Surgical Technology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Surgical Technology is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the essential principles and practices of the surgical environment. The course covers the roles and responsibilities of surgical technologists, including preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative procedures. Students will learn about surgical instruments, sterilization techniques, aseptic practices, patient safety, and operating room protocols. Emphasis is placed on teamwork, effective communication, and ethical considerations within the surgical team. Through a combination of classroom instruction, laboratory practice, and clinical experiences, students gain the skills necessary to assist in a variety of surgical procedures, ensuring optimal patient care and safety.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of professional would have DO or DPM after his or her name?
A) pharmacist
B) director
C) dentist
D) dietitian
Answer: B
Q2) Pathway or program of upward movement to positions of increased responsibility within an organization
A)Resume
B)Surgical assistant
C)Job description
D)Organizational structure
E)Career ladder
F)Role
G)Allied Health
H)Feedback
I)Intraoperative case management
J)Problem-solving skills
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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Q1) General consent is obtained by patients admitted to the hospital and covers all routine services and medical treatment in broad terms but not invasive procedures such as surgery.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) If a patient suffered a burn as a result of improper application of the ESU dispersive (grounding) pad, the individual team member responsible may be found guilty in a lawsuit of which of the following?
A) assault
B) battery
C) intentional tort
D) negligence
Answer: D
Q3) In a common adage, what is the "best medicine" in health care?
A) conscience
B) documentation
C) judgment
D) prevention
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) SIDS (formerly known as "crib death") is categorized as which general category of cause of death?
A) accidental
B) prolonged
C) sudden
D) terminal
Answer: C
Q2) Under what circumstances would many hospitals rescind (invalidate) a "Do Not Resuscitate/Do Not Intubate" order?
A) A patient is admitted to ICU with pneumonia.
B) A family member disagrees with patient's wishes.
C) A patient must undergo a therapeutic surgical procedure.
D) A perianesthesia nurse discovers an unresponsive patient in the PCU.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the "Five Stages of Grief"?
A) acceptance
B) bargaining
C) denial
D) repression
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Q1) What is the usual cause of a clavicular fracture of a neonate during a vaginal delivery?
A) cephalopelvic disproportion
B) placenta previa
C) shoulder dystocia
D) use of surgical forceps
Q2) Overgrowth of which microorganism is most likely responsible for pediatric cases of enterocolitis following antibiotic therapy?
A) Clostridium difficile
B) Escherichia coli
C) Helicobacter pylori
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) What is the name of the device used to test the blood of patients with diabetes for metabolic status?
A) acetometer
B) glucometer
C) insulometer
D) ketometer
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6
Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following components of personal protective equipment (PPE) are worn for procedures using fluoroscopy?
A) laser mask and laser goggles
B) arthroscopy boots and impervious apron
C) plastic face shield and N-95 respirator mask
D) lead apron and thyroid shield
Q2) All of the following are articulating breakpoints or removable sections of an operating table EXCEPT:
A) head
B) knee
C) side
D) waist
Q3) What distance from the portable x-ray unit should sterile members of the surgical team stand to reduce their exposure while the image is being taken?
A) 1 foot
B) 2 feet
C) 4 feet
D) as far as possible
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a laser generator, what is found at both ends that allows for the amplification and stimulated emission of laser light?
A) LED lightbulbs
B) magnetic poles
C) mirror reflectors
D) wire filaments
Q2) Google, Yahoo, and Bing are popular:
A) computer processing units
B) Internet service providers
C) Internet search engines
D) word-processing programs
Q3) Which of the following modes or settings of the electrosurgical unit (ESU) would NOT require use of a patient return electrode (ground pad)?
A) bipolar
B) blended
C) coagulation
D) cutting
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8
Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
A)Prions
B)Helminths
C)Spores
D)Prokaryotes
E)Helicobacter pylori
F)Zygomycosis
G)Viruses
H)Clostridium perfringens
I)Flagella
J)Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) Why are large steam sterilizers loaded with space between wrapped items or trays?
A) It ensures that the carts are not over-weighted.
B) It makes it easier to unload when the cycle is complete.
C) It allows adequate circulation and penetration of steam to all surfaces.
D) It allows for air to remain inside the packages to facilitate steam penetration.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which member of the U.S.government makes a federal disaster declaration and mobilizes FEMA?
