Survey of Biology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Survey of Biology offers a broad overview of the fundamental principles of biology, emphasizing the structure, function, and diversity of living organisms. The course covers key topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the classification of plants and animals. Students gain insights into major biological processes, explore the impact of biology on society, and develop critical thinking skills through the analysis of scientific literature and laboratory investigations. Designed for non-majors and those seeking a foundational understanding of biological science, this course provides the essential concepts necessary for further study in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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30 Chapters
2017 Verified Questions
2017 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Scientific Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What statement deals with an aspect of experimentation but with the incorrect explanation?
A) The larger the sample size, the more meaningful the results.
B) The smaller the sample size, the more meaningful the results.
C) A control group is an untreated group and provides a basis for comparison.
D) It is important to standardize aspects of an experiment that might affect the outcome, other than the independent variable.
E) All answers are correct.
Answer: B
Q2) The bacterium <i>Staphylococcus aureus</i> has which of the following?
A) nucleus and ribosomes
B) DNA and nucleus
C) DNA and cell membrane
D) cell membrane and nucleus
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Answer: C
Q3) The "kingdom" is the most all-inclusive taxonomic category.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary building block (monomer)of proteins is
A) a glucose molecule.
B) a fatty acid.
C) a nucleotide.
D) an amino acid.
E) four interconnected rings.
Answer: D
Q2) In a covalent bond
A) atoms share electrons.
B) atoms of opposite charges attract each other.
C) atoms share protons.
D) atoms share neutrons.
E) atoms are repelled by each other.
Answer: A
Q3) For most atoms,the outermost electron shell would be full if it contained
A) one electron.
B) four electrons.
C) eight electrons.
D) sixteen electrons.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) All eukaryotic cells produce proteins.Proteins that will be secreted from the cell are made by ribosomes attached to the
A) cell wall.
B) chloroplast.
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum.
D) mitochondrion.
E) Golgi apparatus.
Answer: C
Q2) What type of membrane protein is involved in creating anchoring junctions between animal cells?
A) transport proteins
B) enzymes
C) recognition proteins
D) adhesion proteins
E) receptor proteins
Answer: D
Q3) Scientists have discovered a few prokaryotic cells do have internal membranes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells use energy for which of the following?
A) to do work
B) to synthesize proteins
C) to expel waste
D) to move substances across membranes
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) Entropy is a measurement of
A) order.
B) complexity.
C) disorder.
D) organizing potential.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) A ball at the top of a hill is an example of ________ and a ball rolling down the hill is an example of ________.
A) potential energy; kinetic energy
B) kinetic energy; potential energy
C) exergonic reaction; endergonic reaction
D) noncompetitive inhibition; competitive inhibition
E) competitive inhibition; noncompetitive inhibition
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary pigment molecule needed for photosynthesis is
A) sunlight.
B) oxygen.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) glucose.
E) chlorophyll <i>a</i>.
Q2) Water interacts with the machinery in photosystem II during the photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The product of photosystem I is
A) NADPH.
B) ATP.
C) glucose.
D) water.
E) NADH.
Q4) The light reactions produce ATP,while the carbon reactions consume it.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the electron transport chain,what occurs between the two membranes of mitochondria?
A) Glycolysis occurs in the membranes.
B) Protons are pumped into the space between the membranes.
C) Oxygen is transported across the membranes.
D) The membranes prevent the mitochondria from rupturing during osmosis without two membranes.
E) The Krebs cycle enzymes are found on the outer mitochondrial membrane.
Q2) <i>Philodendron</i> flowers pass electrons through a modified electron transport chain to generate heat.What is the source of these electrons?
A) water
B) oxygen
C) ATP
D) sunlight
E) NADH and FADH
Q3) Aerobic respiration uses oxygen as its final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the majority of DNA located in a human cell?
A) nucleus
B) mitochondrion
C) chloroplast
D) ribosome
Q2) An infectious protein is a
A) virus.
B) viroid.
C) prion.
D) virion.
E) prophage.
Q3) Most antibiotics are not effective against viruses because they ________ and this does not affect the activity of viruses.
A) inhibit synthesis of cell walls
B) destroy DNA and RNA
C) inhibit all protein synthesis
D) target envelopes
E) inhibit reverse transcriptase
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication,Binary Fission,and Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a cancer metastasizes,its cells travel through the blood stream and colonize other areas of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you wanted to lower your chances of lung cancer,what would be the best factor to avoid?
