Survey of Criminal Justice
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Survey of Criminal Justice offers an overview of the American criminal justice system, examining its components law enforcement, courts, and corrections and their interactions. The course explores the history, development, and contemporary practices of criminal justice, focusing on the roles, responsibilities, and challenges faced by professionals in each sector. Students will analyze concepts such as crime, criminal law, due process, and the impact of social and cultural factors on justice. Through case studies and current events, the course highlights issues of ethics, policy, and reform, equipping students with a foundational understanding of the field.
Recommended Textbook
CJ2 2nd Edition by Larry K. Gaines
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17 Chapters
849 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Criminal Justice Today
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Q1) What layer of the "wedding-cake" model focuses on misdemeanors?
A) top layer
B) second layer
C) third layer
D) bottom layer
Answer: D
Q2) The majority of individuals are employed in law enforcement at the __________ level?
A) local
B) state
C) federal
D) national
Answer: A
Q3) Crimes that appear to harm only the offender are often called
A) victimless crimes
B) status offenses
C) deviant behavior
D) discretionary offenses
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Causes of Crime
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Q1) Who is known as the "father of criminology?"
A) Cesare Lombroso
B) Jeremy Bentham
C) James Q. Wilson
D) Cesare Beccaria
Answer: A
Q2) A theory is an explanation of a happening or circumstance that is based on observation, experimentation, and reasoning.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) __________ psychology is a branch of psychology that studies how people's thoughts and behaviors are influenced by the presence of others.
Answer: Social
Q4) __________ is when the relationship between two measurements or behaviors tend to move in the same direction.
Answer: correlation
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Chapter 3: Defining and Measuring Crime
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Q1) The Uniform Crime Reports were created by the FBI in what year?
A) 1930
B) 1950
C) 1960
D) 1972
Answer: A
Q2) When the crime is __________ it means that it was planned and decided on after a process of decision making.
Answer: deliberate
Q3) Which of the following is the branch of law dealing with the definition and enforcement
Of all private or public rights, as opposed to criminal matters.
A) civil law
B) criminal law
C) constitutional law
D) statutory law
Answer: A
Q4) The __________ party in a court case proceeding is called the plaintiff.
Answer: injured
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Chapter 4: Inside Criminal Law
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Q1) A regulatory agency is a federal, state, or local government agency established to perform a specific function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If four people physically remove a friend from her residence on the property of a religious cult, and argue that the crime of kidnapping was justified in order to remove the victim from the damaging influence of cult leaders, what defense would they be using?
A) self-defense
B) duress
C) insanity
D) necessity
Q3) Which of the following is not a category protected under hate crimes laws?
A) race
B) ethnicity
C) gender
D) socioeconomic status
Q4) The act of taking substantial steps toward committing a crime while having the ability and the intent to commit the crime, even if the crime never takes place is called
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Chapter 5: Law Enforcement Today
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Q1) Which of the following has contributed to the growth in private security in the U.S.?
A) A decrease in fear of crime on the part of the public.
B) The problem of crime in the workplace.
C) The increase in budgets in states and municipalities.
D) A decreased awareness of private security products.
Q2) When law enforcement officers use their judgment in deciding which offenses to punish and which to ignore, they are said to be using __________.
Q3) The majority of sheriff's in the United States are elected.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pinizzotto and Miller argue that an additional justification for police officer's use of discretion is because officers have a "sixth sense," also known as _______________, that helps them handle on-the-job challenges.
Q5) In 1998, the U.S. Supreme Court held that an officer can be sued in _______________ for damages caused by a high-speed pursuit only if her or his conduct was so outrageous that it "shocks the conscience."
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Chapter 6: Challenges to Effective Policing
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Q1) Concentrated areas of high criminal activity that draw a directed police response are called:
A) hot spots
B) directed patrol
C) cold hits
D) cold cases
Q2) The policing philosophy that requires police to identify potential criminal activity and develop strategies to prevent or respond to that activity is called:
A) community policing
B) indirect patrol
C) problem-oriented policing
D) incident-driven policing
Q3) The rules or standards of behavior governing a profession; aimed at ensuring the fairness and rightness of actions are called __________.
