Course Introduction
Survey of Biology Exam Solutions
Survey of Biology offers a comprehensive overview of fundamental biological concepts, including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Designed for students from a wide range of academic backgrounds, this course emphasizes the scientific method, basic laboratory skills, and the interconnections between living systems and their environments. By exploring contemporary issues such as biotechnology, environmental challenges, and human health, students gain an appreciation for the significance of biology in everyday life and its relevance to global concerns.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 4th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction- Biology Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) The branch of biology that explains both the diversity and the unity of life is ______.
A) evolution
B) microbiology
C) taxonomy
D) genetics
Answer: A
Q2) Which of these would be a valid hypothesis?
A) Human history is determined by a series of supernatural events.
B) Humans should help in the conservation of other animal species.
C) Humans are controlled by forces beyond our understanding.
D) Humans and bacteria share a common genetic code.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is not a property of life?
A) Populations of organisms rarely change over time.
B) Living things exhibit complex but ordered organization.
C) Organisms take in energy and use it to perform all of life's activities.
D) Organisms reproduce their own kind.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sugar dissolves when stirred into water.The sugar is the ______,the water is the ______,and the sweetened water is the ______.
A) solution... solvent... solute
B) solute... solvent... solution
C) solvent... solute... solution
D) solution... solute... solvent
Answer: B
Q2) Sweating cools your body by ______.
A) cohesion
B) radiation
C) evaporative cooling
D) hydrogen bonding
Answer: C
Q3) As water freezes,______.
A) its molecules move farther apart
B) it cools the surrounding environment
C) its hydrogen bonds break apart
D) it loses its polarity
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is hydrophilic?
A) cellulose
B) testosterone
C) butter
D) cholesterol
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is true with regard to a DNA molecule?
A) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is equal to the amount of cytosine.
B) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of cytosine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of thymine.
C) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of uracil.
D) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) When using a light microscope to view a cell you obtained from scraping under your fingernails,you notice that the cell lacks a nucleus; therefore,you conclude that the cell must be a type of ______ cell.
A) plant
B) eukaryotic
C) fungal
D) prokaryotic
Q2) Based on its function in detoxifying drugs,you would expect to find a large amount of smooth ER in ______ cells.
A) brain
B) liver
C) intestinal
D) muscle
Q3) What type of microscope would be best for studying the detailed structure of the surface of a plasma membrane?
A) light microscope
B) transmission electron microscope
C) scanning electron microscope
D) both a light microscope and an electron microscope
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Q1) Which one of the following is true?
A) An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape.
B) Enzymes work generally on a broad range of substrates.
C) Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions.
D) Enzymes emerge changed from the reactions they catalyze.
Q2) When two solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a selectively permeable membrane,and osmosis is allowed to take place,the water will ______.
A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration
B) exhibit a net movement to the side with higher water concentration
C) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentration
D) exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane
Q3) In a hypotonic solution,a plant cell will ______.
A) undergo plasmolysis
B) become flaccid
C) burst
D) become turgid
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Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy from Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) During redox reactions,______.
A) the loss of electrons from one substance is called reduction
B) a substance that gains electrons is said to be oxidized
C) electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance
D) protons from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule
Q2) The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is ______.
A) ATP
B) oxygen
C) lactic acid
D) NAD<sup>+</sup>
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Oxygen is a product of cellular respiration; carbon dioxide is a product of photosynthesis.
B) Lactic acid is a product of aerobic respiration; ethyl alcohol is a product of fermentation.
C) Oxidation is the loss of electrons; reduction is the gain of electrons.
D) Glucose is a product of aerobic respiration; lactic acid is a product of anaerobic respiration.
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which wavelength is best for your plants' growth?
A) 650 nm
B) 550 nm
C) 500 nm
D) 400 nm
Q2) Within the inner membrane of a chloroplast,interconnected sacs of membrane called ______ are suspended in a thick fluid called the ______.
A) chlorophyll... thylakoid
B) thylakoids... grana
C) thylakoids... stroma
D) grana... thylakoid
Q3) How many times must the Calvin cycle turn for the plant cell to be able to produce one molecule of glucose?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) six
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9
Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells from Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) What chromosomes belong to a normal human female?
