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Survey of Criminal Justice provides an overview of the American criminal justice system, examining its key components: law enforcement, the courts, and corrections. The course explores the historical development, structure, and functions of each segment, introducing students to the processes from arrest to trial and correctional procedures. Topics include the roles of police officers, the judicial process, correctional institutions, and the broader challenges faced by the system such as crime trends, ethical dilemmas, and contemporary reforms. Students gain foundational knowledge to better understand careers in criminal justice and the systems impact on society.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Criminal Justice 15th Edition by Larry J. Siegel
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1435 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which branch of government interprets existing laws and determines whether they meet constitutionalrequirements
A)Correctional
B)Executive
C)Judicial
D)Legislative
Answer: C
Q2) The role of police officers involves primarily the first four stages of the formal criminal justice procedures. Inorder, what are these steps
A)Initial contact, investigation, arrest, custody
B)Initial contact, arrest, charging, custody
C)Initial contact, investigation, arrest, charging
D)Initial contact, arrest, investigation, charging
Answer: A
Q3) Most cases that go to trial result in a conviction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Murder, _________, robbery, burglary, larceny, motor vehicle theft, arson, and aggravatedassault make up the FBI's Part I crimes.
Answer: forcible rape
Q2) According to the _______ view of crime, behaviors that become crimes are essentially harmfulto a majority of citizens and therefore there is general agreement regarding which behaviorsneed to be controlled.
A)Conflict
B)Interactionist
C)Consensus
D)Constructionist
Answer: C
Q3) _____________ crimes include offenses such as selling narcotics to obtain access to goods andservices that are otherwise unobtainable.
Answer: Instrumental
Q4) UCR data captures all criminal violations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) A _______________ may occur when a state institution fails to enforce a law.
Answer: State corporate crime
Q2) Under the general theory of crime, criminal acts are attractive because they provide instant gratification for the offender.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A subculture occurs in disorganized neighborhoods marked by apathy, cynicism, helplessness, and distrust that is passed from one generation to the next, creating a permanent underclass. This subculture is called:
A)Focal concerns
B)Collective efficacy
C)The culture of poverty
D)The truly disadvantaged
Answer: C
Q4) ________ consists of the stratifications, classes, institutions, and groups that characterize a society.
Answer: Social structure
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Q1) The nature and definition of due process remains unchanged across historical time periods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which constitutional amendment outlaws illegal searches and seizures by police
A)First
B)Fourth
C)Fifth
D)Eighth
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the categories into which crimes are classified
A)Felonies
B)Misdemeanors
C)Torts
D)Violations
Q4) _________________________ due process seeks to ensure that no person will be deprived of life, liberty, or property without legal process.
Q5) ________________ governs the administration and regulation of city, county, state, and federal government agencies.
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Q1) Who heads the U.S. Department of Justice
A)U.S. Attorney General
B)Secretary of the Treasury
C)Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
D)Secretary of State
Q2) Since 2000, police agencies have been investing more in _______________-based practice,in order to increase efficiency, and "do more with less."
Q3) Which of the following is not a task performed by private police
A)Surveillance via CCTV cameras
B)Escorting a fired employee out of the building
C)Providing a night watch to deter trespassing
D)Enforcing traffic laws by issuing citations to motorists
Q4) ____________________ is paramount in the private policing context, whereas public policingrelies more heavily on the detection of criminal acts and the apprehension of suspects.
Q5) What are the duties of the U.S. Marshals
Q6) ____________________ gives the police the ability to analyze detailed visuals of crimepatterns.
Q7) Explain how crime mapping can benefit patrol deployment.
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Q1) The concept of hot spots of crime is most closely associated with which model of policing
A)Intelligence-led policing
B)Police-community relations (PCR)
C)Community-oriented policing (COP)
D)Problem-oriented policing (POP)
Q2) Highly focused, as opposed to randomized, policing efforts are currently believed to bemost effective at solving street-level crime problems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The majority of a police officer's time is spent handling minor disturbances, service calls,and performing administrative tasks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The core of problem-oriented policing is a proactive approach to law enforcement. A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the operation of fusion centers.
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Q1) How many styles of police work seem to fit the current behavior patterns of most police officers
A)2
B)4
C)6
D)8
Q2) Are female police officers still struggling for acceptance
Q3) Research indicates that a suspect's ____________________ has the strongest influence on discretionary decisions made by individual officers.
Q4) Harold's partner, Cecilia, takes a different approach to policing. She believes that Harold is too focused on the criminal and explains that she went into policing to work with the special needs population. She likes working with the homeless and those who require emergency services. Cecilia follows which style of policing
A)Crime fighter
B)Law enforcer
C)Social agent
D)Watchman
Q5) What factors are related to police shootings
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Q1) A police officer cannot arrest someone for a misdemeanor unless the officer sees the crimeoccur. What is this known as
A)The hearsay rule
B)In-presence requirement
C)The fruit of the poisonous tree requirement
D)Probable cause
Q2) The requirement that a search warrant state precisely where the search is to takeplace and what items are to be seized is referred to as
Q3) ____________________ refers to the process of creating an administrative recordof an arrest.
