Surgical Technology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Surgical Technology is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles and practices involved in the operating room environment. It covers topics such as surgical asepsis, sterilization techniques, patient preparation, instrumentation, and the roles and responsibilities of the surgical technologist within the surgical team. Emphasis is placed on the development of technical skills required for effective assistance during surgical procedures, as well as a thorough understanding of surgical procedures, safety protocols, and ethical considerations. Through a blend of theoretical instruction and practical simulations, students gain the knowledge and competencies necessary to support surgeons and ensure patient safety in various types of surgical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 14th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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30 Chapters
784 Verified Questions
784 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While conducting the preoperative interview with Clair Conners,a patient scheduled for a septoplasty,the perioperative nurse learned that Clair was latex sensitive.Based on this knowledge,the nurse reviewed the pick/preference list and reassembled the surgical case cart setup to reflect this new information and change in care delivery.Which two phases of the nursing process are represented in the nurse's actions?
A) Assessment and planning
B) Assessment and implementation
C) Planning and implementation
D) Nursing diagnosis and intervention
Answer: C
Q2) Perioperative nursing diagnoses and interventions are directed toward,and guided by,the tremendous risks for harm to the patient inherent in surgery and interventional procedures;therefore nursing actions can generally be categorized as:
A) therapeutic/restorative.
B) preventive/protective.
C) caring/comforting.
D) advocating/justifying.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laparoscopic procedures that emergently convert to open procedures place the patient at risk for unintentional retained foreign objects (RFOs).What new and evolving risk reduction strategy could prevent RFOs and frustrating,time-consuming miscount adventures at the end of these procedures?
A) Creating precounted laparotomy sets with only the few necessary instruments
B) Performing radiologic surveillance on all conversion procedures at closure
C) Counting all instruments including a laparotomy set before the laparoscopy
D) Replacing or tagging sponges and laparotomy instruments with RFID chips
Answer: D
Q2) Informed consent is both a requirement and a patient right.The perioperative nurse's responsibility in terms of informed consent is to:
A) obtain verbal consent when the written consent is unavailable.
B) ensure that the consent is in the medical record,correct,signed and witnessed.
C) withhold preoperative medication until the consent is witnessed.
D) review the procedure and expected outcome with the patient.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Infection Prevention and Control in the
Perioperative Setting
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All surgical patients present with the risk for hypothermia from a variety of factors inherent in the surgical experience.Hypothermia has been shown to be a factor that may place the surgical patient at risk for infection and delayed healing.Select the intervention that is an engineered control factor to protect the patient from hypothermia.
A) Surround the patient with a forced air-warming blanket and foil head covering.
B) Set the ambient room temperature between 68° and 73° F and limit exposure.
C) Line the OR bed with a circulating fluid mat and insert a rectal temperature probe.
D) Cover and surround the patient with several warm bath blankets and change them at frequent intervals.
Answer: B
Q2) The mechanism of lethality (microbial death)with steam sterilization is achieved with this event.
A) Time,temperature,and steam pressure
B) Reduced and limited mitosis within the bioburden
C) Saturated vaporization of the microbial cytoplasm
D) Denaturation and coagulation of enzyme proteins
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Anesthesia
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whenever regional anesthesia is used,resuscitative equipment and drugs must be immediately available and the patient monitored for any substantial change in vital signs or untoward reactions.An example of an untoward reaction or risk with regional anesthesia is:
A) temporary numbness distal to the injection.
B) temporary loss of motor function distal to the injection.
C) intravascular injection of the anesthetic agent.
D) diminished pain along nerve pathways.
Q2) Vanessa Cavelle,an experienced CRNA,administered MAC to a 29-year-old female undergoing local scar revision surgery for an old abdominal incision.She titrated midazolam and propofol to dull the patient's level of consciousness.She was alerted by the dropping SpO reading and the patient's loss of chest movement.The patient did not respond to a head tilt-chin lift maneuver.Vanessa's next response to this event is to:
A) alert the surgeon and ventilate the patient's lungs with a self-inflating bag/valve/mask.
B) increase the O to 10 L/min,gently tap the patient's shoulder,and call the patient's name.