A) 22 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
B) 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome
D) 46 autosomes and two X chromosomes
Q2) Genetic variation is accomplished by all but one of the following.Which is it?
A) the events of meiosis I
B) crossing over
C) independent assortment
D) the events of meiosis II
Q3) A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.
A) centromeres
B) centrosomes
C) genomes
D) sister chromatids
Q4) How many chromosomes can a gamete possess as a result of nondisjunction?
A) n + 1 or n - 1
B) 2n + 1 or 2n - 1
C) 2n - 1 only
D) 2n + 1 or n - 1
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) This pedigree supports the fact that widow's peak is due to a dominant allele,because if it were due to a recessive allele and both parents show the recessive phenotype,then ______.
A) none of the sons would have a widow's peak
B) all of the offspring would have a widow's peak
C) none of the daughters would have a widow's peak
D) all of the daughters and none of the sons would have a widow's peak
Q2) What is the key to the recognition of codominance?
A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.
B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.
C) The alleles affect more than one trait.
D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.
Q3) Recombinant offspring were produced by the mating shown in the accompanying art.What is the recombination frequency of purple round and red long offspring?
A) 21%
B) 381
C) 21 + 21
D) 11%
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11
Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the ultimate source of all diversity?
A) natural selection
B) sexual recombination
C) meiosis
D) mutation
Q2) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?
A) RNase
B) RNA helicase
C) RNA ligase
D) RNA polymerase
Q3) How many amino acids are common to all living systems?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 100
Q4) The shared genetic code of all life on Earth is evidence that ______.
A) the genetic code arose relatively late in the history of life on Earth
B) DNA replication is error-free
C) all life shares a common ancestry
D) bacterial cells arose earlier than eukaryotic cells
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Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Q1) Homeotic genes ______.
A) have very different sequences in plant cells as compared to animal cells
B) are an example of convergent evolution
C) are evidence of the common ancestry of eukaryotic organisms
D) regulate gene expression in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Q2) In bacteria,what name is given to a cluster of genes with related functions,along with their DNA control sequences?
A) operon
B) activator
C) promoter
D) exon
Q3) In an operon,the ______ acts as an on/off switch.
A) operator
B) promoter
C) activator
D) repressor
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Chapter 12: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The possibility that Mongolian ruler Genghis Khan spread an unusual chromosome to nearly 16 million men living today resulted from studies of _____.
A) proteomics
B) cDNA
C) the X chromosome
D) the Y chromosome
Q2) Which of these statements can be logically inferred from the amount of DNA shared by chimpanzees and humans?
A) Humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.
B) Humans evolved from chimpanzees.
C) Humans are unique and different from all other life forms.
D) Humans are a more complex life form than chimpanzees.
Q3) STR analysis is a DNA profiling technique that makes use of the fact that different people have
A) different numbers of repeats of short DNA sequences at certain sites in the genome.
B) different alleles for many genes in the genome.
C) different restriction fragments
D) different CODIS DNA sequences
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14
Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Q1) Genetic drift is the result of ______.
A) natural selection
B) chance
C) a large gene pool
D) environmental variation
Q2) In the Hardy-Weinberg formula,what does p<sup>2</sup> represent?
A) frequency of the dominant allele
B) frequency of heterozygotes
C) frequency of the recessive allele
D) frequency of the homozygous dominants
Q3) If the frequency of one allele in a population is 0.7,what is the frequency of the alternate allele?
A) 0.09
B) 0.21
C) 0.30
D) 0.42
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Page 15
Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves
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Q1) Which one of the following is the only domain that contains eukaryotes?
A) Animalia
B) Plantae
C) Archaea
D) Eukarya
Q2) The biological species concept cannot be applied to ______.
A) fungi that live on land
B) bacteria that only reproduce asexually
C) complex plants that have flowers
D) animals that use asexual and sexual reproduction
Q3) The biological species concept cannot be applied to fossils.Which alternate approach to identifying species would be most useful for classifying fossil organisms?
A) an approach based on use of ecological resources
B) an approach based on genetic history
C) an approach based on measurable physical traits
D) an approach based on molecular biology
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Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life
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Q1) You discover a unicellular organism that moves by what appear to be pseudopodia. You conclude that this organism is ______.