Q4) Most police departments require that you be a U.S. citizen in order to become a police officer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Police and the Constitution: The Rules of Law Enforcement
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Q1) When would a police officer not have to introduce him/herself when serving an arrest warrant?
A) probable cause
B) exigent circumstances
C) warrant
D) reasonable suspicion
Q2) Which of the following contains the four potential sources of probable cause?
A) personal observation, information, evidence, association
B) information, personal observation, evidence, and exclusion
C) evidence, information, association, and exigence
D) personal observation, information, association, evaluation
Q3) The U.S. Supreme Court case that set the precedent for the definition of "reasonable" suspicion was:
A) Davis v. United States
B) Maryland v. Wilson
C) Miranda v. Arizona
D) Terry v. Ohio
Q4) A pat-down or minimal search by police to discover weapons is called a
Chapter 8: Courts and the Quest for Justice
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Q1) Explain how the Missouri Plan of judicial selection occurs.
Q2) Elections in which candidates are presented on the ballot with their party affiliation are called:
A) partisan elections
B) nonpartisan elections
C) affiliated elections
D) unaffiliated elections
Q3) The process by which one jurisdiction surrenders a person accused or convicted of violating another jurisdiction's criminal law to the second jurisdiction is called
Q4) Before any court can hear a case, it must have __________ over the persons involved in the case or its subject matter.
A) concurrent jurisdiction
B) jurisdiction
C) adjudication
D) legitimacy
Q5) A _______________ is an election in which candidates are presented on the ballot without any party affiliation.
Q6) Explain how a court case reaches the U.S. Supreme Court.
Q7) Explain how the courtroom workgroup gets formed.
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Chapter 9: Pretrial Procedures: The Adversary System in Action
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Q1) The prosecutor in federal criminal cases is called the:
A) defense attorney
B) public prosecutor
C) U.S. Attorney
D) district attorney
Q2) Explain the factors that affect case attrition.
Q3) Plea bargaining accounts for what percent of convictions in state courts
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 94%
Q4) _________ is a formal investigation prior to trial
Q5) Many defendants plea bargain because it removes the risk that they may go to trial and face a less severe conviction.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Preventive detention is the retention of an accused person in custody as a punishment for dangerous individuals.
A)True
B)False Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Criminal Trial
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Q1) Direct evidence is evidence that establishes the existence of a fact that is in question without relying on inference.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A witness who testifies against the defendant is often given __________, meaning that no information they disclose can be used to bring criminal charges against them.
A) immunity
B) testimony
C) clearance
D) a pardon
Q3) A writ of habeas corpus differs from an appeal for which of the following reasons?
A) it can only be filed by a person who is imprisoned
B) it can only be filed by a person who is facing double jeopardy
C) it can only be filed by a person who is facing the death penalty
D) it can only be filed by a person who is facing life without parole
Q4) __________ is an order that requires correctional officials to bring an inmate before a court or a judge and explain why he or she is being held in prison.
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Chapter 11: Punishment and Sentencing
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Q1) According to your book, for which type of offense does an offender typically spend less than half of the sentenced time in prison?
A) assault
B) robbery
C) rape
D) drug trafficking
Q2) What U.S. Supreme Court case held that juveniles who committed their crime before the age of 18 were no longer able to be executed?
A) Furman v. Georgia
B) Weems v. United States
C) Roper v. Simmons
D) Gregg v. Georgia
Q3) Capital punishment is a sentencing option in fifty states and in the federal government.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain what the presentence investigative report is and why it is important.
Q5) An term of incarceration in which a judge determines the minimum and maximum terms of imprisonment is called __________.
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Chapter 12: Probation and Community Corrections
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Q1) The theory behind __________ is that by getting a taste of the brutalities of the daily prison grind, the offender will be deterred from future criminal activity.