C) begin chest compressions.
D) call for the code cart and difficult airway cart.
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Chapter 5: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Number the sequence of steps for positioning a patient in Fowler's position.
a.Slowly raise the upper body section to desired height and angle.
b.Flex the knees as the leg section is lowered.
c.Secure head in the appropriate headrest.
d.Rest arms on patient's lap with a pillow or on armboards.
e.Place a footrest at the bottom of the leg section.
f.Initial position is in appropriate supine for induction and intubation.
Q2) After Mr.Jennings was asleep and intubated,the surgeon requested the patient to be placed in lithotomy position for a sigmoidoscopy before the open procedure.The team of five nonscrubbed persons lifted the patient with the lift sheet,slid the patient down toward the foot of the OR bed,and placed him into position.After the sigmoidoscopy,the perioperative nurse had the team roll the patient to his side for a skin assessment of his back before he was repositioned supine.What injury was the perioperative nurse concerned that she might see?
A) A shearing force injury to the tissue from having been slid into position
B) Skin creases from wrinkled sheets
C) Incontinence from an inadequate bowel prep
D) Side-to-side striations across his back and buttocks from the lifting sheet
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Chapter 6: Sutures, Needles, and Instruments
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dan Clements had a vasectomy in his urologist's office.The small incision was closed with sutures that are synthetic and will "dissolve and fall out" after 2 to 3 weeks.As the procedure ended,he heard the doctor ask the nurse for 5-0:
A) silk.
B) polyglactin.
C) plain gut.
D) chromic gut.
Q2) When creating a vascular or intestinal anastomosis (connecting two tubular structures together)the surgeon will typically suture one half of the anastomosis with one half of the suture and the other half of the anastomosis with the other half of the suture.This technique minimizes the drag and wear on the suture material and needle.The correct name for this type of suture and needle is:
A) controlled release.
B) retention.
C) double-armed.
D) multi-strand cardiovascular.
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Chapter 7: Surgical Modalities
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The design of laparoscopic instruments aims to provide a clamping,cutting,dissecting,electrocoagulating,suturing,or stapling instrument on the tip of a shaft that is long or short enough to reach the target tissue.The hand control on the surgeon's end of the instrument is engineered to provide:
A) ergonomic comfort and control.
B) smooth operation of the lubricated instrument tips to prevent tissue adherence or entrapment.
C) a perception of haptic and tactile sense to prevent crushing or losing tissue.
D) adaptors for monopolar electrosurgery connection and laser fibers.
Q2) Dr.Wheeler's patient,a 72-year-old man with a single early-stage liver tumor,has an implanted automatic internal defibrillator that the anesthesia provider has decided not to disarm for the procedure.What energy-generated dissection device should Dr.Wheeler use to replace the argon beam coagulator?
A) An ultrasonic dissector
B) A monopolar suction-irrigator
C) A monopolar hydrodissector
D) A CO laser with articulating arm and handpiece
Q3) Suction,air,water,and light connection adaptors to energy source
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9
Chapter 8: Wound Healing, Dressings, and Drains
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are many factors that influence surgical wound healing.Some are helpful and some are beyond the scope of the surgical team.Select the response below that reflects a factor with high influence over wound healing and is within the control of the surgical team.
A) Use of a local anesthetic with epinephrine at the incision site
B) Antibiotic sensitivity studies conducted on wound culture results
C) Selection of wound closure materials,dressings,and drains
D) Positive cultures from a chronic wound beyond the patient's incision site
Q2) Samuel Garcia was fitted with a negative-pressure wound therapy system,also called vacuum-assisted closure,after his most recent surgical wound debridement.This device works by (select all that apply):
A) Suctioning lymphatic drainage from the wound and decreasing inflammation
B) Promoting microscopic bleeding and releasing cellular cytoplasm to cleanse the wound
C) Creating mechanical tension on the tissues and pulling wound edges together
D) Causing development of new blood vessels
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Chapter 9: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement below that best reflects the effects of hypothermia in the perianesthesia period.
A) Hypothermia causes physiologic stress and prolongs recovery time,primarily as a result of shivering.
