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Survey of Chemistry provides a broad introduction to the fundamental concepts of chemistry for non-majors and those seeking a general understanding of the subject. The course covers basic topics including atomic structure, chemical bonding, states of matter, chemical reactions, stoichiometry, solutions, acids and bases, and an overview of organic and biochemistry. Emphasis is placed on real-world applications and the relevance of chemistry in everyday life, environmental issues, health, and technology. This course also serves as a preparatory foundation for students who may pursue further studies in science-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Chemistry The Central Science 13th Edition by Theodore E. Brown
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Q1) Which one of the following has the element name and symbol correctly matched?
A)Ne, nitrogen
B)Si, sulfur
C)Ca, carbon
D)Be, beryllium
E)None of the symbols are correctly matched to the element name.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following liquids has the greatest density?
A)13 cm<sup>3</sup> with a mass of 23 g
B)3.5 cm<sup>3</sup> with a mass of 10 g
C)0.022 cm<sup>3</sup> with a mass of 0.10 g
D)54 cm<sup>3</sup> with a mass of 45 g
E)210 cm<sup>3</sup> with a mass of 12 g
Answer: C
Q3) The symbol for the element phosphorus is ________.
Answer: P
Q4) 1 milligram = ________ micrograms
Answer: 1,000
Q5) 1.035 × 10<sup>-4</sup> L = ________ mL
Answer: 0.1035

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Q1) Aluminum reacts with a certain nonmetallic element to form a compound with the general formula AlX. Element X is a diatomic gas at room temperature. Element X must be ________.
A)oxygen
B)fluorine
C)chlorine
D)nitrogen
E)sulfur
Answer: D
Q2) The charge on an electron was determined in the ________.
A)cathode ray tube, by J. J. Thomson
B)Rutherford gold foil experiment
C)Millikan oil drop experiment
D)Dalton atomic theory
E)atomic theory of matter
Answer: C
Q3) The correct name for Na<sub>3</sub>N is sodium azide.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) A great deal of the carbon dioxide produced by the combustion of fossil fuels is absorbed into the oceans.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Calcium oxide reacts with water in a combination reaction to produce calcium hydroxide: CaO (s) + H<sub>2</sub>O (l) Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> (s)
A 3.50-g sample of CaO is reacted with 3.38 g of H<sub>2</sub>O. How many grams of water remain after completion of reaction?
A)0.00
B)0.00694
C)2.25
D)1.04
E)0.125
Answer: C
Q3) Determine the mass percent (to the hundredths place)of C in sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO<sub>3</sub>).
Answer: 14.30
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Q1) What are the spectator ions in the reaction between KOH (aq)and HNO<sub>3 </sub>(aq)?
A)K<sup>+</sup> and H<sup>+</sup>
B)H<sup>+ </sup>and OH<sup>-</sup>
C)K<sup>+ </sup>and NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
D)H<sup>+ </sup>and NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
E)OH<sup>- </sup>only
Q2) A 24.5 mL aliquot of 0.0938 M H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq)is to be titrated with 0.0295 M NaOH (aq). What volume (mL)of base will it take to reach the equivalence point?
A)156
B)0.136
C)77.9
D)39.0
E)4430
Q3) How many grams of CH<sub>3</sub>OH must be added to water to prepare 175 mL of a solution that is 1.0 M CH<sub>3</sub>OH?
Q4) Calculate the concentration (M)of sodium ions in a solution made by diluting 50.0 mL of a 0.874 M solution of sodium sulfide to a total volume of 250 mL.
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Q1) Calculate the kinetic energy in joules of an automobile weighing 4345 lb and traveling at 75 mph. (1 mile = 1.6093 km, 1lb = 453.59 g).
A)5.5 × 10<sup>5 J</sup>
B)5.5 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> J
C)1.1 × 10<sup>6</sup> J
D)2.2 × 10<sup>6</sup> J
E)2.2 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>6</sup> J
Q2) In the presence of excess oxygen, methane gas burns in a constant-pressure system to yield carbon dioxide and water: CH<sub>4</sub> (g) + 2O<sub>2</sub> (g) CO<sub>2</sub> (g) + 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l) H = -890.0 kJ
Calculate the value of q (kJ)in this exothermic reaction when 1.80 g of methane is combusted at constant pressure.
A)-100.1 kJ
B)0.0324 kJ
C)-0.0100 kJ
D)30.9 kJ
E)-1.00 × 10<sup>5</sup> kJ
Q3) ________ is defined as the energy used to move an object against a force.
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Q1) The ground state electron configuration of Ga is ________.
