Survey of Biological Sciences
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Survey of Biological Sciences offers an introduction to the fundamental concepts of biology, including the study of the structure and function of living organisms, cellular processes, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. The course emphasizes the scientific principles and methods used to investigate biological phenomena, as well as the relevance of biology to everyday life, health, and environmental issues. Students will engage in lectures, discussions, and hands-on laboratory activities to develop a broad understanding of the living world and the critical role of biology in addressing global challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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28 Chapters
3839 Verified Questions
3839 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Living organisms are members of all of the levels listed below.However,soil is a component of
A) the community.
B) the population.
C) the ecosystem.
D) the biosphere.
E) both the community and the biosphere.
Answer: C
Q2) Often found in extreme environments while having no nucleus,this domain is closer genetically to eukarya.
A)archaea
B)bacteria
C)eukarya
D)plantae
E)fungi
F)animalia
G)protists
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Molecules of Life
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159 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many protons are in the nucleus of a phosphorus atom?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 10
D) 15
E) 30
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following pHs is the most acidic?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
E) 9
Answer: A
Q3) the bond between the two strands of DNA in a double helix
A)hydrogen
B)ionic
C)covalent
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Meat,fruits,and vegetables could be contaminated with E.coli strains toxic to humans when they come in contact with animal
I. feces
II. urine
III. blood
A) I only
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) I and III
E) I, II, and III
Answer: C
Q2) capsule
Answer: B
Q3) pilus
Answer: G
Q4) cell wall
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Energy and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fact that the earth does not go up in flames in spite of the richness of oxygen in our environment is related to which of the following concepts?
A) the activation energy needed to break bonds.
B) the fact that reactants always have less energy than products.
C) the first law of thermodynmics.
D) the second law of thermodynamics.
E) the abundance of water in our atmosphere which inhibits combustion.
Q2) Enzymes speed up reactions by
A) lowering activation energy.
B) adding some energy to the system.
C) increasing activation energy.
D) lowering activation energy and adding some energy to the system.
E) doing all of these.
Q3) Osmotic pressure is to a plant cell as ___ is to a ___.
A) air; balloon
B) water; water glass
C) fire; campfire
D) wind; windmill
E) dirt; vacuum cleaner
Q4) an excess of end-product molecules shuts down a metabolic pathway
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Capturing and Releasing Energy
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150 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Visible light comprises wavelengths that vary between ____ nanometers.
A) 380 and 750
B) 350 and 750
C) 390 and 780
D) 340 and 740
E) 320 and 740
Q2) If the first electron transfer chain in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis was stopped,which of the following would NOT be generated?
A) oxygen gas
B) NADPH
C) ATP
D) ATP and NADPH
E) none of these would be generated
Q3) water
Q4) Which of the following do accessory pigments NOT do?
A) absorb additional wavelengths of light for photosynthesis
B) provide protection from UV light
C) attract animals for the purposes of seed dispersal and pollination
D) reflect white light
E) make roses red and violets blue
Page 7
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Chapter 6: DNA Structure and Function
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109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two types of bonding found in a DNA molecule are
A) ionic and covalent.
B) covalent and peptide.
C) ionic and hydrogen.
D) peptide and hydrogen.
E) covalent and hydrogen.
Q2) This nucleotide is a double-ringed molecule and develops three hydrogen bonds with its complement in the double helix DNA.
Q3) In the nucleotide sequence ACTGG,what does C stand for?
A) cysteine
B) cytotic
C) cytosine
D) chargaff
E) cystomitosine
Q4) In the technique of artificial twinning,
A) two embryos are fused.
B) an embryo is teased apart.
C) two sperm are used to fertilize a single egg.
D) two eggs and two sperm are used to form two embryos.
E) an embryo's nucleus is removed and replaced with an adult embryo.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Gene Expression and Control
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135 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nucleotide forms the tail of a completed messenger RNA transcript?
A) adenine
B) thymine
C) cytosine
D) guanine
E) a combination of more than one of these
Q2) What,specifically,determines the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide of eukaryotes?
A) the DNA gene
B) the introns
C) the exons
D) the initial mRNA transcript
E) the tRNA anticodons
Q3) Which of the RNAs act as an enzyme?
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) mRNA and rRNA
E) none of the RNAs act as an enzyme
Q4) all of the mRNA codons
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Chapter 8: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following injuries would be most difficult for your body to repair?