A) split-sentence probation
B) home confinement
C) shock incarceration
D) electronic monitoring
Q2) Some studies have actually shown higher recidivism rates for offenders who are subjected to prison culture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As the number of conditions placed on probationers and electronic monitoring devices increase, so, too, will the number of offenders who fail to meet the conditions of their community-based punishment. This concept has been termed the __________ effect of increased surveillance.
A) kitchen strainer
B) kitchen sink
C) funnel
D) quicksand
Q4) Explain how probation can be revoked.
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Chapter 13: Prisons and Jails
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Q1) The majority of inmates in jail are:
A) young males
B) young females
C) elderly men
D) juvenile males
Q2) The period of time a person denied bail (or unable to pay it) has spent in jail prior to his or her trial is called __________.
Q3) What type of facility is reserved for the "worst of the worst" offenders?
A) supermax
B) maximum security
C) medium security
D) minimum security
Q4) Individuals who spend the time prior to their trial incarcerated in jail are called __________.
Q5) The __________ design has been utilized since the early nineteenth century. The wagon wheel form of the structure was created with the dual goals of separation and control.
Q6) Prisons reserved for the "worst of the worst" are known as _________ prisons.
Q7) Explain some of the consequences of our high rates of incarceration.
Q8) Explain the supermax syndrome that is prevalent in supermax facilities.
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Chapter 14: Behind Bars: The Life of an Inmate
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a role of the parole board?
A) to decide which offenders should be placed on parole
B) to determine the conditions of parole and aid in the continuing supervision of the parolee
C) to discharge the offender when the conditions of parole have been met
D) to personally track down parole violators when violations occur
Q2) A _________ is an act of executive clemency that overturns a conviction and removes any mention of the crime from the person's criminal record.
Q3) Explain the concept of a total institution as it relates to correctional facilities.
Q4) The release of an inmate into a community supervision program at the discretion of the parole board is called which of the following?
A) mandatory release
B) discretionary release
C) pardon
D) parole
Q5) __________ guards spend their entire shifts in isolated, silent posts high above the grounds of the facility.
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Chapter 15: The Juvenile Justice System
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Q1) The theory that a delinquent or status offender should receive a punishment that matches the severity of the wrongdoing is called deterrence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A judicial waiver is the process in which the juvenile judge decides that the alleged juvenile offender should be transferred to adult court.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many experts believe that the downward trend in juvenile homicide arrests can be traced largely to a decline in firearm use.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a form of a residential treatment program?
A) group homes
B) state training schools
C) foster care programs
D) rural programs
Q5) Explain the development of the concept of parens patriae.
Q6) Explain the relationship between age and crime?
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Chapter 16: Homeland Security
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Q1) NSA agents eavesdrop on foreign conversations, whatever form they might take, while at the same time working to ensure that sensitive messages sent by the U.S. government are not subjected to similar scrutiny.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Individuals who decide to use terror to further their aims and believe that the ends justify the often-violent means, is the definition of which of the following elements of the "supercrime" oif terrorism ?
A) the victims
B) a just cause
C) the intention
D) the violent factor
Q3) The egislation that was passed in the wake of the September 11 to greatly expand the ability of government agents to monitor and apprehend suspected terrorists is called the ______________
Q4) The NSA may conduct the __________ surveillance of communications between suspects on American soil believed to be connected to al Qaeda and their contacts abroad.
Q5) Identify and explain three important trends in international terrorism.
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Chapter 17: Cyber Crime and the Future of Criminal Justice
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Q1) Digital currency is the introduction of illegally gained funds into the legal financial system with the goal of covering up the funds' true origin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Malware is a term that refers to any program that is harmful to a computer or, by extension, a computer user.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A network of computers that have been appropriated without the knowledge of their owners and used to spread harmful programs via the Internet is called a(n):
A) virus
B) botnet
C) hacker
D) worm
Q4) U.S. law requires that banks "know their customers"-that is, a banks is not required to know the source of a customer's funds.
A)True
B)False
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