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Survey of Chemistry offers a broad overview of fundamental chemical concepts and their applications in everyday life and scientific contexts. The course covers topics such as atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, chemical reactions, thermochemistry, and basic principles of organic and biochemistry. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills and understanding the role of chemistry in society, health, technology, and the environment. This course is designed for students who require an introductory background in chemistry for further studies in science or related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 8th Edition by John E. McMurry
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Q1) Which of the following is a chemical property?
A)melting point
B)mass
C)flammability
D)volume
E)temperature
Answer: C
Q2) How many grams are contained in 1.20 pounds?
A)545 g
B)378 g
C)264 g
D)2.2 g
E)1.20 g
Answer: A
Q3) Gasoline has a density of about 0.65 g/mL.How much does 34.0 L weigh in pounds?
Answer: Convert 34.0 L to mL then multiply by the density to obtain the grams. Convert grams to pounds:34,000 mL × 0.65 g/mL × 1 lb/454 g = 48.7 lbs.
Q4) If an automobile gets 24.5 miles to the gallon and the cost of gasoline is $2.75 a gallon,how much will it cost to drive 975 km?
Answer: $68.00
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Q1) The shell having n = 2 contains ________ subshells,________ orbitals,and up to ________ electrons.
A)1;2;4
B)2;4;8
C)3;6;12
D)4;8;16
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Which characteristics correctly describe a neutron?
A)approximate mass 1 amu;charge +1;inside nucleus
B)approximate mass 1 amu;charge -1;inside nucleus
C)approximate mass 1 amu;charge 0;inside nucleus
D)approximate mass 5 × 10<sup>-4</sup> amu;charge 0;inside nucleus
E)approximate mass 5 × 10<sup>-4</sup> amu;charge -1;outside nucleus
Answer: C
Q3) Give the electron dot structure for an element in Group 7A.
Answer: Any of the following could be a correct structure: 11ea7e31_c15c_997c_9bba_eda4fc36eec1_TB4943_00
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Q1) The property defined as the energy released on adding an electron to an isolated gas phase atom is
A)atomic number.
B)electron affinity.
C)electronegativity.
D)ionization energy.
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) What is the formula of a compound formed by the ions M<sup>2+</sup> and X<sup>3-</sup>?
A)M<sub>2</sub>X<sub>3</sub>
B)M<sub>3</sub>X<sub>2</sub>
C)MX<sub>3</sub>
D)M<sub>2</sub>X
E)none of the above
Answer: B
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Q1) The VSEPR model of molecular structure requires a knowledge of ________ to predict the geometry of an atom in a molecule.
A)the number of atoms bonded to the atom of interest
B)the total number of atoms in the molecule
C)the number of electron pairs on the atom of interest
D)both A and C
E)none of the above
Q2) The formula for phosphorus pentafluoride is
A)PhF<sub>5.</sub>
B)PF<sub>5.</sub>
C)P<sub>5</sub>F.
D)(PF)<sub>5.</sub>
E)P<sub>5</sub>F<sub>5.</sub>
Q3) The formula for carbon disulfide is
A)CS<sub>2.</sub>
B)C<sub>2</sub>S.
C)CSi<sub>2.</sub>
D)CaS<sub>2.</sub>
E)(CS)<sub>2.</sub>
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Q1) When the reaction shown is correctly balanced,the coefficients are: ________ HBr + ________ Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> ________ CaBr<sub>2</sub> + ________ H<sub>2</sub>O
A)2;1;1;1
B)1;1;1;2
C)2;1;1;2
D)2;2;1;1
E)2;1;2;2
Q2) Which reaction is an example of a precipitation reaction?
A)H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>(aq) H<sub>2</sub>O(l)+ CO<sub>2</sub>(g)
B)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(aq)+ Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub>(aq) CaSO<sub>4</sub>(aq)+ 2 H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
C)6 HCl(aq)+ 2 Al(s) 2 AlCl<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ 3 H<sub>2</sub>(g)
D)FeCl<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ 3 KOH(aq) Fe(OH)<sub>3</sub>(s)+ 3 KCl(aq)
E)2 Hg(l)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 HgO(s)
Q3) Write and balance the following acid-base neutralization reaction: KOH(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> aq)
Q4) Write and balance the following acid-base neutralization reaction: HBr(aq)+ Li<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>(aq)
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Q1) In a reaction to produce ammonia,the theoretical yield is 420.g.What is the percent yield if the actual yield is 350.g?