A) either a type of amoeba or a type of slime mold
B) a type of bacterium
C) a type of alga
D) either a type of ciliate, or a type of amoeba, or a type of flagellate, or a type of apicomplexan
Q2) According to the theory of endosymbiosis,which organelles evolved from small prokaryotes that established residence within other,larger prokaryotes?
A) vacuoles and lysosomes
B) Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum
C) centrioles and ribosomes
D) mitochondria and chloroplasts
Q3) All organisms that photosynthesize fit into which nutritional category?
A) chemoautotrophs
B) photoheterotrophs
C) photoautotrophs
D) chemoheterotrophs
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Chapter 16: Plants, Fungi, and the Move onto Land
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Q1) In ______ the gametophyte is more obvious than the sporophyte.
A) conifers
B) mosses
C) grasses
D) ferns
Q2) The ______ helps plants retain water.
A) hypha
B) cuticle
C) mycorrhiza
D) lignin
Q3) The function of a mushroom is to _____.
A) produce seeds
B) store nutrients
C) produce spores
D) absorb food
Q4) Which of the following lack vascular tissue?
A) cone-bearing plants
B) grasses
C) ferns
D) mosses
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Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals
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Q1) What name is given to the food-trapping cells of sponges?
A) phagocytes
B) amoebocytes
C) flame cells
D) choanocytes
Q2) What does the term tetrapod mean?
A) egg-laying
B) living on land
C) living a double life
D) having four feet
Q3) A feature that freed reptiles from dependence on water for reproduction is ______.
A) parental care of eggs
B) ectothermy
C) metamorphosis
D) the amniotic egg
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19
Chapter 18: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) What are estuaries?
A) a type of freshwater biome
B) areas near the start of a river
C) regions where ocean meets land
D) a transition area between a river and the ocean
Q2) Wetlands ______.
A) are important in improving water quality
B) include rivers, streams, ponds, and lakes
C) are an example of a marine biome
D) are found in the intertidal zone
Q3) What level of ecology is concerned with both the biotic and abiotic aspects of an environment?
A) community
B) organism
C) ecosystem
D) population
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Chapter 19: Population Ecology
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Q1) Opportunistic species typically ______.
A) are very long-living
B) have a large number of offspring
C) reach sexual maturity slowly
D) exhibit a Type I survivorship curve
Q2) The ecological footprint of the United States ______.
A) is about the same as the global average
B) is lower than the global average
C) shows that Americans consume a disproportionate amount of food and fuel
D) shows that its population size is increasing slowly
Q3) In most developed countries,overall population growth rates ______.
A) are high, so the population is growing rapidly
B) are high, so the population size is fairly stable
C) are near zero, so the population size is fairly stable
D) are low, so the population is declining
Q4) Which of these is a characteristic of Type I survivorship?
A) low survivorship for the very young
B) most individuals survive to older age intervals
C) survivorship is constant over the lifespan
D) survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) Herbivory is an example of a _____ interaction.
A) +/+
B) -/-
C) 0/+
D) +/-
Q2) The present rate of species loss ______.
A) suggests that about 25% of all plant and animal species may be extinct by the end of the century
B) is about the same as it has been during the last 100,000 years
C) is as much as 100 times higher than at any time in the last 100,000 years
D) is slower than in recent years because of conservation efforts
Q3) Which type of ecosystem has low production but nonetheless contributes a large proportion of Earth's total net primary production?
A) tropical rain forest
B) coral reef
C) open ocean
D) desert
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22
Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following animals is an ectotherm?
A) human
B) parrot
C) spiny lobster
D) field mouse
Q2) In humans,goosebumps are a vestige of a mammalian adaptation related to ______.
A) thermoregulation
B) water conservation
C) osmoregulation
D) positive feedback
Q3) Which of the following is a function of the kidneys?
A) elimination of urea
B) reabsorption of valuable solutes
C) reabsorbing water
D) all of the above
Q4) When body temperature is too low,which of the following occurs?
A) Blood vessels in the skin constrict.
B) Muscles relax.
C) Sweat glands are activated.
23
D) Blood vessels at the body surface dilate and fill with blood.
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Altogether,the body secretes about 7 liters of water into the alimentary canal each day. About what percentage of this water gets reabsorbed?
A) 30%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 90%
Q2) The esophagus and trachea are both open to the ______.