A) broken leg
B) a deep cut on your foot
C) a twisted ankle
D) a torn biceps muscle
E) an ulcer
Q2) crossing over occurs
A)mitosis
B)meiosis
C)both mitosis and meiosis
D)neither mitosis or meiosis
Q3) Four of the five answers listed below are characteristic to meiosis.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) involves two divisions
B) reduces the number of chromosomes
C) results in the production of two cells
D) produces haploid cells
E) involves pairing of homologous chromosomes
Q4) nuclear division
Q5) period prior to mitosis
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organs are likely to be affected by a defective CFTR protein?
A) lungs
B) intestines
C) heart
D) lungs and intestines
E) heart and intestines
Q2) effect in which a trait is influenced by the product of multiple genes
Q3) In the figure above,how many plants would have white flowers and short stems?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 9
E) 16
Q4) What two types of melanin are made by melanosomes?
A) brownish- black and yellowish
B) brownish-black and reddish
C) brownish-black and white-ish
D) yellowish and reddish
E) reddish and white-ish
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Chapter 10: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plants have been genetically modified for which of the following purposes?
A) herbicide resistance
B) pest resistance
C) nutritional improvement
D) disease resistance
E) all of these
Q2) DNA fragment that contains the DNA of more than one species
Q3) What organ system is affected in SCIDs?
A) digestive
B) immune
C) reproductive
D) nervous
E) cardiovascular
Q4) Which of the following techniques reveals differences in the number of tandem repeats among individuals?
A) PCR
B) DNA amplification
C) DNA hybridization
D) DNA profiling
E) DNA probe analysis
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Evidence of Evolution
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117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of yeast genes have homologous genes that can be found in humans?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 30
E) 40
Q2) Which of the following scientists first proposed the theory of uniformity?
A) Lyell
B) Lamarck
C) Darwin
D) Cuvier
E) Aristotle
Q3) Which type of genes guide the formation of specific body parts?
A) homeotic
B) homologous
C) recessive
D) dominant
E) homozygotic
Q4) Lyell
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Processes of Evolution
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136 Verified Questions
136 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the rat to human ratio in most major cities?
A) 10:1
B) 20:1
C) 1:10
D) 1:25
E) 1:100
Q2) The HbS allele that causes sickle-cell anemia in the recessive condition is most common in areas that experience a high frequency of A) polio.
B) typhus.
C) diphtheria.
D) malaria.
E) cystic fibrosis.
Q3) A group of organisms sharing a derived character is a A) clade.
B) taxon.
C) tribe.
D) community.
E) population.
Q4) diagram that summarizes how a group of species evolved
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Chapter 13: Early Life Forms and the Viruses
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147 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of foraminiferans?
A) Most foraminiferans live on the sea floor.
B) Foraminiferans are single-celled predators.
C) The planktonic foraminiferans often have photosynthetic protists living in their cytoplasm.
D) Foraminiferans secrete a shell containing calcium carbonate.
E) All of these are true of foraminiferans.
Q2) Which of the following elements was NOT included in the Urey-Miller experiments?
A) oxygen
B) methane
C) ammonia
D) water vapor
E) electrical sparks
Q3) Scientific evidences suggest that oxygen gas appeared on earth about ____ years ago.
A) 38,000,000,000
B) 25,000,000,000
C) 2,300,000,000
D) 380,000,000
E) 4,500,000
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Chapter 14: Plants and Fungi
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139 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what way do fungi reproduce?
A) asexually, through spores
B) budding of the parent body
C) sexually, through gametes
D) asexually, through spores and budding of the parent body
E) asexually, through spores, budding of the parent body, and sexually, through gametes.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the pine cone is correct?
A) Cones are exclusively a female structure.
B) Cones are the result of pollination.
C) One type of cone produces both microspores and megaspores.
D) Seeds are formed inside of fruits.
E) One type of cone produces microspores; the other type produces megaspores.
Q3) Which plant is consumed by more people worldwide than any other plant?
A) wheat
B) corn
C) rice
D) potatoes
E) legumes
Q4) general group that produces seeds with endosperm food reserve
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Chapter 15: Animal Evolution
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170 Verified Questions
170 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The colonial theory of animal origins states that animals
A) migrated on land from sponge colonies in the ocean.
B) originated in the Colonial geologic period.
C) evolved from autotrophic green alga colonies.
D) evolved from heterotrophic colony-forming protists.
E) colonized land before they colonized the seas.
Q2) This animal lacks symmetry,has no embryonic tissues,and has intracellular digestion.It is ___.