A)20.0%
B)83.3%
C)16.7%
D)120%
E)105%
Q2) Acid rain forms in the upper atmosphere by the reaction of sulfur trioxide with water forming sulfuric acid.Calculate the mass in grams of 5.65 × 10<sup>21</sup> molecules of SO<sub>3</sub>.
A)2.72 × 10<sup>47</sup> g
B)1.17 × 10<sup>-4</sup> g
C)0.751 g
D)0.0751 g
E)1.17 g
Q3) The mass of 1.22 moles of iron(II)nitrate
A)212.4 g
B)219 g
C)225 g
D)208.2 g

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Q1) A solid sample at room temperature spontaneously sublimes forming a gas.This change in state is accompanied by which of the changes in the sample?
A)Entropy and energy decrease.
B)Entropy and energy increase.
C)Entropy decreases and energy increases.
D)Entropy increases and energy decreases.
Q2) Based on the reaction shown,which statement is true?
S + O<sub>2</sub> SO<sub>2</sub> + 70.8 kcal
A)70.8 kcal are produced when 1 g of sulfur reacts.
B)70.8 kcal are consumed when 1 g of sulfur reacts.
C)70.8 kcal are produced when 32.1 g of sulfur reacts.
D)70.8 kcal are consumed when 32.1 g of sulfur reacts.
E)70.8 kcal are produced when 1 g of sulfur dioxide is produced.
Q3) The amount of energy which must be invested in a reaction to get it started
A)exothermic
B)activation energy
C)chemical equilibrium
D)endergonic
E)exergonic
F)endothermic

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Q1) The vapor pressure of a liquid
A)decreases with increasing temperature.
B)is independent of temperature.
C)is equal to one atmosphere at the normal boiling point.
D)cannot be measured.
Q2) What would be the new pressure if a 400 mL gas sample at 380 mm Hg is expanded to 800 mL with no change in temperature?
A)190 mm Hg
B)380 mm Hg
C)570 mm Hg
D)760 mm Hg
E)950 mm Hg
Q3) Which transformation is melting?
A)liquid solid
B)liquid gas
C)solid liquid
D)solid gas
E)gas liquid
Q4) List and describe two unique properties of water.Discuss the intermolecular force that causes these unusual properties.
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Q1) Which list includes all the pieces of lab equipment needed to prepare a 0.500 M solution of NaCl from the pure salt and water?
A)buret;volumetric flask
B)buret;electronic balance
C)electronic balance;volumetric flask
D)electronic balance;graduated cylinder
E)volumetric pipet and bulb;volumetric flask
Q2) The exothermic step in the dissolution of NaCl in water is
A)the separation of the ions in the salt.
B)the separation of the water molecules.
C)solvation (hydration)of the ions from the salt.
D)separation of the ions in the salt and the separation of the water molecules.
Q3) Which procedure will produce 250 mL of a solution that is 4% by volume alcohol in water?
A)4 mL of alcohol is mixed with enough water to make 250 mL of solution.
B)10 mL of alcohol is mixed with enough water to make 250 mL of solution.
C)4 mL of alcohol is mixed with 250 mL of water.
D)10 mL of alcohol is mixed with 250 mL of water.
E)none of the above
Q4) Explain the difference between osmosis and dialysis.
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Q1) The base forms a new ________ bond in a Brønsted-Lowry acid-base reaction.
A)covalent
B)aquo
C)hydrogen
D)ionic
E)metallic
Q2) A necessary requirement for a Brønsted base is
A)the presence of water as a reaction medium.
B)the presence of hydroxide in its formula.
C)a lone pair of electrons in its Lewis dot structure.
D)the production of hydronium ion upon reaction with water.
E)the presence of a metal ion in its formula.
Q3) Propionic acid (CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>COOH)has a Ka = 1.3 × 10<sup>-5</sup> and phosphoric acid (H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>)has a Ka = 7.5 10 <sup>-3</sup>.Write the conjugate base for each.Which one is the stronger base?