A) human papillomavirus
B) UV radiation
C) dietary saturated fat
D) tobacco use
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) Bypassing a checkpoint in the cell cycle may result in a cancer cell
A) dividing after mutations are fixed.
B) continuing to divide and replicate with faulty DNA.
C) condensing its chromosomes before mitosis.
D) aligning chromosomes on the equator of the cell during metaphase.
E) pulling chromosomes apart during anaphase.
Q4) Some risk of cancer comes from genetic issues.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sexual reproduction includes
A) mitosis, fission, and fertilization.
B) mitosis, meiosis, and budding.
C) meiosis, fertilization, and mitosis.
D) meiosis, fertilization, and transduction.
E) fertilization, fission, and meiosis.
Q2) What process leads to siblings only sharing,on average,25% of their genetic material?
A) asexual reproduction
B) semiconservative replication
C) random fertilization
D) random orientation
E) mutation
Q3) If a chromosome in one of your bone cells becomes mutated,you will not pass this mutation onto your children because
A) somatic cells cannot undergo mitosis.
B) germ cells cannot undergo meiosis.
C) germ cells cannot undergo mitosis.
D) somatic cells cannot undergo meiosis.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In humans,alleles for a gene locus on autosomes are inherited from A) females only (mothers).
B) males only (fathers).
C) males and females (one allele from each parent).
D) males and females (two alleles from each parent).
E) No answer is correct.
Q2) A gene that has alleles for blue,pink,red,and white flowers is pleiotropic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you cross two heterozygous (<i>Yy</i>)pea plants,what proportion of the offspring will be heterozygous?
A) 25%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 0%
E) 100%
Q4) If X inactivation fails,problems will result because protein production for sex-linked genes will be too great.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used to replace faulty DNA by introducing alleles that do not result in a genetic disorder?
A) gene therapy
B) somatic cell nuclear transfer
C) genetic testing
D) preimplantation genetic diagnosis
E) All answers are correct.
Q2) Genetic testing may lead to ethical issues,such as whether results should be used to determine who receives health insurance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) DNA technology can result in
A) cloned pets.
B) removal of genetic disorders.
C) plants with an added gene that slows the rate of fruit decay.
D) detection of DNA at a crime scene.
E) All answers are correct.
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13
Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) The entire collection of genes and alleles is a population's A) genotype.
B) phenotype.
C) dominant traits.
D) recessive traits.
E) gene pool.
Q2) Since the conditions needed for the Hardy-Weinberg principle do not occur in real populations,this principle has no importance in population studies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The mode of natural selection in which two or more extreme phenotypes are fitter than the intermediate phenotype is
A) directional selection.
B) stabilizing selection.
C) disruptive selection.
D) artificial selection.
E) uniformitarianism.
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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The wings of a bat and a bird are examples of A) analogous structures.
B) homologous structures.
C) vestigial structures.
D) homeotic structures.
E) heterologous structures.
Q2) What can be used as a molecular clock to estimate the time since organisms diverged from a common ancestor?
A) DNA
B) all types of RNA
C) only ribosomal RNA
D) ATP
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) In the section "Investigating Life: Evolving Backwards," what was hypothesized about the loss of legs in modern-day snakes?
A) Snakes descended from land-dwelling ancestors.
B) Snakes descended only from burrowing lizards on land.
C) Snakes descended only from marine lizards.
D) Snakes do not have forelimbs or hindlimbs.
E) Some extant snakes have forelimbs or hindlimbs.
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A biological species is defined as a population whose members can interbreed,although the offspring may be infertile.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacteria are not defined as species when applying the biological species concept.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Every species has a unique two-word name called the A) scientific name.
B) genus.
C) phylogeny.
D) evolutionary tree.
E) clade.
Q4) What is the most inclusive level of the hierarchical classification scheme?
A) domain
B) phylum
C) kingdom
D) genus
E) species
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Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) All protists
A) are prokaryotes.
B) lack a nucleus.
C) lack membrane-bounded organelles.
D) are eukaryotes.
E) are multicellular.
Q2) The complex polysaccharide component of cell walls of bacteria is
A) peptidoglycan.
B) glucose.
C) chitin.
D) cellulose.
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) Antibiotics usually are not dangerous to humans when treating bacterial infections because most antibiotics exploit structures and functions in bacteria that are not present in host cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Protists can be heterotrophs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) What evolved in terrestrial plants to provide support and transport for water and minerals?
