Survey of Criminal Justice Exam Review
Course Introduction
Survey of Criminal Justice provides students with a comprehensive overview of the American criminal justice system, including its history, components, and processes. The course examines the roles and functions of law enforcement, the courts, and corrections, as well as the impact of laws, policies, and social issues on justice administration. Students will explore fundamental concepts such as crime typologies, the rights of the accused, and contemporary challenges facing the system. Through case studies and critical analysis, the course fosters an understanding of the interconnected nature of justice agencies and the broader implications for society.
Recommended Textbook
CJ2 2nd Edition by Larry K. Gaines
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17 Chapters
849 Verified Questions
849 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Criminal Justice Today
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Q1) The smallest and top tier of the "wedding-cake" model of criminal justice focuses on high profile cases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Rising crime rates in the 1970s and 1980s led to:
A) a get tough on crime attitude
B) a decrease in prison admissions
C) a decrease in arrests
D) the creation of a Department of Homeland Security
Answer: A
Q3) The newest variation on crime that is directly related to the increased presence of computers in everyday life is called:
A) high-tech crime
B) white-collar crime
C) organized crime
D) public order crimes
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Causes of Crime
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Q1) Causation between two variables means that they tend to vary together.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Some adoption studies show that fraternal twins are considerably more likely to exhibit similar criminal behavior than identical twins.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Classical criminology is a school of thought that sees criminal and delinquent behavior as the result of biological, psychological, and social forces.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) __________ psychology is a branch of psychology that studies how people's thoughts and behaviors are influenced by the presence of others.
Answer: Social
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Defining and Measuring Crime
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Sample Questions
Q1) A felony is usually punishable by a fine and/or jail term of less than a year.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) In a civil court, the legal responsibility for one's own or another's actions is called:
A) liability
B) responsibility
C) defense
D) prosecution
Answer: A
Q3) The National Crime Victimization Surveys are compiled by the Bureau of Justice Statistics.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) In most jurisdictions, an infraction is a noncriminal offense for which the penalty is a __________ rather than incarceration.
Answer: Falseine
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Inside Criminal Law
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a basic element of corpus delicti?
A) actus reus
B) mens rea
C) mala in se
D) concurrence
Q2) Actus rea is a person's mental state, or intent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The authority of a court to hear and decide cases within an area of the law or a geographic territory is called __________.
A) case law
B) statute
C) jurisdiction
D) negligence.
Q4) __________ __________are the rules of law announced in court decisions.
Q5) The Eight Amendment to the Constitution protects against which of the following?
A) unreasonable searches and seizures
B) self-incrimination
C) cruel and unusual punishment
D) double jeopardy
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Chapter 5: Law Enforcement Today
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Q1) The Secret Service is responsible for the Treasury Police Force.
A)True B)False
Q2) The _________ is federal agency responsible for enforcing the nation's federal gambling laws
Q3) The oldest federal law enforcement agency in the United States is the U.S. Marshals Service.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain why police officers are allowed discretionary powers in the United States.
Q5) The majority of sheriff's in the United States are elected.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List and explain the four basic responsibilities of the police.
Q7) In 1998, the U.S. Supreme Court held that an officer can be sued in _______________ for damages caused by a high-speed pursuit only if her or his conduct was so outrageous that it "shocks the conscience."
Q8) The primary law enforcement officer in a countyis the __________.
Q9) Explain the role of at least three federal law enforcement agencies in the U.S.
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Chapter 6: Challenges to Effective Policing
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the purposes of patrol?
A) The deterrence of crime by maintaining a visible police presence.
B) The maintenance of public order and a sense of security in the community.
C) The twenty-four-hour provision of services that are not crime related.
D) The prevention of crime by punishing offenders.
Q2) One of the most important pieces of trace evidence is ballistics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The primary police investigator of crimes is called a __________.
Q4) Explain the difference between general and directed patrol and give a real world example of each. How do these types of patrolassist police officers in the successful completion of their duties?
