of a substance abuse program and no further criminal activity
A)Retroactive
B)Proactive
C)Suspended
D)Postconviction
Q4) In restitution situations involving wealthy offenders, the judge can issue an order stipulating that the offender must get a low-paying public job and use the income as a means of payment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Corrections: History, Institutions, and Populations
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Q1) The use of modern designs to improve effectiveness in jails has led to the creation of _________________ jails.
Q2) What act made it a federal offense to transport interstate commerce goods made in prison for private use
A)The Jackson-Joseph Act
B)The Great Depression Act
C)The Ashurst-Sumners Act
D)The Property of Service Act
Q3) The ______________________ Act made it a federal offense to transport interstate commerce goods made in prison for private use.
Q4) By 1927, only three U.S. states did not have some kind of parole option.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the three trends listed in the text that have shaped contemporary correctional institutions from 1960 to the present.
Q6) A _____________________ is a correctional facility designed to hold pretrial detainees and misdemeanants serving their criminal sentences.
Q7) Explain the benefits of private prisons.
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Chapter 14: Prison Life: Living in and Leaving Prison
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Q1) "Queens," inmates who dress and act like women, are respected even more than punks in the prison subculture because they choose their lifestyle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most important provision of which 1996 act was the requirement of prisoners to exhaust all internal administrative grievance procedures before they can file a civil rights case in federal court
A)Prison Litigation Reform Act
B)Prisoner Rights Act
C)Civil Liberties Reform Act
D)Percy Amendment
Q3) Discuss the problems associated with adult correctional system. In your discussion, examine the growth of the prison population, the forms of incarceration used, and where most prisoners are housed.
Q4) In the case of Shaw v. Murphy (2001), it was ruled that inmates do not have an absolute right to correspond with other inmates, even if it concerns legal advice.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Juvenile Justice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Civic leaders who focused their attention on the misdeeds of poor children to control their behavior were called:
A)Life savers
B)Child savers
C)Guardian investors
D)Delinquent stakeholders
Q2) The Latin term, meaning "father of his country," that refers to the power of the state to act on behalf of those children who cannot is called ______________________.
Q3) The teen court movement is one of the fastest-growing delinquency intervention programs in the country.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the key factors associated with the reform movement that began in the United States in the mid-1800s. What positive and negative acts originated from this time
Q5) A primary goal of Charles Loring Brace's __________________________ was the relocation of troubled inner city youths to more rural parts of the country to work on farms.
Q6) Explain the juvenile detention process.
17
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