B) Hypothermia has often been shown to cause life-threatening morbidities.
C) Shivering can increase the need for oxygen by 300% to 400%.
D) Hypothermia causes fluid shift from the intracellular space,resulting from vasodilation.
Q2) Laryngospasm is a common but serious complication in the immediate postoperative pediatric tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy patient.What is the ideal immediate and last resort response by the anesthesia provider or perianesthesia nurse in an emerging patient who has been in spasm for over 1 minute,is not responding to positive-pressure ventilation,and is in significant distress?
A) Gentle stimulation and bag-valve mask ventilation with oxygen
B) Suctioning,IV succinylcholine administration,and reintubation
C) Emergency tracheostomy with a cricothyrotomy approach
D) IV bronchodilator administration and nebulized oxygen treatment in the PACU
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Chapter 10: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Single-incision laparoscopic surgery (SILS)and natural orifice endoscopic transluminal surgery (NOTES)are minimal access surgery (MIS)approaches and share many indications,implications,and instrument platforms.The benefits and drawbacks essentially parallel each other;however,there are several unique differences that set each apart and define their application.What is the one question that needs to be answered to determine if SILS should be considered in lieu of NOTES?
A) What is laparoscopic endoscopic single-port surgery (LESS)?
B) Will cost of instrumentation be the demise of MIS?
C) Is the umbilicus a natural orifice?
D) Is the risk of infection too great to use the rectum as a portal for surgery?
Q2) A patient whose neck has been slashed and has a severed lower trachea may also have injury to the:
A) aorta.
B) esophagus.
C) duodenum.
D) bronchial merge.
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Chapter 11: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas, and Spleen
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joanne Grizwald,a 24-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes who is in end-stage kidney failure,is scheduled for a combined kidney-pancreas transplant.She is relatively healthy and at normal weight for her height in spite of her disease process.Her bleeding time and coagulation parameters are within normal limits.The circulating nurse has set up the autotransfusion system,verified Joanne's blood type,and crossmatched blood availability.The scrub person,while organizing the sterile back table,identified several instruments that she will not need.She organizes those instruments on the most distant part of the back table.What instruments is the scrub person unlikely to need during this procedure?
A) Based on Joanne's coagulation status,excess bleeding is not expected to be an issue.
B) Hemostasis will be achieved by the use of microfibrillar collagen agents that do not leave electrosurgical eschar (burned tissue) on the bleeding surfaces,thereby reducing the chance of infection.
C) Any excess bleeding will be removed and returned to the patient through the autotransfusion system.
D) The transplant procedure is an open approach and laparoscopic instruments (the insulated electrosurgical-adapted scissors,graspers,and the endoscopic suction tips) are not needed.
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Chapter 12: Repair of Hernias
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transabdominal preperitoneal patch (TAPP)hernia repair and the totally extraperitoneal patch (TEP)repair differ in the manner in which access is gained to the preperitoneal space.Which of the two provides access to the preperitoneal space without entering the peritoneum?
A) The TEP technique
B) The TAPP technique
C) Both techniques require access into the peritoneal compartment
D) Neither technique enters the peritoneal compartment
Q2) The anterolateral abdominal wall consists of an arrangement of muscles,fascial layers,and muscular aponeuroses lined interiorly by peritoneum and exteriorly by skin.The key landmark of the _ designates the roof of the inguinal canal and the key landmark of the __ designates the floor of the inguinal canal.
A) external oblique aponeurosis;transversalis aponeurosis and fascia
B) lateral rectus abdominis;transversalis aponeurosis and fascia
C) external oblique aponeurosis;Poupart ligament
D) transversalis aponeurosis and fascia;Cooper ligament aponeurosis
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Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angela Wiggins,an experienced perioperative nurse,has recently been hired at the new ambulatory surgery center to lead their endometrial ablation and fibroid embolization program.She has created a patient education booklet with relevant postprocedure care information for patients and caregivers and is developing a training module for the nurses to learn techniques for teaching patients before surgery and before discharge.She is teaching the nurses how to encourage patients and caregivers to reflect on what they have just learned in order to elicit a "teach-back" scenario.Select the reflective statements and questions appropriate for a post endometrial ablation patient,to determine her understanding of her discharge instructions.Select all that apply.
