Surgical Technology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Surgical Technology is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles and practices of assisting in the operative environment. The curriculum covers topics such as sterile technique, surgical instrumentation, patient care before, during, and after surgery, and the roles and responsibilities of the surgical technologist within the surgical team. Through a combination of classroom instruction and hands-on laboratory experiences, students gain knowledge of human anatomy, microbiology, infection control, and various surgical procedures. Emphasis is placed on maintaining aseptic conditions, ensuring patient safety, and supporting surgeons and nurses during operations. Upon completion, students are prepared for professional certification and entry-level positions in surgical and healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
1229 Verified Questions
1229 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Role model
A)Works with orientees and learners according to a prescribed task-oriented lesson plan
B)Has more experience with personnel and the OR's climate; provides insight into the department's social atmosphere
C)Staff member who is emulated and respected for his or her clinical competence
Answer: C
Q2) What is the common goal of a perioperative team?
A)Do not report any surgical mishaps to patients or family members.
B)Keep general anesthesia to a minimum.
C)Complete every surgical procedure in less than 4 hours.
D)Deliver efficient patient care for each procedure.
Answer: D
Q3) Which objective should a perioperative learner strive to attain?
A)Realize that a team approach to surgical procedures cannot always occur.
B)Validate the need for constant patient observation.
C)Maintain the belief that competent behaviors are more vital than humane behaviors.
D)Hands-on experience is the most important means to understanding surgery.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Optimal patient care requires which element?
A)Deterring an admission of fault in sterile technique
B)Anatomic separation
C)Dynamic tension of surgical team members
D)Application of asepsis and sterile technique principles
Answer: D
Q2) Accountability means being responsible for only one's self.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Standards of care are guidelines put in place for all personnel to follow based on recommended practices and scientific research.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Failure of a caregiver to provide accountability is considered negligence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a coping method that may help OR team members when a patient dies?
A)Identify with the loss
B)Identify those responsible for the patient death
C)Reduce the dependence on teamwork to maintain patient safety in a crisis
D)Take ownership for the patient death and review actions with risk management team
Answer: A
Q2) The person who initiates a lawsuit is a defendant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) ____________________ consists of leaving the patient for any reason when the patient's condition is contingent on the presence of the caregiver.
Answer: Abandonment
Abandonment consists of leaving the patient for any reason when the patient's condition is contingent on the presence of the caregiver.If the caregiver leaves the room knowing there is a potential need for care during his or her absence,even under the order of a physician,the caregiver is liable for his or her own actions.
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Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional
Credentialing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Licensure implies
A)a well-trained individual.
B)an enthusiastic employee.
C)a certain amount of appropriate independence in actions.
D)graduation from an accredited program.
Q2) The role of a first assistant includes
A)maintaining visibility of the surgical site.
B)maintaining membership in the local hospital.
C)organization of the back table and Mayo stand.
D)starting the procedure before the surgeon gets there.
Q3) The term anesthetist refers to a qualified RN,anesthesiologist assistant (AA),dentist,or physician who administers anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sterile team may include a perianesthesia nurse.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The circulating nurse's role as the patient's ____________________ and ____________________ is critical and extends throughout the entire perioperative environment.
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) The control of _______________ and ______________ loss is referred to as hemostasis.
Q2) The first assistant usually assists in positioning the patient,surgical site exposure,closing skin incisions and applying dressings.
A)True
B)False
Q3) AORN is the official accrediting body for the surgical technologist.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The RNFA should simultaneously perform as a scrub nurse during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is intraoperative suturing performed?
A)To remove a tissue mass
B)To dissolve a tumor or benign mass
C)Evidence that the procedure was performed as scheduled
D)To stabilize an organ
Q6) Hemostasis is provided by ________,___________,or thermal means.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group conducts hazard surveillance programs and decreases hazardous conditions within the hospital and on hospital grounds?
A)Ethics committee
B)Disaster planning committee
C)Hospital safety committee
D)Continuous performance improvement committee
Q2) The sales representative may never render direct patient care at any time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Basic policies are updates and statements of task-oriented and skill-oriented actions to be taken in the implementation of policies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An advanced practice nurse uses specialized ________________ and _____________ to make decisions relative to direct and indirect patient care in the perioperative environment.
