Survey of Criminal Justice
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Survey of Criminal Justice provides students with a comprehensive overview of the criminal justice system in the United States, exploring its major components including law enforcement, the judiciary, and corrections. The course examines the roles, responsibilities, and interrelationships of these institutions, as well as the processes such as investigation, prosecution, adjudication, and rehabilitation that define the movement of cases through the system. Students will also be introduced to key concepts, foundational theories, and contemporary issues impacting criminal justice, such as crime trends, ethical challenges, and the impact of social policies.
Recommended Textbook
CJ2 2nd Edition by Larry K. Gaines
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17 Chapters
849 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Criminal Justice Today
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Q1) __________ is a threat or an attempt to do violence to another person that causes that person to fear immediate physical harm.
Answer: Assault
Q2) Using force or violence to achieve political objectives is called __________.
A) terrorism
B) hate crimes
C) organized crime
D) larceny
Answer: A
Q3) __________ is the act of physically contacting another person with the intent to do harm.
Answer: Battery
Q4) The majority of individuals are employed in law enforcement at the __________ level?
A) local
B) state
C) federal
D) national
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Causes of Crime
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Q1) Which of the following is a process through which researchers test the accuracy of a Hypothesis?
A) theory
B) pontificating
C) prediction
D) scientific method
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is the hormone that is primarily associated with criminal offending?
A) estrogen
B) testosterone
C) serotonin
D) endocrine
Answer: B
Q3) __________ is the scientific study of crime and the causes of criminal behavior.
Answer: Criminology
Q4) __________ are chemical substances that control certain cellular and bodily functionssuch as growth and reproduction.
Answer: Hormones
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Chapter 3: Defining and Measuring Crime
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Q1) The __________ is a person or institution that initiates a lawsuit in civil court proceedings by filing a complaint.
Answer: plaintiff
Q2) The degree of proof required to find the defendant in a criminal trial guilty of committing the crime is called __________ __________ __________
Answer: beyond a reasonable doubt
Q3) What is one of the difficulties in defining the natural laws that mala in se crimes violate?
A) it is not inherently wrong
B) it may only reflect the morals of society at a given time
C) "natural" law may be culturally specific
D) very greatly from country to country and state to state
Answer: C
Q4) First degree felonies, punishable by a maximum penalty of _______ ________.
Answer: life imprisonment
Q5) In most jurisdictions, an infraction is a noncriminal offense for which the penalty is a __________ rather than incarceration.
Answer: Falseine
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Chapter 4: Inside Criminal Law
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Q1) Explain the difference between substantive and procedural due process and give an example of each.
Q2) What would the defense be for a woman, thinking that her divorce in another state has been finalized when it has not, marries for a second time, thereby committing bigamy?
A) infancy
B) insanity
C) mistake
D) entrapment
Q3) Which of the following is the constitutional requirement that laws used in accusing and convicting persons of crime must be fair?
A) due process
B) substantive due process
C) procedural due process
D) Bill of Rights
Q4) Explain the development of the due process clause to the Constitution.
Q5) A defense for criminal liability that asserts a lack of legal __________ is called insanity.
Q6) __________ __________are the rules of law announced in court decisions.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Law Enforcement Today
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Q1) The federal law enforcement agency that has the largest number of officers is the:
A) Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
B) Customs and Border Protection (CBP)
C) Internal Revenue Service (IRS)
D) Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE)
Q2) The predominant goal of private security is to __________ crime.
A) stop
B) eliminate
C) deter
D) catch
Q3) The branch of the Department of Justice that is responsible for investigating violations of federal law is the __________.
Q4) List and explain the four basic responsibilities of the police.
Q5) Of the three levels of law enforcement, municipal agencies have the broadest authority to apprehend criminal suspects, maintain order, and provide services to the community.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The primary law enforcement officer in a countyis the __________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Challenges to Effective Policing
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Q1) Officers authorized to make arrests and use force are called:
A) crime scene investigators
B) coroners
C) sworn officers
D) forensic technicians
Q2) The policing philosophy that requires police to identify potential criminal activity and develop strategies to prevent or respond to that activity is called:
A) community policing
B) indirect patrol
C) problem-oriented policing
D) incident-driven policing
Q3) Which of the following defines what police call a "cold hit"?