A) "Tell me what you know about vaginal bleeding."
B) "What do you do and who do you call if you notice more than a tablespoon worth of bleeding?"
C) "Do you feel that you are ready to take care of yourself?"
D) "What are your most troubling concerns about going home right now?"
E) "What are the activities that you must avoid for at least 2 weeks?"
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action best reflects the movement of urine from the renal pelvis to the bladder?
A) Normal intra-abdominal positive pressure promotes renal drainage.
B) Slight distention of the renal pelvis initiates a wave of peristaltic contractions.
C) Distention of the proximal ureter facilitates gravity drainage through signaling channels.
D) Urine is propelled into the bladder when adrenal hormones bind with ureteral receptor sites.
Q2) Prostate cancer is the most frequently diagnosed cancer in men and is the leading cause of cancer death in men.Select the triad that best reflects the individual with the highest risk for prostate cancer.
A) 65+ years old,African descent,father had prostate cancer
B) 50+ years old,Pacific Islander descent,brother has prostate cancer
C) 36 years old and Jamaican descent,low-fat diet,no family history
D) 45 years old,African descent,low-fat diet
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16
Chapter 15: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient having a subtotal thyroidectomy for tracheal or esophageal obstruction is best served by a surgical team that recognizes and is prepared for patients who are at risk for difficult intubation.An example of a nursing intervention during the postoperative phase would be:
A) monitor the patient closely for airway difficulty.
B) prevent coughing.
C) support the neck during movement.
D) prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting.
Q2) Total thyroidectomy is the removal of both lobes of the thyroid and all thyroid tissue present.Total thyroidectomy is the desired surgical treatment for patients with:
A) hyperthyroidism with more than two episodes of thyroid storm.
B) thyroid cancer.
C) autoimmune inflammatory thyroid dysfunction.
D) hypothyroidism unresponsive to antithyroid medications.
Q3) The pyramidal lobe of the thyroid is described as:
A) a small lobe often involved in 30% of cases of thyroid dysfunction.
B) a protrusion of an immature thyroglossal duct cyst overgrowth.
C) a thin upward protrusion of thyroid tissue from the isthmus.
D) a vestige of an embryonic thyroid cyst.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Breast Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research and understanding of the immune system,the development of methods to evaluate aspects of the immune response,and ongoing development of monoclonal antibodies are transforming the field of immunotherapy and breast cancer treatment.The ability for a breast cancer to bind with estrogen and progesterone identifies a patient with a hormone-dependent tumor.An alternative therapy for a patent who might not be able to receive trastuzumab (Herceptin)or lapatinib,which targets epidermal growth factor,would be:
A) adriamycin and tamoxifen in postmenopausal women.
B) cancer antibodies made from the patient's own stem cells.
C) nonsteroidal aromatase inhibitors.
D) bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy.
Q2) Identify the marginal boundaries of the breasts.
A) Second to fifth rib horizontally,lateral edge of sternum to mid-clavicular line
B) Second to sixth rib horizontally,mid-sternum to mid-clavicular line
C) Second to sixth rib horizontally,lateral edge of sternum to anterior axillary line
D) Second to fifth rib horizontally,lateral edge of sternum to mid-axillary line
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Chapter 17: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Local anesthesia,or monitored anesthesia care (MAC),is used for most ophthalmic surgery.The local anesthetic regimen,administered by the operative surgeon,is typically a combination of anesthesia delivery methods,or routes.Select the anesthetic plan that is administered by the surgeon before the start of surgery.
A) Subconjunctival block and topical anesthetic eye ointment
B) Topical anesthetic eye drops,subconjunctival infiltration,and retrobulbar block
C) Ganglionic infiltration and periorbital block of the anterior chamber
D) Peribulbar infusion into Tenon's capsule and periorbital skin infiltration
Q2) Patients presenting for ophthalmic surgery may have endured chronic progressive impairment,or recent decrease,in visual acuity.Most patients are admitted through an ambulatory admission area adjacent to the surgical suite.Select an appropriate nursing action(s)when admitting the ophthalmic surgery patient.