A) governor
B) president
C) secretary of state
D) surgeon general
Q2) During an anaphylactic reaction, the surgical team must maintain the airway and provide supplemental oxygen or the patient may die of:
A) respiratory failure
B) heart attack
C) hypovolemia
D) stroke
Q3) Injuries associated with an exploded nuclear device include:
A) blast injuries
B) thermal/flash burns
C) retinal injuries
D) all of the above
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vitamin is required for activation of the body's natural clotting mechanism?
A) B
B) C
C) D
D) K
Q2) What is the medical term for normal breathing?
A) apnea
B) bradypnea
C) dyspnea
D) eupnea
Q3) A widely accepted list of safety measures is entitled the Six "__________"_ of Medication Administration.
A) Laws
B) Points
C) Rights
D) Standards
Q4) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which suction tip is designed with multiple rows of perforations to prevent occlusion by the intestines in a laparotomy?
A) Baron
B) Frazier
C) Poole
D) Yankauer
Q2) The thin, compressed sponges used during neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate neural structures are called:
A) Cottonoids
B) Kitners
C) laps
D) Ray-Tecs
Q3) Why must chest tubes be attached to a water-seal drainage system?
A) to keep the pleural cavity humid
B) to add weight to the drainage device to keep it upright
C) to keep the microbial count in the drainage from reentering
D) to keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure for respiration
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12
Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which tissue layer of the abdominal wall provides the greatest strength and support of the wound?
A) skin
B) fascia
C) peritoneum
D) subcutaneous fat
Q2) Which suture technique involves making a knot in the suture outside of the body and then pushing it inside through a cannula?
A) extracorporeal method
B) figure-of-eight stick tie
C) intracorporeal method
D) secondary suture line
Q3) Some multifilament sutures are coated to:
A) provide smooth passage through tissue
B) decrease the absorption rate
C) increase the capillarity
D) prevent knot slippage
Q4) Avitene, Gelfoam, and Surgicel are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
A)Apical
B)Lateral recumbent
C)Auscultation
D)Impervious
E)Perineum
F)Neutral zone
G)Tachypnea
H)Perfusion
I)Depilatory
J)Torsion
Q2) Which component of personal protective equipment (PPE) has shown the ability to decrease disease transmission from needle punctures?
A) double gloving
B) full coverage system
C) lead aprons/shields
D) splash guard mask
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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a Gram stain study, the bacteria that retains the blue coloration following staining, alcohol rinse, and restaining is:
A) gram positive
B) gram negative
C) gram sensitive
D) gram resistant
Q2) B-cells and T-cells are types of:
A) platelets
B) hemoglobin
C) lymphocytes
D) red blood cells
Q3) A type of organism that dies quickly when exposed to air is called:
A) aerophilic
B) anaerobic
C) neoplastic
D) oxidative
Q4) MRI scans require shielding of thyroid and gonads because of ionizing radiation emissions.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Q1) A needle-localization procedure may be performed in radiology for assistance in locating discrete masses in the:
A) breast
B) groin
C) liver
D) pancreas
Q2) Which potentially life-threatening disease or condition can result from untreated thyrotoxicosis?
A) Crohn's disease
B) Grave's disease
C) Hashimoto's disease
D) thyroid storm
Q3) For which surgical procedure would the Buie pile forceps be used?
A) appendectomy
B) breast biopsy
C) cholecystectomy
D) hemorrhoidectomy
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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Q1) Which of the following is a weighted vaginal speculum?
A) Auvard
B) Graves
C) Heaney
D) Sims
Q2) What is a Veress needle used for?
A) amniocentesis
B) epidural anesthesia
C) laparoscopic insufflation
D) suprapubic catheter placement
Q3) Which of the following structures is NOT part of the anatomy of the vulva?
A) cervix
B) clitoris
C) labia
D) mons pubis
Q4) Which of the following is used for creating pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopy?
A) carbon dioxide
B) helium
C) nitrogen
D) oxygen
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Q1) What kind of anesthetic block is used for a vitrectomy procedure?
A) Bier
B) spinal
C) caudal
D) retrobulbar
Q2) Which of the following represents the replacement device for the cataract lens in the eye?