A) a cnidarian
B) a flatworm
C) a sponge
D) an annelid
E) more than one of these
Q3) This animal has the fewest genes,the simplest body plan,and only four cell types.It is a
A) planarian.
B) placozoan.
C) annelid.
D) roundworm.
E) sponge.
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Chapter 16: Population Ecology
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A study of a cohort of 1,000 newborn animals showed a death rate per individual in year one of 40 percent and a death rate per individual in year two of 80 percent.The quantity of survivors after two years is about
A) 120
B) 200
C) 320
D) 400
E) 1,000
Q2) What percentage of married women worldwide use family planning methods?
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
E) 60
Q3) Guppies preyed upon by Killifish are __ species.
A) type I
B) K-selected
C) type II
D) r-selected
E) more than one of these types of
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Chapter 17: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The keystone species in a Pacific Northwest Old Growth Forest
A) is the Spotted owl, that preys on rodents.
B) are the mice that feed on mushrooms and truffles.
C) are the Douglas fir trees that are dominant species.
D) are the Douglas squirrels that spread the seeds of the Douglas fir.
E) are the piliated woodpeckers that nest in Douglas fir.
Q2) Which of the following is a major determinant in which plant species becomes a pioneer species in a primary succession event?
A) the species of plants that preceded it
B) the animals that occupy the area
C) chance events
D) the nature of the existing soils
E) the type of disturbance
Q3) Species richness and the relative abundance of each species determine
A) the species composition of an ecosystem.
B) the species diversity of a community.
C) the species composition of a population.
D) the species diversity of a biosphere.
E) the species diversity in a niche.
Q4) spotted owls eating mice
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Biosphere and Human Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following was the first invertebrate listed as endangered by the US Fish and Wildlife Service?
A) marine mollusk
B) white abalone
C) Atlantic lobster
D) sea anemone
E) blind crab
Q2) mixed salt and fresh water; high primary productivity
Q3) Name two factors that will influence the composition of aquatic communities.
Q4) Wild plants are often used as reservoirs of genes that make them __________ to disease.
Q5) main producers are dinoflagellates
Q6) Which country receives the most sunlight per year?
A) United States
B) Japan
C) Canada
D) Germany
E) Mexico
Q7) when newly formed,it is deep,clear,few nutrients,and low primary productivity
Q8) shrub root systems may extend down to 60 meters
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Chapter 19: Animal Tissues and Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excretes excess fluid,solutes,and dissolved wastes
Q2) Epithelial cells are more likely to become cancerous than other tissue cells because epithelial cells
A) lack a nucleus.
B) are always exposed to the external environment.
C) are only found in simple tissues.
D) do DNA replication more often.
E) have an extensive blood vascular system.
Q3) tendons and ligaments
Q4) lining of internal cavities
Q5) Which of the following proteins waterproof skin?
A) collagen
B) elastin
C) keratin
D) albumin
E) myosin
Q6) the most common tissue type in vertebrates; holds organs in place
Q7) composed of stratified squamous cells
Page 21
Q8) connective tissue that is involved in transport of nutrients
Q9) tissue that cushions organs and is an energy reserve
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Page 22
Chapter 20: How Animals Move
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sternum is a major site of red blood cell formation.The bones in the sternum must be ___ bones.
A) compact
B) spongy
C) cartilaginous
D) fibrous
E) synovial
Q2) In a vertebrate,which of the following is NOT a part of the axial skeleton?
A) skull
B) ribs
C) vertebrae
D) knee
E) tail
Q3) Which human bone is found in the pectoral girdle?
A) clavicle
B) humerus
C) radius
D) sternum
E) tibia
Q4) forms concentric layers of the matrix
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Chapter 21: Circulation and Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhalation
A) causes the diaphragm to contract and move downwards.
B) is an active process.
C) causes the rib cage to move upward.
D) causes the thoracic cavity to expand.
E) does all of these.
Q2) The respiratory pacemaker is located in the A) lungs.
B) cerebral cortex.
C) brain stem.
D) bronchioles.
E) alveoli.
Q3) In human lungs,where does gas exchange occur?
A) the pharynx
B) the alveoli
C) the trachea
D) the bronchioles
E) more than one of these
Q4) the windpipe
Q5) structure not found in the human respiratory system
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What was Frankie's last wish?
A) that young women have a yearly PAP test
B) to not assume youth is a protection against cervical cancer
C) to tell young women that cancer does not discriminate
D) awareness
E) all of these were a part of Frankie's last wish
Q2) If a person is incapable of making effector helper T cells,what will be the result?
A) Memory B cells will not be produced.