A) Fully orient the patient to the physical surroundings.
B) Use detailed descriptions and reinforce them.
C) Approach the patient from the unaffected side to avoid startling the patient.
D) All of these interventions are appropriate for the ophthalmic surgery patient.
Q3) Enucleation
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Chapter 18: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myringotomy is often accompanied by the aspiration of fluid under pressure in the tympanum,and the subsequent placement of small,hollow,pressure equalization tubes.It is indicated for acute otitis media (AOM)in the presence of an exudate that has not responded to antibiotic therapy.If left untreated,what is the main concern for a child with chronic otitis media?
A) Impaired language development
B) Encephalitis
C) Hearing loss
D) Impaired language development and hearing loss
Q2) The nasal cavity is associated with the ear by way of the ,and communicates with the conjunctiva through the __.Select the options that are appropriate to complete the sentence.
A) torus tubarius;canaliculi
B) eustachian tube;nasolacrimal duct
C) nasopharynx;medial caruncle
D) middle ear;lacrimal sac
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Chapter 19: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Invasion of osteoblasts
Q2) Identify the layer of connective tissue that covers all bone.
A) Periosteum
B) Calcium
C) Cartilage
D) Fascia
Q3) In an open anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)repair,an examination under anesthesia (EUA)is performed immediately after induction of anesthesia,when the ligaments are completely lax,to evaluate the severity of the injury.The surgeon then makes a straight midline or slightly medial incision across the knee.Arthroscopic repair causes less patellar pain and decreased disturbance of extensor mechanisms.What preoperative indicators contribute to selecting the surgical approach (open or arthroscopic)of choice?
A) Classification and severity of the tear or capsular instability
B) Surgeon experience and preference
C) Patient history of a prior failed repair or gross knee joint disruption
D) All of the options are contributing factors.
Q4) Layer of elastic,resilient supporting tissue found at the ends of the bones
Q5) Bands of dense connective tissue that hold bone to bone
Q6) Hematoma formation
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brainstem is located in the posterior fossa and forms the floor of the fourth ventricle.It is the site of many ascending and descending fiber tracts that allow for communication among the structures of the brain and between the brain and spinal cord.The brainstem consists of what three structures?
A) Dura,epidura,and subdura
B) Midbrain,pons,and medulla oblongata
C) Mesencephalon,cephalon,and cerebrum
D) Pons,medulla,and foramen magnum
Q2) Brain tumors are either malignant or benign,depending on the cell type.Primary tumors generally do not resemble the carcinomas and sarcomas found elsewhere in the body and rarely metastasize outside the CNS.Both primary and metastatic tumors of the brain and its membranes are included in the term intracranial tumors.What three tumor types are the most frequently seen CNS tumors in adults?
A) Meningioma,oligodendroglioma,and glioblastoma
B) Glioblastoma,meningioma,and astrocytoma
C) Medulloblastoma,meningioma,and neurilemmoma
D) Astrocytoma,hemangioma,and sarcoma
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22
Chapter 21: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The science of plastic and reconstructive surgery,which means to mold or create form and shape,improves appearance and body image through an understanding of:
A) body geometry.
B) the anatomy and biology of tissue.
C) form and function.
D) body image.
Q2) A variety of implantable devices are used in aesthetic and reconstructive plastic surgery procedures.Tracking of these devices is critical to patient safety.Institutions must report any incident of death or serious injury relating to the use of a medical device.What regulatory agency,commission,or act mandates this process when medical devices fail or cause injury?
A) The Joint Commission agency for sentinel events
B) Original Equipment Manufacturer Device Tracking Commission
C) Food and Drug Administration Device Failure and Recall Act
D) Safe Medical Device Act
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23
Chapter 22: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carla Fortunato,a 38-year-old healthy nonsmoking woman with a suspicious lesion on the lateral margin of her right middle lobe,is having a thorascopic lung biopsy and has been selected and prepared for the ambulatory surgery center's fast track recovery and discharge program.The plan is that she will be discharged on postoperative day 2 with a chest tube and portable drainage system.The perioperative nurse has arrived to meet Carla,conduct the preoperative nursing assessment,and begin Carla's discharge education.After asking Carla if she has questions or any concerns,the nurse provides Carla with the important risk reduction strategies based on her procedure,condition,and postoperative expectations.What will be the primary focus of the nurse's teaching?