A) stomata
B) pollen
C) vascular tissues
D) cuticle
E) lignin
Q2) The fruits of plants function in
A) providing food for animals.
B) seed protection.
C) both protecting and dispersing seeds.
D) seed dispersal.
E) both feeding animals and protecting seeds.
Q3) Which group of plants lack true leaves and roots?
A) liverworts, hornworts, and mosses
B) ferns, club mosses, horsetails, and whisk ferns
C) ginkgo, cycads, conifers, and gnetophytes
D) monocots and eudicots
E) All plants lack true leaves and roots.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you found a worm with obvious segments and a complete digestive tract,you might conclude that it was an annelid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A tunicate is a(n)
A) invertebrate chordate.
B) vertebrate.
C) echinoderm.
D) amphibian.
E) fish.
Q3) Which of the following is a trait shared by mammals and reptiles that is not shared by the other groups of chordates?
A) hair
B) mammary glands
C) an amnion
D) legs
E) lungs
Q4) Arthropoda means "jointed foot."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) In regards to a species' life history,equilibrium species
A) have only a few offspring.
B) are short-lived.
C) reproduce at an early age.
D) have a large number of offspring.
E) give very little care to their offspring.
Q2) Oysters and many other mollusks produce many offspring of which only a few survive to adulthood and then have little risk of predation with their strong adult shells.Oysters are an example of an organism with a type ________ survivorship curve.
A) 0
B) I
C) II
D) III
E) IV
Q3) If a species of fruit fly needs a minimum amount of leaf surface area for mating,once there are enough fruit flies to occupy all mating spaces,the population is at carrying capacity.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concentration of the pesticide DDT is likely highest in which organism?
A) a minnow
B) a mosquito larva
C) a seagull
D) plankton
E) algae
Q2) The concentration of the pesticide DDT is likely lowest in which organism?
A) a seagull
B) a minnow
C) a mosquito larvae
D) algae
E) plankton
Q3) All the organisms plus the nonliving components of a defined area is a(n)
A) population.
B) community.
C) ecosystem.
D) habitat.
E) niche.
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21
Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The current extinction rate of vertebrates is some ________ times the historical background.This is primarily due to habitat destruction.
A) 5 to 10
B) 25 to 50
C) 100 to 1000
D) 1000 to 10,000
E) 50 to 75
Q2) Carbon dioxide gas is not a major contributor to the greenhouse effect.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An increase in the surface temperature of the Earth caused by heat-trapping gases in the atmosphere is known as
A) the greenhouse effect.
B) the biome effect.
C) bioremediation.
D) desertification.
E) the nursery effect.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) If water were being pushed from below,air bubbles in the xylem stream would not pose a problem.However,the observation that air bubbles can interrupt xylem function provides important evidence supporting the ________ theory of water movement.
A) gravity-suction
B) active transport
C) pressure-flow
D) osmotic
E) cohesion-tension
Q2) You drive a nail into a tree that is 10 feet tall,so that 5 inches of the nail are showing.You come back 10 years later.The tree is now 30 feet tall and only 3 inches of the nail are showing.This is because the tree grows out from
A) the lateral meristem only.
B) the apical meristem only.
C) both the lateral and apical meristems.
D) the bark.
E) the node.
Q3) The shoot of a plant is the aboveground part of a plant.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the experiments described in the Investigating Life feature,what animals were most likely to eat the hot chilies?
A) cactus mice
B) pack rats
C) thrashers
D) cactus mice and pack rats
E) thrashers, cactus mice, and pack rats all ate the peppers equally
Q2) If a gardener cuts the apical meristem of a plant,lateral buds begin to grow,which causes a bushier shape to develop.This is because the apical meristem normally secretes auxins that do which of the following?
A) stimulate the growth of lateral buds
B) suppress the growth of the apical meristem
C) stimulate the growth of the apical meristem
D) suppress the growth of lateral buds
E) stimulate the growth of roots
Q3) Cytokinins are plant hormones that stimulate the ripening of fruit.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are working in a diagnostic lab,and you receive a skin biopsy sample.The sample shows several groups of cancerous cells in the epithelium,so you say in your report that you found several
A) carcinomas.
B) leukemias.
C) sarcomas.
D) hybridomas.
E) lymphomas.
Q2) What might an ectotherm do to conserve or obtain body heat?
A) seek sunshine
B) bask on warm rocks
C) make an insulated burrow
D) tuck legs into its body
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) Muscle cells insulate neuroglia as the latter carry electrical signals to muscles.