B) Effector B cells will not be produced.
C) Memory T cells will not be produced.
D) Complement cascade will not occur.
E) Both a and b will result
Q3) All of the following are true of AIDS,EXCEPT which of the following statements?
A) It is the result of a secondary immune deficiency.
B) It is a consequence of infection with HIV.
C) Sufferers are susceptible to infection and rare forms of cancer.
D) It is easily curable in the U.S.
E) It is a global health concern.
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Chapter 23: Digestion and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following substances are NOT reabsorbed by the kidneys?
A) most of the water
B) amino acids
C) glucose
D) urea
E) urea and amino acids
Q2) Leptin works to reduce weight gain by
A) preventing absorption of fat by the small intestine.
B) suppressing the urge to eat.
C) making fat less soluble.
D) stimulating the conversion of fat cells into skeletal muscle cells.
E) stimulating the increased production of acid in the stomach that more thoroughly breaks down fatty acids.
Q3) Gastric bypass surgery is effective in part because it
A) increases ghrelin levels.
B) decreases ghrelin levels.
C) increases leptin levels.
D) decreases leptin levels.
E) increases ghrelin levels and decreases leptin levels.
Q4) the process that returns glucose to the blood
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Chapter 24: Neural Control and the Senses
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Q1) Nerve gas has its effect by causing the accumulation of ___ in the synaptic cleft.
A) dopamine
B) serotonin
C) acetylcholine
D) epinephrin
E) an endorphin
Q2) All of the following structures of the ear pass on vibrations from sounds except the A) hammer
B) eardrum
C) oval window
D) organ of Corti
E) cochlea
Q3) lightwaves from distant objects converge in front of the eye
Q4) LSD resembles this neurotransmitter and binds to receptors for it
Q5) works with the pituitary to maintain homeostatic control
Q6) damage to brain neurons that release this neurotransmitter causes Alzheimer's disease
Q7) nicotine blocks receptors for this neurotransmitter
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Makes and secretes thyroid stimulating hormone
Q2) Calcitonin is produced in the ___ and is important for the uptake of ___ by bones.
A) anterior pituitary---calcium
B) posterior --- phosphorus
C) posterior---calcium
D) hypothalamus---calcium
E) hypothalamus---phosphorus
Q3) Atrazine is used as a(an)
A) pesticide.
B) fertilizer.
C) herbicide.
D) substitute for PCBs.
E) insect repellent.
Q4) Where are the adrenal glands located?
A) beneath the pituitary gland
B) between the pons and the medulla oblongata
C) next to the pancreas
D) on top of the kidneys
E) attached to the liver
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) By the end of the fourth week the embryo is ____ times larger than its starting size.
A) 100
B) 200
C) 300
D) 400
E) 500
Q2) What letter indicates female tissue that is homologous to tissue at the head of the male penis?
Q3) A penis becomes erect because of
A) muscle contractions.
B) blood flow into spongy tissue.
C) hydrostatic pressure.
D) osmosis.
E) a combination of more than one of these.
Q4) The major germ layers are formed during this stage.
Q5) a surge of this hormone encourages the primary oocyte to complete meiosis I
Q6) The organ at letter ________ is lined with endometrium.
Q7) This continues to undergo mitosis throughout the reproductive life of the male.
Q8) The mammalian version of a blastula.
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Chapter 27: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following plants was used as a bioremediator at the Aberdeen Proving Grounds?
A) hemlock
B) poplar trees
C) maple trees
D) sawgrass
E) oak trees
Q2) Which of the following plant cells has a companion cell?
A) tracheids
B) vessel members
C) sieve-tube members
D) sclerids
E) fibers
Q3) may have lateral meristems
Q4) veins usually parallel
Q5) phloem
Q6) vascular bundles
Q7) periderm
Q8) flower parts in multiples of four or five
Page 30
Q9) potatoes are examples
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Chapter 28: Plant Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following floral reproductive structures is incorrectly matched?
A) microspore-pollen grain
B) egg-embryo
C) ovule-seed
D) ovary-fruit
E) none of these structures are incorrectly matched
Q2) Which of the following is a possible cause of colony collapse disorder (CCD)?
A) Israeli acute paralysis virus
B) parasitic mites
C) Nosema fungus
D) neonicotinoid insecticides
E) a combination of all of these is the possible cause of CCD
Q3) It is possible for a flowering plant to be fertilized even though its ____ have been removed.
A) stamens
B) stigmas
C) styles
D) ovaries
E) carpels
Q4) mediates tropisms
Page 32
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