A) when law enforcement finds a suspect "out of nowhere" by comparing DNA evidence from a crime scene against the contents of a database
B) when a criminal investigation that has not been solved after a certain amount of time
C) when a police officer abruptly hits a suspect in an unreasonable show of force
D) when a police officer gets into an accident in their patrol car
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Chapter 7: Police and the Constitution: The Rules of Law Enforcement
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Q1) Explain at least four of the circumstances where a Miranda warning does not have to be given to a person being questioned.
Q2) A brief detention of a person by law enforcement agents for questioning is called a
Q3) In California v. Greenwood, the Supreme Court did not believe that a suspect had a reasonable expectation of privacy when it came to his garbage bags.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the intent of an officer in an arrest?
A) to investigate suspicious activity
B) to make a formal charge against a suspect
C) to conduct a full search for weapons or evidence
D) to frisk or pat down for weapons
Q5) One of the hoped-for consequences of the exclusionary rule is that it forces police to gather evidence properly.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Courts and the Quest for Justice
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Q1) The __________ is responsible for maintaining security and order in the judge's chambers and the courtroom.
Q2) Before any court can hear a case, it must have __________ over the persons involved in the case or its subject matter.
A) concurrent jurisdiction
B) jurisdiction
C) adjudication
D) legitimacy
Q3) Which U.S. Supreme Court case established every American's right to be represented by counsel in a criminal trial:
A) Miranda v. Arizona
B) Gideon v. Wainwright
C) Furman v. Georgia
D) Gregg v. Georgia
Q4) More than 90 percent of the petitions for writs of certiorari to the U.S. Supreme Court are denied.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how a court case reaches the U.S. Supreme Court.
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Chapter 9: Pretrial Procedures: The Adversary System in Action
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Q1) Explain the Strickland Standard and why it came about. Is it difficult to prove both prongs of the Strickland standard? Why or why not?
Q2) The process through which prosecutors effect an overall reduction in the number of persons prosecuted is called __________.
Q3) The average bail amount for violent felonies is highest for the crime of rape.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _________ is a formal investigation prior to trial
Q5) Which of the following holds that the government must provide a public defender For those defendants too poor to hire one for themselves?
A) The Strickland Standard
B) The Gideon Protection
C) attorney-client privilege
D) adversarial standard
Q6) Plea bargaining accounts for what percent of convictions in state courts
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 94%
Q7) U.S. attorneys are nominated by the __________ and confirmed by the Page 11
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Page 12
Chapter 10: The Criminal Trial
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Q1) The standard of proof used in a criminal trial is:
A) preponderance of the evidence
B) beyond a reasonable doubt
C) criminal surety
D) civil surety
Q2) An appeal is the process of seeking a higher court's review of a lower court's decision for the purpose of correcting or changing the lower court's judgment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The right against self-incrimination is provided for in the __________ Amendment of the Constitution.
A) First
B) Fourth
C) Fifth
D) Sixth
Q4) To be tried twice for the same criminal offense is called __________.
Q5) A(n) __________ is a trial conducted without a jury, in which a judge makes the determination of the defendant's guilt or innocence.
Q6) Explain the typical qualifications that are necessary for jurors.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Punishment and Sentencing
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Q1) __________ is a situation in which those convicted of similar crimes do not receive similar sentences due to race.
Q2) Explain the concept of "good time" and truth in sentencing.
Q3) Approximately how many states in the United States employ the death penalty?
A) 22
B) 28
C) 34
D) 50
Q4) Circumstances surrounding a crime that allow for a lighter sentence to be handed down are known as:
A) aggravating circumstances
B) relevant circumstances
C) mitigating circumstances
D) meaningful circumstances
Q5) A period of incarceration that is fixed by a sentencing authority is called:
A) a determinate sentence
B) an indeterminate sentence
C) truth-in sentencing
D) good time sentence
Q6) Explain the concept of restorative justice.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Probation and Community Corrections
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Q1) ISP is a form of probation in which the offender is placed under stricter and more frequent surveillance and control than in conventional probation
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the main reasons behind the philosophy of reintegration is the idea that:
A) Most offenders will be back in the community at some point in time anyway.