A) Diet,activity,pain management,and pulmonary hygiene
B) Wound care,coughing and deep breathing,and importance of fluid intake
C) Stripping the chest tube,dressing changes,and home medication administration
D) Pain management,chest tube management,and indications for emergency care
Q2) What is the ideal position for bronchoscopy?
A) Supine
B) Left semilateral
C) Supine with a shoulder roll
D) Semi-Fowler with neck extended
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Karen Masterson,the perioperative nurse circulator,is preparing the OR for a vascular procedure where heparin will be used.She has obtained the heparin from the medication dispensing system and is preparing to mix the heparin in IV saline according to the dosage on the surgeon's preference/pick list.The scrub person,Judy Rothman,also a perioperative nurse,is preparing the sterile back table.What expected and appropriate risk reduction strategies related to the use of heparin would both Karen and Judy perform?
A) Label syringe,medicine cup,and IV saline bag with the drug name,dosage,strength,date,and expiration date.
B) Verify the drug and labels with three qualified individuals including the surgeon.
C) Be aware of sound-alike cautions by not placing the heparin vial next to Hespan.
D) Comply with the 7 rights of medication storage and documentation.
Q2) What drug is used to reverse the effects of heparin?
A) Prostigmine
B) Protonics hydrochloride
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Prothrombin
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What statements regarding vascular clamps are true? Select all that apply.
A) Vascular clamps are designed to partially occlude blood flow.
B) Vascular clamps are designed to totally occlude blood flow.
C) All vascular clamps are designed to hold vessels securely without trauma.
D) All vascular clamps have similar angles,box locks,ring handles,and ratchets.
Q2) A percutaneous method of instituting femoral vein-femoral artery CPB can be used for minimally invasive (or conventional open)procedures and in emergency situations where the environment is not conducive to traditional CPB methods.Select all the areas where percutaneous CPB would be indicated.
A) Renal dialysis unit and postoperative cardiac transplant unit
B) Neonatal intensive care unit and emergency department
C) Cardiac catheterization unit and intensive care unit
D) Battlefield trauma/triage unit
Q3) The blood is oxygenated in the lungs and returns to the left atrium through the pulmonary veins.Where does the blood flow after leaving the left atrium?
A) Through the mitral valve into the left ventricle
B) Through the tricuspid valve into the left ventricle
C) Through the aortic valve into the left ventricle
D) Through the aorta into the systemic circulation
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Pediatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children classified in the early childhood phase or who are preschool age begin to imagine and explore.Their thinking is dominated by perceptions and,often,distorted reasoning.They are magical thinkers.What would be an appropriate intervention for preschool age children?
A) Allow them to play with a saline-filled syringe to decrease their fear of injections.
B) Allow them to play with their own mask and place on their stuffed bunny's face.
C) Tell them a scary story during anesthesia induction.
D) Draw faces on inflated latex gloves and give each glove a name of a surgical team member.
Q2) Vascular access in pediatric patients may be established intraoperatively for short-term (weeks)or long-term (months,years)use.Select all the examples of a long-term (months,weeks)use vascular access catheter.
A) Central venous line
B) Implanted port
C) Peripherally inserted central venous catheter (PICC)
D) Power injection port
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Chapter 26: Geriatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the preoperative assessment and interview with a patient scheduled for a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP),the perioperative nurse notes that the patient has an inguinal hernia.What would be an appropriate statement that the nurse might make to the patient?
A) "I will tell the surgeon so that you can have the hernia repaired at the same time."
B) "Hernias rarely occur in men with prostate disease."
C) "You should consider having your hernia repaired in the near future at the ambulatory center."
D) "You should consider having a laparoscopic hernia repair in the near future."
Q2) Age-related changes cause decreased blood flow to the kidneys with a resultant decrease in nephron function.What condition is created from the cumulative effect of the multiple drugs that the elderly patient will receive during the perioperative phase?