Q4) Write the balanced chemical reaction between methyl amine (CH<sub>3</sub>NH<sub>2</sub>)and hydrobromic acid (HBr).
Q5) Write the balanced chemical equation for a reaction between sodium bicarbonate and hydrochloric acid.
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Q1) A rem is
A)the amount of radiation that produces 2.1 × 10<sup>9</sup> units of charge in one cubic centimeter of air.
B)a unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed per gram of tissue.
C)a unit that that measures both the energy and the penetrating power of different types of radiation.
D)the SI unit for radiation absorbed.
E)the amount of radioactive substance that undergoes 3.7 × 10<sup>10</sup> disintegrations per second.
Q2) Diagnostic tracers form hot spots when they are prevented from entering diseased tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of radiation is attracted toward a negative plate? A) B) C) D) and E)none of these
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Q1) Which of the following statements is correct? Functional groups are A)the parts of molecules that are used to differentiate types of organic molecules.
B)to organic chemistry what polyatomic ions are to inorganic chemistry.
C)are chemically bound to each other in order to make larger molecules.
D)There is more than one correct answer.
E)None are correct.
Q2) The functional group illustrated by R-O-R' is an A)alkyl.
B)alcohol.
C)ether.
D)ester.
E)aldehyde.
Q3) Explain the term "functional group." How do organic chemists use the functional group concept?
Q4) Alkanes are ________ in water and ________ than water.
A)insoluble;less dense
B)soluble;less dense
C)insoluble,;more dense
D)soluble;more dense
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Q1) When an alkene undergoes hydrogenation,the product is an A)alkane.
B)alkene. C)alkyne.
D)aromatic.
E)alcohol.
Q2) The starting material for polymerization reactions is a(an) A)alkane. B)catalyst.
C)isomer. D)monomer. E)dimer.
Q3) All of the following are common reactions of benzene except A)bromination. B)chlorination. C)hydrogenation. D)nitration. E)sulfonation.
Q4) The term delocalization means "not limited to a particular place or area." Explain how this term describes the behavior of electrons in aromatic compounds.
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Q1) Treatment of CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH with an excess amount of oxidizing agent will produce
A)an aldehyde.
B)a ketone.
C)an alkene.
D)a carboxylic acid.
E)no reaction.
Q2) Which compound is sometimes called carbolic acid?
A)ethanol
B)methanol
C)glycerol
D)ether
E)phenol
Q3) Which functional group will cause a compound to have a boiling point greater than that predicted only by molar mass?
A)ether
B)alcohol
C)alkene
D)ketone
E)alkane
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Q1) Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a A)carboxylic acid.
B)primary alcohol.
C)secondary alcohol.
D)tertiary alcohol.
E)ketone.
Q2) What is the product of oxidation of butanal?
A)butane
B)2-butanol
C)butanoic acid
D)1-butanol
E)no reaction
Q3) The correct name for CH<sub>3</sub>CH(CH<sub>3</sub>)CH<sub>2</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub> is
A)2-methyl-4-pentanone.
B)4-methyl-2-pentanone.
C)2-methyl-4-butanone.
D)4-methyl-2-butanone.
E)isobutyl acetone.
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Q1) Which compound is a secondary amine?
A)trimethylamine
B)diethylamine
C)isopropylamine
D)N,N-dimethylethylamine
E)N-ethyl-N-methylpropylamine
Q2) All of the following are properties of amines except A)they frequently have offensive odors.
B)those that can form hydrogen bonds have higher boiling points than expected for their molecular weight.
C)those with low molecular weights are soluble in water.
D)they act as bases in many reactions.
E)All of these are properties of amines.
Q3) All of the following are characteristics of alkaloids except A)bitter tasting.
B)physiologically active.
C)basic.
D)toxic to humans in high doses.
E)pleasant smelling.
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Q1) The products of acid hydrolysis of an ester are
A)another ester + water.
B)alcohol + acid.
C)alcohol + water.
D)acid + water.
E)salt + water.
Q2) When an alcohol reacts with phosphoric acid,the product is referred to as a A)phosphate salt.
B)phosphate ester.
C)phosphate anion.
D)pyrophosphate.
E)none of the above
Q3) The products of basic hydrolysis of an ester are
A)another ester + water.