Q4) The legal grounds that authorize wiretapping of any alien the government believes is amember of a foreign terrorist group or is an agent of foreign power is called:
A)The Terrorist Exemption Act (TEA).
B)The Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA).
C)The Wiretap and Surveillance Protection Act (WASP).
D)The Systematic Wiretapping and Eavesdropping Exemption Pact (SWEEP).
Q5) Under what conditions can an automobile be searched
Q6) Explain the rules for serving warrants. What are some common misconceptions
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Q1) Which is a method of judicial selection that combines a judicial nominating commission, executive appointment, and nonpartisan confirmation elections
A)Missouri Plan
B)Mark English Plan
C)Dispute resolution
D)Concept summary plan
Q2) Research shows that election considerations do shape judicial decision making.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A prosecutor is ready to proceed with a simple drug possession case but decides not to because the defendant agrees to go to into a rehabilitation program. What would be the rationale for this dismissal
A)Interests of justice
B)Pretrial diversion
C)Due process problem
D)Referral
Q4) The county prosecutor who is charged with bringing offenders to justice and enforcing the criminal laws of the state is known as the __________________.
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Q1) What is the term for the group called for jury duty from which jury panels are selected
A)Voir dire
B)Venire
C)Vino de voir
D)Dretke rule
Q2) Explain the nuances of the "no contest" plea.
Q3) The three pleas are guilty, not guilty, and ________________________.
Q4) Which role is most problematic and controversial in plea negotiations
A)Prosecutor
B)Defense attorney
C)Defendant
D)Defendant.
Q5) Describe the role of the prosecutor, defense attorney, judge and victim in plea bargaining. Who, in your opinion, is the primary role player Explain.
Q6) Describe the procedures following an arrest, using an imaginary criminal and suspect as your example.
Q7) Compare and contrast the grand jury and the preliminary hearing.
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Q1) That the death penalty does not violate the Eighth Amendment to the Constitution was ruled in:
A)Bell v. South Carolina.
B)Gregg v. Georgia.
C)Garner v. Tennessee.
D)Furman v. Georgia.
Q2) If the judge were to sentence Brent to six months in jail and $2,500 in fines, this would be an example of:
A)General deterrence.
B)Specific deterrence.
C)Unambiguous deterrence.
D)Exclusive deterrence, given his age
Q3) Three-strike laws have garnered much criticism, especially after the life sentence imposed on a third-time felon for stealing a set of golf clubs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain three landmark Supreme Court decisions pertaining to capital punishment. Discuss how these shaped the laws.
Q5) Describe the history of punishment and how this led to the rise of prisons.
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Q1) Intermediate sanctions are no longer used in over forty states because of the cost and ineffectiveness of the programs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Levying a money payment on offenders to compensate society for their misdeeds is called a(n):
A)Fine.
B)Tariff.
C)Impose charge.
D)Duty tax.
Q3) The case of Tate v. Short (1971) recognized that:
A)Incarcerating individuals who could not pay fines discriminates against the poor.
B)Incarcerating individuals who violate probation for a misdemeanor offense violates the Eighth Amendment with regard to cruel and unusual punishment.
C)Restitution can only be used in cases which a felony was not the primary offense of the accused.
D)Community service restitution is unlawful for individuals who can afford to pay day fines.
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Q1) Which of the following was <b>not</b> an innovation advocated by Zebulon Brockway
A)Indeterminate sentencing
B)Parole
C)Corporal punishment
D)Individual treatment
Q2) During the 1930s and 1940s, restrictions on prison-made goods had little or no effect on the manufacturing and distribution of these products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The __________________ system was a congregate-style system developed in the nineteenth century in New York and was based on the concepts of group work during the day and separation at night.
Q4) The __________________ system developed in the nineteenth century was based on the concepts of total isolation and individual penitence.
Q5) Corrections Corporation of America is known as one of the largest _______________ industries in the United States.
Q6) Explain the benefits of private prisons.
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Q1) Explain how individual and group counseling, faith-based programs, and drug treatment have helped rehabilitate some inmates.
Q2) Historically, white women were treated much differently than African American women, with African American women being placed in male prisons and forced to work on chain gangs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Using the argument that the correctional facility's denial of his right to be tested for HIV constituted cruel and unusual punishment, which Amendment did the inmate use as a basis for a lawsuit
A)First Amendment
B)Fourth Amendment
C)Seventh Amendment
D)Eighth Amendment
Q4) "Punks," refers to the troublemaker inmates who cause problems for elder inmates by failing to follow the inmate code.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast the prison experience for male and female inmates.
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Q1) Under which of the following type of waiver does the prosecutor have the discretion of filing separate charges for certain legislatively designated offenses in either juvenile or criminal court
A)Judicial waiver
B)Reverse waiver
C)Direct filec
D)Excluded offense
Q2) Civic leaders who focused their attention on the misdeeds of poor children to control their behavior were called:
A)Life savers
B)Child savers
C)Guardian investors
D)Delinquent stakeholders
Q3) The U.S. Supreme court has repeatedly upheld the drug testing of student athletes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast juvenile and adult courts.
Q5) The act of truancy is considered a(n) ______________ offense.
Q6) Explain the juvenile detention process.
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