A) Increased chance for adverse reactions and consequential results
B) Polypharmacy psychosis
C) Weakened bladder muscle tone with urinary incontinence
D) Liver toxicity
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Chapter 27: Trauma Surgery
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Q1) If cervical spine precautions were not implemented before arrival at the hospital,the emergency department team initiates them before performing any other procedures on the patient.A trauma team member can stabilize the head and neck,if necessary,until a cervical collar is placed.What event needs to take place before the team removes the cervical collar and continues care?
A) A halo traction apparatus is applied.
B) A cervical radiograph is obtained to rule out injury to the neck.
C) A CT scan with contrast of the upper body is obtained to rule out vascular involvement.
D) A myelogram of the cervical spinal canal is obtained to rule out injury to the spinal cord.
Q2) What special consideration should be made when operating on bariatric trauma patients that could negatively impact their surgical outcome?
A) They may have decreased self-esteem and suffer from societal prejudice.
B) They are at risk for retained foreign bodies related to the size of the abdominal cavity.
C) Several persons will be needed to position the patient.
D) They may not be able to fit into the CT or MRI scanner.
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Chapter 28: Interventional Radiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most interventional radiology procedures are initiated with the Seldinger technique,which employs a guidewire fed through the lumen of a puncture needle inserted into a vessel.This is the essence of the catheter-based intervention used in such fields as interventional radiology and cardiology;it provides a less invasive and safer means of access to vessels.Number the steps of the Seldinger technique in the appropriate order.
a.Threading of catheter over guidewire
b.Placement of needle in lumen of vessel (inner cannula removed)
c.Removal of needle (guidewire remains in place)
d.Removal of guidewire
e.Insertion of needle
f.Insertion of guidewire
Q2) What are the indications for using a power injector during an interventional radiology vascular procedure?
A) To propel contrast agents and also emergency drugs into the arterial system
B) To ensure precise timing and rate of injection of contrast media
C) To provide torque to guide the catheter through stenosed vessels
D) To decrease the procedure and radiation exposure time for the patient
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Chapter 29: Integrated Health Practices:Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) As a result of the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA),the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)can restrict a marketed supplement only if its use has shown the product is unsafe.New supplements no longer subject to premarket safety evaluations by the FDA.Because herbal products are so readily available and have such widespread media attention,many people think that they can safely self-medicate.Why should the public be aware and educated about dietary supplements and potential harmful effects?
A) There are no regulations establishing criteria for purity or manufacturing procedures.
B) Impurities and unknown substances may be present in these products.
C) The potential exists for variability in the potency of different batches of the same botanical product.
D) All of the options are correct assumptions about botanical supplements.
Q2) What therapeutic and healing therapy can the patient use throughout the perioperative experience (e.g.,preoperative,intraoperative,and postoperative phases)?
A) Biofield therapy with transcutaneous electrodes
B) Music therapy with headphones
C) Aromatherapy with saturated cotton balls in a net bag
D) Warmed herbal packs placed on the neck and chest
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Chapter 30: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
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Q1) Latex allergy develops from exposure to natural rubber latex and plant cytosol,used extensively to manufacture medical gloves and other devices,as well as numerous consumer products.Allergic reactions to latex range from skin disease to asthma and anaphylaxis that can result in chronic illness,disability,career loss,hardship,and death.What types of signs and symptoms would be indicative of an allergic contact dermatitis response to contact with natural rubber latex?
A) Pruritus,edema,erythema,and vesicles that develop 6 to 48 hours after exposure
B) Dry,reddened,itchy skin with hives and peeling patches
C) Cracked hands,nausea,vomiting,and perioral numbness and tingling
D) Generalized urticaria,wheezing,dyspnea,and tachycardia
Q2) Which of the following may be a consequence of high-dose or full-body radiation?
A) Radiation poisoning,heart disease,stroke,and death
B) Nausea,vomiting,diarrhea,and weakness
C) Cancer and mental retardation in children of mothers exposed during pregnancy
D) All of the options are possible consequences of high-dose or full-body radiation
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