A) pharynx
B) posterior oral cavity
C) posterior nasal cavity
D) larynx
Q3) The stomach mixes food with the secretions of the stomach wall to form ______.
A) gastric juice
B) a food ball
C) chyme
D) acid gastrin
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Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) Insects breathe using ______.
A) lungs
B) tracheae
C) their entire outer skin
D) book lungs
Q2) Blood is propelled back to the heart by ______.
A) rhythmic contractions of muscles in the walls of veins and the action of one-way valves
B) skeletal muscle contractions around veins and the action of one-way valves
C) the negative pressure of the heart pulling blood into the empty chambers
D) the natural flow of blood into ever larger blood vessels leading to the heart
Q3) Which of these animals has a double circulatory system?
A) fish
B) grasshopper
C) dog
D) hydra
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Chapter 24: The Body's Defenses
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Q1) Antibodies are ______.
A) composed of four fatty acid chains
B) a type of lymphocyte
C) proteins with short carbohydrates attached
D) proteins consisting of four polypeptide chains
Q2) What kinds of cells engulf whatever foreign cells and molecules they encounter and recognize?
A) natural killer cells
B) platelets
C) phagocytic cells
D) interferons
Q3) The major result of the inflammatory response is to ______.
A) initiate the production of antibodies
B) disinfect and clean damaged tissues
C) initiate the release of interferons
D) initiate the production of natural killer cells
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Chapter 25: Hormones
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Q1) Hyposecretion of ______ may inhibit your response to stress.
A) ACTH
B) insulin
C) HGH
D) prolactin
Q2) Which of the following glands is located nearest the kidneys?
A) ovaries
B) pineal gland
C) parathyroid glands
D) adrenal glands
Q3) Which of the following hormones is made by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary?
A) estrogen
B) growth hormone
C) ADH
D) insulin
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) When does the human embryo implant in the wall of the uterus?
A) within a few hours of fertilization
B) about a day after conception
C) about a week after conception
D) just after gastrulation
Q2) The lifeline between the embryo and the placenta ______.
A) is derived from the yolk sac
B) is derived from the amnion
C) is called the chorion
D) is called the umbilical cord
Q3) Which of the following correctly lists the three stages of labor,in the proper order?
A) dilation, expulsion, delivery of the placenta
B) dilation, crowning, expulsion
C) contractions, dilation, expulsion
D) contractions, dilation, crowning
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Chapter 27: Nervous, Sensory, and Locomotor Systems
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Q1) A thick filament is made up of ______.
A) actin and regulatory proteins
B) myosin
C) myosin and regulatory filaments
D) actin and myosin
Q2) The two major divisions of the nervous system are the ______.
A) sympathetic and parasympathetic
B) CNS and PNS
C) sensory and motor
D) voluntary and involuntary
Q3) A person who has blurred vision caused by a misshapen lens or cornea has ______.
A) hyperopia
B) myopia
C) astigmatism
D) presbyopia
Q4) When you hear,the ______ vibrates.
A) eardrum
B) hammer
C) stirrup
D) all of the above
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Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant
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Q1) Which of the following are the most abundant cell type found in most plants?
A) parenchyma cells
B) collenchyma cells
C) sclerenchyma cells
D) food-conducting cells
Q2) Which of the following cell types provide support in growing parts of a plant?
A) parenchyma cells
B) collenchyma cells
C) sclerenchyma cells
D) water-conducting cells
Q3) Which of the following are the tiny projections found on roots that increase the surface area?
A) root hairs
B) cotyledons
C) nodes
D) mesophyll
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Chapter 29: The Working Plant
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Q1) Which of the following weather conditions would cause transpiration to be most rapid?
A) hot, humid weather
B) cold, humid weather
C) hot, dry weather
D) windy, wet weather
Q2) Which of the following best describes the conversion that occurs during nitrogen fixation?
A) ammonium to nitrate
B) nitrate to ammonium
C) nitrogen to ammonium
D) nitrogen to ammonium or nitrate
Q3) What does a plant gain from a mycorrhizal relationship?
A) It allows roots to absorb water and solutes more rapidly.
B) It increases the surface area for photosynthesis.
C) It helps to break down complex molecules in the soil to release micronutrients.
D) It helps to break down decaying organic matter into essential plant nutrients.
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