B)alcohol + acid.
C)alcohol + water.
D)acid + water.
E)carboxylate salt + alcohol.
Q4) Predict the products and write the complete reaction between propanoic acid and potassium hydroxide.
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Q1) An amino acid whose R group is predominantly hydrocarbon would be classified as A)polar.
B)non-polar.
C)basic.
D)acidic.
E)isoelectric.
Q2) Which amino acid can form covalent sulfur-sulfur bonds?
A)cysteine
B)glycine
C)proline
D)methionine
E)phenylalanine
Q3) All of the following can denature proteins without hydrolysis except A)heat.
B)mechanical stress.
C)enzyme treatment.
D)lowering of pH.
E)heavy metal ions.
Q4) Using three letter designation,write the six tripeptides that can be formed from the combination of serine,tyrosine and aspartate.
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Q1) Overdosing on vitamins A and D is more likely than overdosing on vitamin C because
A)vitamins A and D are fat soluble and thus can accumulate in body fat,where vitamin C is water soluble and the excess will be excreted in urine.
B)vitamin C is fat soluble and thus can accumulate in body fat,where vitamins A and D are water soluble and the excess will be excreted in urine.
C)vitamin C is biologically active as consumed in foods,but vitamins A and D must be converted into biologically active forms before utilization.
D)vitamins A and D are biologically active as consumed in foods,but vitamin C must be converted into biologically active forms before utilization.
E)vitamins A and D are needed in much larger doses than vitamin C.
Q2) Which of the following does not generally increase the rate of a reaction?
A)increasing the reactants
B)increasing the products
C)increasing the temperature
D)adding the catalyst
Q3) Explain how an allosteric enzyme is regulated.
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Q1) Starch is produced by ________,and its major function is ________.
A)animals;energy storage
B)animals;as a structural component
C)plants;as a structural component
D)plants;energy storage
E)none of the above
Q2) A sugar is classified as a d-isomer if the hydroxyl group on the
A)chiral carbon nearest to the carbonyl points to the left.
B)chiral carbon nearest to the carbonyl points to the right.
C)chiral carbon farthest from the carbonyl points to the left.
D)chiral carbon farthest from the carbonyl points to the right.
E)end carbon farthest from the carbonyl points to the left.
Q3) Lactose results from reacting glucose at its ________ carbon and galactose at its ________ carbon.
A)4;1
B)1;4
C)1;6
D)6;1
E)1;1
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Q1) Which of the following reactions of the citric acid cycle is a decarboxylation occurring?
A)conversion of succinyl CoA to sucicinyl
B)conversion of isocitrate to -ketoglutarate
C) -ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA
D)All three reactions are decarboxylations.
E)only B and C
Q2) List and discuss the reasons that ATP is so useful as a biochemical energy transport molecule.
Q3) Which of the following organelles is involved in breakdown of unwanted molecules and cellular components?
A)Golgi apparatus
B)lysosome
C)rough endoplasmic reticulum
D)mitochondria
E)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
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Q1) In the first step of glycolysis,the conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate is known as
A)isomerization.
B)reduction.
C)oxidation.
D)phosphorylation.
E)dehydration.
Q2) Which of the following is not used as an energy source in metabolism?
A)ATP
B)UTP
C)UTC
D)GTP
E)More than one choice is correct.
Q3) glycogenolysis
A)the conversion of glucose into carbohydrate molecules containing phosphate groups and five carbon atoms
B)the conversion of glucose into glycogen
C)the conversion of glycogen into glucose
D)the production of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources
E)the conversion of glucose into pyruvate
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Q1) hydrophobic
A)describes the non-polar portion of a molecule that does not interact with water or other polar substances
B)describes fatty acids that have mostly single but more than one double carbon-carbon bond
C)describes the polar portion of a molecule that interacts readily with water or other polar substances
D)a process of transport in which substances cross a membrane based on concentration differences without the expenditure of energy
E)describes fatty acids that have mostly single but at least one double carbon-carbon bond
F)describes fatty acids that do not have any carbon-carbon double bonds
G)a process of transport in which integral proteins change shape to allow a substance to cross a cell membrane
H)a process of transport that costs energy because the flow is against the concentration gradient
Q2) Describe the similarities and differences between soaps and emulsifying agents.