A)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>6</sup>4s<sup>2</sup>3d<su p>10</sup>4p<sup>1</sup>
B)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>6</sup>4s<su p>2</sup>4d<sup>10</sup>4p<sup>1</sup>
C)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>6</sup>4s<su p>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>4p<sup>1</sup>
D)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>6</sup>4s<su p>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>4d<sup>1</sup>
E)[Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>11</sup>
Q2) The uncertainty principle states that ________.
A)matter and energy are really the same thing
B)it is impossible to know anything with certainty
C)it is impossible to know the exact position and momentum of an electron
D)there can only be one uncertain digit in a reported number
E)it is impossible to know how many electrons there are in an atom
Q3) Blackbody radiation is the emission of light from metal surfaces.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Ca reacts with element X to form an ionic compound with the formula CaX. Al will react with X to form ________.
A)AlX<sub>2</sub>
B)AlX
C)Al<sub>2</sub>X<sub>3</sub>
D)Al<sub>3</sub>X<sub>2</sub>
E)Al<sub>3</sub>X
Q2) Xenon can form compounds with fluorine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following generalizations cannot be made with regard to reactions of alkali metals? (The symbol M represents any one of the alkali metals.)
A)M (s) + O<sub>2</sub> (g) MO<sub>2</sub> (s)
B)2M (s) + 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l) 2MOH (aq) + H<sub>2</sub> (g)
C)2M (s) + H<sub>2</sub> (g) 2MH (s)
D)2M (s) + Cl<sub>2</sub> (g) 2MCl (s)
E)2M (s) + S (s) M<sub>2</sub>S (s)
Q4) Which noble gas has the highest first ionization energy?
Q5) Of the alkaline earth metals, which two elements are the least reactive?
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Q1) In a reaction, if the bonds in the reactants are stronger than the bonds in the product, the reaction is ________.
Q2) Of the atoms below, ________ is the most electronegative.
A)Ba
B)Sr
C)Ca
D)Mg
E)Be
Q3) The electron configuration of the S<sup>2-</sup> ion is ________.
A)[Ar]3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>6</sup>
B)[Ar]3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>2</sup>
C)[Ne]3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>2</sup>
D)[Ne]3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>6</sup>
E)[Kr]3s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>
Q4) There are ________ unpaired electrons in the Lewis symbol for an oxygen atom. A)0 B)1

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Q1) The electron-domain geometry of a boron-centered compound BH<sub>3</sub> is trigonal planar. The hybridization of the central boron atom is ________.
A)sp<sup>2</sup>
B)sp<sup>3</sup>d<sup>2</sup>
C)sp<sup>3</sup>
D)sp<sup>3</sup>d
E)sp
Q2) Using the VSEPR model, the electron-domain geometry of the central atom in ClO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> is ________.
A)linear
B)trigonal planar
C)tetrahedral
D)trigonal bipyramidal
E)octahedral
Q3) Nitrogen is colorless because the minimum energy to excite an electron is in the ultraviolet section of the spectrum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the three bond angles in the trigonal bipyramidal structure?
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Q1) A sample of oxygen gas (O<sub>2</sub>)was found to effuse at a rate equal to three times that of an unknown gas. The molecular weight of the unknown gas is ________ g/mol.
A)288
B)96
C)55
D)4
E)10.7
Q2) Kinetic-molecular theory assumes that attractive and repulsive forces between gas particles are stronger than those between gas particles and container walls. A)True
B)False
Q3) How many molecules are there in 4.00 L of oxygen gas at 500 °C and 50.0 torr?
Q4) The density of krypton gas at 0.866 atm and 44.4 °C is ________ g/L.
A)0.0332
B)0.359
C)0.238
D)2.78
E)5.57
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Q1) The heating curve shown was generated by measuring the heat flow and temperature for a solid as it was heated. The slope of the ________ segment corresponds to the heat capacity of the gas.
A)AB
B)BC
C)CD
D)DE
E)EF
Q2) Some things take longer to cook at high altitudes than at low altitudes because
A)water boils at a lower temperature at high altitude than at low altitude
B)water boils at a higher temperature at high altitude than at low altitude
C)heat isn't conducted as well in low density air
D)natural gas flames don't burn as hot at high altitudes
E)there is a higher moisture content in the air at high altitude
Q3) Heats of vaporization are greater than heats of fusion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) London Dispersion Forces tend to ________ in strength with increasing molecular weight.
13
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Q1) Which will have a larger band gap: GaN, GaP, GaAs, or GaSb?
A)GaN
B)GaP
C)GaAs
D)GaSb
E)All choices have identical band gaps.
Q2) If the electronic structure of a solid substance consists of a valence band that is completely filled with electrons and there is a large energy gap to the next set of orbitals, then this substance will be a(n)________.
A)alloy
B)insulator
C)conductor
D)semiconductor
E)nonmetal
Q3) What two metals are alloyed to produce sterling silver?