A) IOC
B) IOL
C) IOP
D) IUD
Q3) What is the term for the six muscles that provide movement of the eye?
A) accessory
B) extrinsic
C) intrinsic
D) involuntary
Q4) Donor corneas must be screened for HIV, HBV, and CJD prior to transplant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Q1) Which of the following descriptions and classification of laryngeal cartilage pertains to the epiglottis?
A) paired and hyaline
B) paired and elastic
C) individual and hyaline
D) individual and elastic
Q2) Which of the paranasal sinuses are MOST superior and can be singular or divided?
A) ethmoid
B) frontal
C) maxillary
D) sphenoid
Q3) Baron, Frazier, House, and Rosen are names of which type of instrument?
A) forceps
B) knife
C) pick
D) suction
Q4) The pinna of the ear is the visible external portion that collects sound waves and channels them into the middle and inner ear.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dental procedures require thorough cavity prepping due to possibility of surgical site infections.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What should the surgical technologist do before handing a retractor to the surgeon for use in orbital floor fracture?
A) Bend it to a curved configuration.
B) Lubricate it with mineral oil.
C) Pad it with a Cottonoid.
D) Moisten it with saline.
Q3) Which type of sterile drape is commonly used for oral and maxillofacial procedures?
A) plastic incise
B) thyroid
C) pediatric laparotomy
D) U-drape
Q4) Odontectomy procedures are given a wound classification of Class II.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately how many muscles and their tendons control movement of the wrist, hand, and fingers?
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Q2) Which epidermal stratum is the outermost layer?
A) basale
B) corneum
C) granulosum
D) lucidum
Q3) Cheiloplasty and palatoplasty are corrective procedures for which of the following?
A) breast prolapse
B) cleft lip and palate
C) conjoined fingers
D) drooping and baggy eyelids
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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Q1) What is the medical term for the free fold of skin that covers the glans penis?
A) epididymis
B) prepuce
C) scrotum
D) tunica
Q2) Many hospitals allow use of only sterile gloves to set up the back table for cystoscopy procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is used to ensure patency of the ureters or allow for drainage of urine from the kidneys?
A) Foley catheter
B) suprapubic catheter
C) Jackson-Pratt drain
D) double-J or pigtail stent
Q4) Which self-retaining retractor is used for open suprapubic prostatectomy?
A) Gelpi
B) Judd-Mason
C) Adson-Beckman
D) O'Sullivan-O'Connor
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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone and increase reabsorption of calcium when serum levels are low?
A) estrogen
B) follicle stimulating
C) human growth
D) parathyroid
Q2) Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices?
A) AAMI
B) CDC
C) EPA
D) FDA
Q3) Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion?
A) acromioclavicular
B) coracoclavicular
C) glenohumeral
D) sternoclavicular
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Q1) Where are the cannulae MOST commonly placed for cardiopulmonary bypass procedures?
A) carotid artery and subclavian vein
B) right atrium and ascending aorta
C) right ventricle and descending aorta
D) femoral artery and brachiocephalic vein
Q2) The function accomplished by the cardiopulmonary bypass machine
A)Asystole
B)Electrocardiograph
C)Perfusion
D)Ventricular fibrillation
E)Bradycardia
F)Heart block
G)Echocardiography
H)Ventricular tachycardia
I)Atrial fibrillation
J)Ejection fraction
Q3) The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagnostic study is considered the gold standard for evaluation of vascular disease?
A) angiography
B) CT scan
C) radiography
D) PET scan
Q2) What is the main obstacle of performing angioscopy?
A) light
B) valves
C) strictures
D) clear visibility
Q3) Which of the following tunica is NOT part of the structure of an artery?
A) adventitia
B) media
C) intima
D) vaginalis
Q4) Knowledge of the peripheral vascular system is required of the first assistant, but not of the surgical technologist.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Into which anatomical structure or area is the distal catheter most often inserted in a V-P shunt procedure?
A) peritoneal cavity
B) pleural cavity
C) pulmonary vein
D) pyloric sphincter
Q2) What is the term for a deep groove in the cerebrum that separates the brain into lobes?
A) gyrus
B) fissure
C) sinus
D) sulcus
Q3) Which position is usually used for microdecompression endoscopic diskectomy?
A) lateral
B) lithotomy
C) prone
D) supine
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