Q3) Sketch a lipid bilayer and identify its hydrophobic and hydrophilic portions.
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Q1) Each oxidation during fatty acid catabolism directly produces one molecule of ________ and a fatty acid molecule that has been shortened by ________ carbon atom(s).
A)ATP;two
B)acetyl-SCoA;two
C)ATP;one
D)acetyl-SCoA;one
E)CO<sub>2</sub>;three
Q2) beta oxidation
A)a condition which results from increased concentrations of ketone bodies in the blood
B)the catabolic reaction in which fatty acids are broken down two carbons at a time C)presence of ketone bodies in the urine
D)the anabolic process of synthesizing fatty acids
Q3) Compare the processes of -oxidation of fatty acids and lipogenesis of fatty acids.
Q4) Which has greater "energy density," carbohydrates or fats.Explain your answer in terms of molecular structure and net energy production.
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Q1) -ketoacids are produced as a result of a transamination reaction with ________ acting as the donor molecule.
A)glutamate
B)aspartate
C)urea
D)ornithine
E)oxaloacetate
Q2) When an amino group is transferred to -ketoglutarate,one product is always A)glycine.
B)glutamate.
C)aspartate.
D)alanine.
E)leucine.
Q3) Define the terms
A)amino acid pool and B)turnover for a protein
Q4) Explain the difference between ketogenic and glucogenic amino acids.Identify the amino acids in each category.
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Q1) Translation is
A)copying of DNA molecules to make an exact duplicate.
B)production of a single strand of RNA identical to the information strand of DNA.
C)production of a single strand of RNA from the template strand of DNA.
D)making a protein molecule based on information contained in RNA.
E)breakdown of damaged nucleic acids to prevent mutations.
Q2) A codon is
A)a sequence of three amino acids that translates to a specific nucleotide in RNA.
B)a complex of proteins and DNA which is associated with cell division.
C)all the segments of DNA needed to direct the production of a specific protein.
D)a sequence of three nucleotides in RNA that codes for a specific amino acid or for chain termination.
E)the collection of DNA that stores all the genetic information for an individual organism.
Q3) Draw the structure illustrating the hydrogen bonding that occurs between the base pairs cytosine and guanine.
Q4) Draw the structure for the dCMP nucleotide.Label all parts.
Q5) Distinguish between the forms of RNA that exist in a typical cell.
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Q1) The use of prenatal DNA testing followed by an attempt to alter a specific gene to prevent an inherited disease would be classified as
A)genetic engineering.
B)bioinformatics.
C)gene therapy.
D)pharmacogenomics.
E)pharmacogenetics.
Q2) The portion of a DNA molecule that does not code for proteins is called a(an) A)intron.
B)exon.
C)sticky end.
D)codon.
E)primer.
Q3) A technique that sorts amino acids or DNA fragments on the basis of their size is A)polymerase chain reaction.
B)recombinant DNA.
C)genetic selection.
D)electrophoresis.
E)mutation.
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Q1) Which descriptions are true of neurotransmitters?
I.produced by the endocrine system
II.transported in the bloodstream
III.interact with cells in their direct pathway
IV.act within 1 second or less after release
V.effects are of short duration
A)I,II,IV
B)II,III,V
C)III,IV,V
D)I and II
E)IV and V
Q2) Which of the following is a steroid based hormone?
A)testosterone
B)epinepherine
C)vasopressin
D)glucagon
E)thyroxine
Q3) List and briefly describe the chemical sequence of events in the fight-or-flight response to a threatening situation from the binding of epinephrine at the receptor site to readiness for another situation.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Comment on the tertiary structure of the defensive proteins immunoglobulins and fibrin.Explain how the structure of each protein contributes to its function.
Q2) An antigen at the site of inflammation will probably be attacked and destroyed by A)erythrocytes.
B)lymphocytes.
C)phagocytes.
D)helper T cells.
E)memory T cells.
Q3) The amino acid that is the precursor to the substance associated with the inflammatory response is A)antihistamine.
B)histamine.
C)histidine.
D)proline.
E)phenylalanine.
Q4) Distinguish between inflammatory and immune responses to antigens.
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