Q4) The process of adding controlled amounts of impurity atoms to a material is known as ________.
Q5) Nylon is formed by the reaction of a(n)________ with a(n)________.
Q6) Semiconductor particles with diameters of 1-10 nm are called ________.
Q7) Polymers formed from two different monomers are called ________.
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Q1) Calculate the molarity of phosphoric acid (H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>)in a 22.1% (by mass)aqueous solution.
A)0.0522 m
B)0.0992 m
C)0.0248 m
D)0.0496 m
E)The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem.
Q2) Hydration is a specific example of the phenomenon known generally as ________.
A)salutation
B)disordering
C)solvation
D)condensation
E)dilution
Q3) Calculate the molarity of a 10.0% (by mass)aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid.
A)0.274 m
B)2.74 m
C)3.04 m
D)4.33 m
E)The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem.
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Q1) The reaction 2NOBr (g) 2 NO (g)+ Br<sub>2</sub> (g) Is a second-order reaction with a rate constant of 0.80 M<sup>-1</sup>s<sup>-1 </sup>at 11 °C. If the initial concentration of NOBr is 0.0440 M, the concentration of NOBr after 6.0 seconds is ________.
A)0.0276 M
B)0.0324 M
C)0.0363 M
D)0.0348 M
E)0.0402 M
Q2) Nitrogen dioxide decomposes to nitric oxide and oxygen via the reaction: 2NO<sub>2</sub> 2NO + O<sub>2</sub>
In a particular experiment at 300 °C, [NO<sub>2</sub>] drops from 0.0143 to 0.00701 M in 261 s. The rate of disappearance of NO<sub>2</sub> for this period is ________ M/s.
A)2.79 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
B)-8.16 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
C)5.59 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
D)1.40 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
E)35,800
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Q1) What role did Karl Bosch play in development of the Haber-Bosch process?
A)He discovered the reaction conditions necessary for formation of ammonia.
B)He originally isolated ammonia from camel dung and found a method for purifying it.
C)Haber was working in his lab with his instructor at the time he worked out the process.
D)He developed the equipment necessary for industrial production of ammonia.
E)He was the German industrialist who financed the research done by Haber.
Q2) In an exothermic equilibrium reaction, increasing the reaction temperature favors the formation of reactants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How is the reaction quotient used to determine whether a system is at equilibrium?
A)The reaction quotient must be satisfied for equilibrium to be achieved.
B)At equilibrium, the reaction quotient is undefined.
C)The reaction is at equilibrium when Q < K<sub>eq</sub>.
D)The reaction is at equilibrium when Q > K<sub>eq</sub>.
E)The reaction is at equilibrium when Q = K<sub>eq</sub>.
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Q1) Classify the following compounds as weak acids (W)or strong acids (S): hypochlorous acid perchloric acid chloric acid
A)W S S
B)S S S
C)S W W
D)W W W
E)W S W
Q2) The magnitude of K<sub>w</sub> indicates that ________.
A)water autoionizes very slowly
B)water autoionizes very quickly
C)water autoionizes only to a very small extent
D)the autoionization of water is exothermic
Q3) Classify the following compounds as weak bases (W)or strong bases (S): methylamine carbonate ion potassium hydroxide
A)W W S
B)S S S
C)S W W
D)W S S
E)W S W
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Q1) A 25.0 mL sample of an HCl solution is titrated with a 0.139 M NaOH solution. The equivalence point is reached with 15.4 mL of base. The concentration of HCl is ________ M.
A)11.7
B)0.00214
C)0.0856
D)0.267
E)0.139
Q2) The pH of a solution prepared by mixing 45.0 mL of 0.183 M KOH and 35.0 mL of 0.145 M HCl is ________.
A)1.314
B)1.403
C)0.00824
D)12.597
E)12.923
Q3) Suppose you have just added 200.0 ml of a solution containing 0.5000 moles of acetic acid per liter to 100.0 ml of 0.5000 M NaOH. What is the final pH? The K<sub>a</sub> of acetic acid is 1.77 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.
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Q1) The concentration of Mg in seawater is 0.054 M. How many grams of Mg can be extracted from 10.0 kg of seawater if the recovery rate is 20.0%?
A)13.9
B)6.50
C)11.3
D)2.62
E)5.25
Q2) Of the reactions involved in the photodecomposition of ozone (shown below), which are photochemical? 1. O<sub>2</sub> (g) + h O (g) + O (g)
2. O (g) + O<sub>2</sub><sub> </sub>(g) + M (g) O<sub>3</sub><sub> </sub>(g) + M<sup>*</sup> (g)
3. O<sub>3</sub> (g) + h O<sub>2</sub><sub> </sub>(g) + O (g)
4. O (g) + O (g) + M (g) O<sub>2</sub><sub> </sub>(g) + M<sup>*</sup> (g)
A)2 and 4
B)1, 2, and 4
C)1 and 3
D)1 only
E)all of them
Q3) Describe the process of reverse osmosis that is used to desalinate seawater.