Q5) The most serious police corruption occurs when police take bribes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Officers authorized to make arrests and use force are called:
A) crime scene investigators
B) coroners
C) sworn officers
D) forensic technicians
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Police and the Constitution: The Rules of Law Enforcement
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Q1) One of the requirements of police officers when they are conducting a search is that they are reasonable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The questioning of a suspect after that person has been taken into custody is called a __________.
Q3) Explain at least four of the circumstances where a Miranda warning does not have to be given to a person being questioned.
Q4) Before a judge or magistrate will issue a search warrant, a police officer must present information showing reasonable suspicion that a crime has been or will be committed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Police officers must not just have probable cause to search and seize evidence, they must also legally exercise which of the following?
A) reasonable suspicion
B) reasonableness
C) plausibility
D) sensitivity.
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Chapter 8: Courts and the Quest for Justice
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Q1) Elections in which candidates are presented on the ballot with their party affiliation are called:
A) partisan elections
B) nonpartisan elections
C) affiliated elections
D) unaffiliated elections
Q2) Explain how the Missouri Plan of judicial selection occurs.
Q3) Explain how a court case reaches the U.S. Supreme Court.
Q4) Which of the following is one of the limitations of the jurisdiction of a court?
A) courtroom workgroup
B) subject matter
C) courtroom workspace
D) funding for public defenders
Q5) Courts that review decisions made by lower courts are called:
A) trial courts
B) county courts
C) district courts
D) appellate courts
Q6) A request from a higher court asking a lower court for the record of a case is called a ?__________.
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Chapter 9: Pretrial Procedures: The Adversary System in Action
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Q1) Preventive detention is the retention of an accused person in custody as a punishment for dangerous individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The __________ is a court proceeding in which the suspect is formally charged with the criminal offense stated in the indictment and where the suspect may enter a plea.
Q3) Explain the factors that affect case attrition.
Q4) In the Miranda vs. Arizona case, the U.S. Supreme Court held that a defendant cannot be "assured a fair trial unless counsel is provided for him," and therefore the state must provide a public defender to those who cannot afford to hire one for themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most chief prosecutors are appointed (versus elected) officials in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q7) List and briefly explain the different forms of plea bargaining agreements. Page 11
Q6) U.S. attorneys are nominated by the __________ and confirmed by the
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Chapter 10: The Criminal Trial
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Q1) Explain the difference between a civil trial and a criminal trial.
Q2) Anything that is used to prove the existence or nonexistence of a fact is called
Q3) A __________ is a jury whose members are so irreconcilably divided in their opinions that they cannot reach a verdict.
Q4) __________ is an order that requires correctional officials to bring an inmate before a court or a judge and explain why he or she is being held in prison.
Q5) A witness who has been granted immunity may still refuse to answer questions on the basis of self-incrimination.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Voir dire is the preliminary questions that the trial attorneys ask prospective jurors. A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain the typical qualifications that are necessary for jurors.
Q8) To be tried twice for the same criminal offense is called __________.
Q9) The preliminary questions that the trial attorneys ask prospective jurors is called
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Chapter 11: Punishment and Sentencing
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Q1) Capital punishment is a sentencing option in fifty states and in the federal government.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main method of execution in the United States is:
A) gas chamber
B) hanging
C) electric chair
D) lethal injection
Q3) Explain the difference between sentencing disparity and sentencing discrimination.
Q4) _______________ is an approach to punishment designed to repair the harm done to the victim and the community by the offender's criminal act.
Q5) An term of incarceration in which a judge determines the minimum and maximum terms of imprisonment is called __________.
Q6) Capital offenses are another name for crimes whose punishment results in _______________.
Q7) Any circumstances accompanying the commission of a crime that may justify a harsher sentence is called a(n) __________.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Probation and Community Corrections
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Q1) The theory behind __________ is that by getting a taste of the brutalities of the daily prison grind, the offender will be deterred from future criminal activity.