A)True
B)False
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25
Chapter 24: The Nervous System and the Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you wanted to disrupt transmission of nervous signals from the brain to skeletal muscles,you could use a drug to destroy interneurons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A neuron recharges when Na ions
A) are actively pumped against their concentration gradient.
B) spontaneously move down their concentration gradient. C) spontaneously move against their concentration gradient. D) are actively pumped down their concentration gradient.
Q3) The junctions between one neuron and another neuron are called A) axons.
B) dendrites.
C) synapses.
D) cell bodies.
E) myelin sheaths.
Q4) During an action potential,sodium ions enter the cell.
A)True
B)False
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26
Chapter 25: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you wanted to alter breast milk production in a new mother having trouble feeding her baby due to poor milk supply,you would look at the hormone prolactin,since it is produced by the ________ and targets the ________.
A) anterior pituitary; mammary glands
B) anterior pituitary; pancreas
C) posterior pituitary; kidney
D) posterior pituitary; mammary glands
E) posterior pituitary; pancreas
Q2) Which would be the primary target for ADH?
A) pancreas
B) mammary gland
C) testes
D) kidney
E) ovaries
Q3) Which is an endocrine gland?
A) pancreas
B) thyroid gland
C) ovaries
D) testes
E) All answers are correct.
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Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temporalis and masseter muscles close the jaw while the platysma opens the jaw.To clench your teeth,you
A) contract the temporalis and masseter and relax the platysma.
B) relax the temporalis and masseter and contract the platysma.
C) contract the temporalis, masseter, and platysma.
D) relax the temporalis, masseter, and platysma.
E) contract the temporalis and relax the platysma and masseter.
Q2) After death,muscles remain in a stiff position for several hours because ATP is required
A) to break the bond between actin and myosin.
B) for actin to bind to myosin.
C) for the motor neuron to signal a muscle to relax.
D) for calcium ions to be pumped into the muscle cell.
E) to produce creatine phosphate.
Q3) Which is not a part of the axial skeleton?
A) pelvic girdle
B) ribs
C) skull
D) sternum
E) vertebral column
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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The protein found in red blood cells that transports oxygen is
A) myoglobin.
B) actin.
C) fibrinogen.
D) hemoglobin.
E) myosin.
Q2) If a bird can mimic human speech,it can mimic the action of what organ?
A) pharynx
B) larynx
C) trachea
D) glottis
E) uvula
Q3) Which is a trend observed in the evolution of respiratory surfaces and lungs in vertebrates?
A) increased size
B) the presence of capillaries
C) increased surface area
D) gain in the ability to absorb oxygen across the skin
E) ability to move air into the lungs
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Page 29
Chapter 28: The Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animals that eat a broad variety of foods,including plants and animals,are A) carnivores.
B) herbivores.
C) detritivores.
D) omnivores.
E) insectivores.
Q2) A nutrient is a substance that an organism uses for A) growth.
B) metabolism.
C) maintenance.
D) repair of tissues.
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) Colorless urine usually indicates excessive water intake or the ingestion of diuretics. A)True
B)False
Q4) The trace mineral iron is necessary in humans for the transport of oxygen by hemoglobin molecules.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although the lymphatic system has many similarities to the circulatory system,what can the lymphatic system accomplish that the circulatory system cannot?
A) generate platelets
B) collect bacteria, viruses, cancer cells, and other large particles from body tissues
C) generate red blood cells
D) destroy bacteria, viruses, cancer cells, and other large particles from body tissues
E) generate new body tissues during recovery
Q2) Which correctly describes B cells and T cells?
A) B cells and T cells are lymphocytes.
B) B cells and T cells attack cancerous cells in the body.
C) B cells and T cells attack foreign particles in the body.
D) B cells and T cells are not innate defenses.
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) The primary immune response produces memory cells that stimulate a faster immune response on a subsequent exposure to the same foreign antigen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the late 1950s,some women took ________ as a tranquilizer to relieve morning sickness and it caused deformed limbs in developing embryos.
A) acetaminophen
B) acutane
C) erythromycin
D) thalidomide
E) penicillin
Q2) You are reading a patient's chart and decide that ovulation has happened.What did the chart show surging to make you think this?
A) FSH
B) LH
C) estrogen
D) progesterone
E) GnRH
Q3) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone starts the cascade of hormones that promote sperm production in the human male.
A)True
B)False
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