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Q1) The value of S° for the formation of POCl<sub>3</sub> from its constituent elements, P<sub>2 </sub>(g) + O<sub>2</sub> (g) + 3Cl<sub>2</sub> (g) 2POCl<sub>3</sub> (g) Is ________ J/K mol.
A)-442.0
B)+771.0
C)-321.0
D)-771.0
E)+321.0
Q2) The value of S° for the formation of phosphorous trichloride from its constituent elements, P<sub>2</sub> (g) + 3Cl<sub>2</sub> (g) 2PCl<sub>3</sub> (g) Is ________ J/K mol.
A)-311.7
B)+311.7
C)-263.6
D)+129.4
E)-129.4
Q3) Find the temperature (in K)above which a reaction with a H of 123.0 kJ/mol and a S of 90.00 J/K mol becomes spontaneous.
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Q1) Which of the halogens in Table 20.1 is the strongest oxidizing agent?
A)Cl<sub>2</sub>
B)Br<sub>2</sub>
C)F<sub>2</sub>
D)I<sub>2</sub>
E)All of the halogens have equal strength as oxidizing agents.
Q2) 1V = ________.
A)1 amp s
B)1 J/s
C)96485 C
D)1 J/C
E)1 C/J
Q3) The anode of the alkaline battery is powdered zinc in a gel that contacts ________.
Q4) In a half reaction, the amount of a substance that is reduced or oxidized is directly proportional to the number of electrons generated in the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The major product of a hydrogen fuel cell is ________.
Q6) In the formula G = -nFE, F is the ________.
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Q1) If we start with 1.000 g of strontium-90, 0.805 g will remain after 9.00 yr. This means that the half-life of strontium-90 is ________ yr.
A)7.74
B)11.2
C)28.8
D)7.25
E)41.6
Q2) All atoms of a given element have the same ________.
A)mass number
B)number of nucleons
C)atomic mass
D)number of neutrons
E)atomic number
Q3) The use of radioisotopes in tracing metabolism is possible because ________.
Q4) The major type of cancer caused by radiation is ________.
Q5) The SI unit of an absorbed dose of radiation is the gray.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When an isotope undergoes electron capture, what happens to the captured electron?
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Q1) A carbonyl compound contains ________.
A)a carbon-oxygen double bond
B)a carbon-oxygen triple bond
C)a carbon atom with a lone pair of electrons
D)a carbon-carbon triple bond
E)a carbon-carbon double bond
Q2) Of Li, K, P and Ne which is the least electronegative?
Q3) The oxidation numbers of nitrogen in the nitride ion, hydrazine, ammonium cation, and nitrate ion are ________, ________, ________, and ________, respectively.
A)-3, -2, -3, +5
B)+3, -2, -3, +5
C)+3, -2, +1, +3
D)-3, +2, +1, +5
E)-3, +2, -3, +3
Q4) Oxides can react with water to form acids or bases.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compounds containing only boron and hydrogen are called ________.
Q6) In a discussion of oxygen compounds, a disproportionation reaction is ________.
Q7) What group 5A element is the most metallic?
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Q1) A geometrical isomer with like groups located on opposite sides of the metal atom is denoted with the prefix ________.
A)cis-
B)trans-
C)bis-
D)tetrakis-
E)d-
Q2) Which of the following is a polydentate ligand?
A)ethylenediamine
B)water
C)cyanide ion
D)nitrite ion
E)ammonia
Q3) A substance is ________ if its ions or atoms have one or more unpaired electrons.
Q4) Name the compound, Ca[AlH<sub>4</sub>]<sub>2</sub>.
Q5) Draw a diagram of the short-hand ground state electron configuration of zinc.
Q6) How does an elevated body temperature deprive some bacteria in the body of iron?
Q7) Name the compound, [Os(en)<sub>3</sub>]<sub>2</sub> [NiCl<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>2</sub>]<sub>3</sub>.
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Q1) Ethers can be made by condensation of two ________ molecules by splitting out a molecule of water.
A)alkyne
B)alcohol
C)ketone
D)aldehyde
E)olefin
Q2) The doubly ionized form of an amino acid is called a(n)________.
Q3) Consider the following types of compounds: (i)amino acid
(ii)nitrogen-containing organic base
(iii)phosphoric acid
(iv)five-carbon sugar
From which of the above compounds are the monomers of nucleic acids, called nucleotides, formed?
A)none
B)(i)and (ii)
C)(ii)and (iv)
D)(ii), (iii), and (iv)
E)all
Q4) The primary ingredient in vinegar is ________.
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