B) Most offenders will reoffend anyway.
C) Most offenders don't care whether they end up in prison anyway.
D) It is more expensive
Q3) Which of the following is variation on traditional shock incarceration that emphasizes strict discipline, manual labor, and physical training in order to instill self-responsibility and self-respect in participants?
A) diversion
B) home incarceration
C) boot camp
D) reintegration
Q4) __________is a criminal sanction in which a convict is allowed to remain in the community rather than be imprisoned as long as she or he follows certain conditions set by the court.
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Chapter 13: Prisons and Jails
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Q1) Which general model of prisons carries the philosophy that the correctional institution serves as a training ground for the inmate to prepare for existence in the community?
A) custodial model
B) rehabilitation model
C) reintegration model
D) mitigation model
Q2) Children of convicts are more likely to become involved in delinquent behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a criticism of private facilities?
A) safety concerns regarding inmate violence and drug abuse
B) higher cost of running these facilities
C) financial concerns about the manipulation of good behavior reports
D) philosophical concerns about the inherent unjustness
Q4) The __________ design has been utilized since the early nineteenth century. The wagon wheel form of the structure was created with the dual goals of separation and control.
Q5) Prisons reserved for the "worst of the worst" are known as _________ prisons.
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Q6) Explain the supermax syndrome that is prevalent in supermax facilities.
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Chapter 14: Behind Bars: The Life of an Inmate
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the typical parole conditions expected of offenders?
A) complete a college degree
B) do not vote
C) meet with a therapist
D) find a job or volunteer service
Q2) A __________ is a community-based form of early release that places inmates in residential centers to allow the former inmates to reintegrate into society.
Q3) __________ is a secret language used by inmates to make their speech difficult for outsiders to understand.
Q4) Explain the process of parole revocation.
Q5) One study concluded that as many as one in ___ Americans leaving jail or prison is seriously mentally ill.
A) three
B) five
C) eight
D) ten
Q6) Compare and contrast the differences between probation, parole, mandatory release, pardon, and furlough.
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Chapter 15: The Juvenile Justice System
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Q1) __________ is a correctional institution for juveniles found to be delinquent.
A) residential treatment program
B) boot camp
C) training school
D) aftercare
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the types of diversion categories?
A) probation
B) treatment and aid
C) restitution
D) detention
Q3) The child-savers believed which of the following?
A) that the state should not be involved with juveniles who are neglected
B) that the concept of parens patriae was invalid
C) that children needed treatment rather than punishment
D) that all delinquent children should be incarcerated
Q4) The first U.S. Supreme Court case to extend due process rights to children was the __________ vs. United States.
Q5) Explain the development of the concept of parens patriae.
Q6) _______________ is the mistreatment of children by causing physical, emotional, or sexual damage.
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Chapter 16: Homeland Security
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the main issues with border security today?
A) the lack of drugs coming across the border
B) the ease with which proven and potential terrorists can enter the United States
C) the inability of individuals to make it into the United States
D) the ease of tracking down illegal immigrants in the United States
Q2) Which of the following was an agency that was NOT placed under the Department of Homeland Security after the Homeland Security Act of 2002?
A) Customs and Border Protection
B) Immigration and Customs Enforcement
C) Federal Bureau of Investigation
D) Federal Emergency Management Agency
Q3) For those Guantánamo Bay detainees who are not subject to "prolonged detention," the Obama administration has plans to provide access to American criminal courts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify and explain three important trends in international terrorism.
Q5) Explain the different types of weapons of mass destruction.
Q6) Explain the internationalization of domestic terrorism.
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Chapter 17: Cyber Crime and the Future of Criminal Justice
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Q1) A network of computers that have been appropriated without the knowledge of their owners and used to spread harmful programs via the Internet is called a(n):
A) virus
B) botnet
C) hacker
D) worm
Q2) When cyber criminals want to take their money-laundering operations one step Further and avoid legitimate banks altogether, they can make use of
A) digital banking
B) cyber money mules
C) laundering mules
D) digital currency
Q3) Bulk e-mails, particularly of commercial advertising, sent in large quantities without the consent of the recipient are called:
A) malware
B) spam
C) viruses
D) worms
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