A) split-sentence probation
B) home confinement
C) shock incarceration
D) electronic monitoring
Q2) A boot camp is a community-based corrections center to which offenders report on a daily basis for purposes of treatment, education, and rehabilitation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ISP is a form of probation in which the offender is placed under stricter and more frequent surveillance and control than in conventional probation
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how an electronic monitoring device meets many of the goals of intermediatesanctions?
Q5) Explain alternative sentencing arrangements.
Q6) Explain how probation can be revoked.
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Chapter 13: Prisons and Jails
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Q1) Explain the factors that have caused the prison population to grow dramatically in the last several decades.
Q2) Jails are often more difficult to manage than prisons for which of the following reasons?
A) the more diverse and complex population that occurs in a jail facility
B) the large number of juveniles they must house and process
C) the lack of usefulness of jails in today's society
D) the smaller population they serve in a given year compared to prisons
Q3) A minimum-security prison would NOT be likely to house which of the following types of offenders?
A) white-collar criminals
B) rapists
C) first-time offenders
D) non-violent offenders
Q4) Children of convicts are more likely to become involved in delinquent behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The period of time a person denied bail (or unable to pay it) has spent in jail prior to his or her trial is called __________.
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Chapter 14: Behind Bars: The Life of an Inmate
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Q1) In Whitley v. Albers, the Supreme Court held that the use of force by prison officials violates an inmate's Eighth Amendment protections only if the force amounts to "the unnecessary and wanton infliction of pain."
A)True
B)False
Q2) A _________ is an act of executive clemency that overturns a conviction and removes any mention of the crime from the person's criminal record.
Q3) A __________ is an agreement between the state and the offender that establishes the conditions under which the latter will be granted parole.
Q4) The parole revocation hearing is the process of withdrawing parole and returning the parolee to prison.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of withdrawing parole and returning the parolee to prison is called:
A) mandatory sentence expiration
B) probation revocation
C) parole revocation
D) reentry
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Chapter 15: The Juvenile Justice System
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Q1) The child-savers believed which of the following?
A) that the state should not be involved with juveniles who are neglected
B) that the concept of parens patriae was invalid
C) that children needed treatment rather than punishment
D) that all delinquent children should be incarcerated
Q2) The process during which an official of the court decides whether to file a petition, release the juvenile, or place the juvenile under some other form of supervision is known as the referral.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain why juveniles are often thought to have lowered responsibility for their actions in a legal sense?
Q4) The __________ is a hearing in which the juvenile judge or officer decides the appropriate punishment for a youth found to be delinquent or a status offender.
Q5) When a child is denied certain necessities such as shelter, food, care, and love this is called __________.
Q6) The first juvenile court was created in the state of __________.
Q7) Explain the relationship between age and crime?
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Homeland Security
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the variables, according to Professor George Fletcher, that we need to consider in the "supercrime" of terrorism?
A) an unjust cause
B) the victims
C) the intention
D) the violence factor
Q2) A visa is official authorization allowing a person to travel to and within the issuing country.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the strategies used to collect information by intelligence agencies?
A) electronic surveillance
B) closed-source collection
C) intelligence sharing
D) counterintelligence
Q4) Explain how American law enforcement agencies have used "preventive policing" to combat terrorism.
Q5) Explain the internationalization of domestic terrorism.
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Chapter 17: Cyber Crime and the Future of Criminal Justice
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Q1) Digital currency is the introduction of illegally gained funds into the legal financial system with the goal of covering up the funds' true origin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All states have laws criminalizing aggressive behavior perpetrated through technology.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The illegal production and sales of material depicting sexually explicit conduct involving a child is called:
A) statutory rape
B) child sex trade
C) sex trafficking
D) child pornography
Q4) Cybercrime is a crime that occurs online, in the virtual community of the __________.
Q5) The condition of not being recognized or having a traceable name or identity on the Internet is known as _________.
Q6) A __________ is a person who uses one computer to break into another.
Page 20
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