Q5) ________________ thinking is a way to improve the quality of care and help set standards to meet the needs of the facility and patient population.
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chain of evidence incorporates ____________________ of all findings associated with the patient,the suspected ____________________,and the
Q2) One definition of a patient is
A)a healthy person using medical services.
B)an individual recipient of health care services.
C)adults or children who are sick.
D)a person trying to feel better.
Q3) In order for a victim of sexual trauma to regain a sense of control and security,the caregiver must
A)not wear gloves and use quick, brisk moves.
B)create loud noises and speak in loud tones in order to distract the patient.
C)approach the victim with patience and understanding.
D)constantly touch the patient to assure her or him that the hospital is a safe environment.
Q4) In every state it is mandated that a health care worker who suspects child abuse must notify the child welfare authorities.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of shunt is placed when attempting to drain fluid from the ventricles to the right atrium of the heart?
A)Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
B)Ventriculoamniotic shunt
C)Ventriculoatrial shunt
D)Ventriculocoronary shunt
Q2) Anorectal malformation occurs during what weeks of fetal development?
A)13th to 16th weeks
B)4th to 12th weeks
C)3rd to 6th weeks
D)17th to 20th weeks
Q3) Which type of injury is the leading cause of death in children?
A)Head
B)Intestinal
C)Lethal
D)Accidental
Q4) Neonates,infants,and children have a wider average body temperature than adults.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the term geriatric mean?
A)Not independent anymore
B)Over the age of 80
C)Living in a nursing home
D)Older than 65
Q2) Which is one of the three influences that affect the way an individual ages?
A)Type of medication being taken
B)Family status
C)Genetics
D)Retirement age
Q3) Which is an influence that helps shape the prototype of the older adult's place in society?
A)Geographic
B)Physical
C)Social
D)Political
Q4) Self-care deficit is a common nursing diagnosis when assessing the preoperative geriatric surgical patient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what room might a laparoscopic cholecystectomy be performed?
A)Endoscopy room
B)Interventional radiography room
C)Minimally invasive surgery room
D)Cystoscopy room
Q2) Which is one of the three storage areas found within the perioperative area?
A)Contaminated instrument storage
B)Minimally invasive procedure room
C)Sterile supply room
D)Contaminated equipment storage
Q3) It is desirable to have all ORs be the same size. A)True
B)False
Q4) The OR temperature should be maintained within a range of _________________ to___ ° F and _________________to_____% humidity.(Insert numbers only.)
Q5) Fiberoptic cables should not be detached from the instrument. A)True B)False
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Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical Locations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with a documented history of postoperative nausea and vomiting are not likely good candidates for ambulatory surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is an example of an ambulatory surgery center according to the FASA?
A)Office-based center
B)Hospital-affiliated satellite surgery center
C)Hospital-based integrated unit
D)Hospital-based dedicated unit
Q3) Emergency equipment is not kept at the ASC; an outside facility would have to be called to perform CPR.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ambulatory surgery is done only under regional or local anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Use ____________________ patient identifiers when administering drugs or blood,taking blood samples,or providing treatments.
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scrub person and table remain sterile if there is a question of patient stability until the patient is out of the room.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Every patient is considered a potential contaminant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How are solutions or fluids disposed of after a procedure?
A)Dump down the sink.
B)Dump it on the floor and mop it up.
C)Send it in a bucket in the case cart.
D)Solidify the canister with powder, use the closed suction system.
Q4) What item should a member of the sterile team discard and put in the trash before leaving the surgical room?
A)Hair cover
B)Eye protection
C)Scrubs
D)Shoe covers
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14
Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what case might methyl methacrylate be used?
A)Corneal transplant
B)Hip replacement
C)Cholecystectomy
D)Carpal tunnel repair
Q2) OSHA is authorized to enforce its standards and inspect health care facilities for compliance with standards.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is one way to reduce static electricity?
A)Cover patients with wool or warmer synthetic blankets.
B)Keep the drapes away from the anesthesia machine and reservoir bag.
C)Keep the relative humidity in the perioperative environment between 20% and 30%.
D)Turn power equipment on before plugging into an electrical outlet.
Q4) Electrical current applied to a patient's trunk,from where it can follow many paths through the body,is considered a microshock.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the definition of biofilm?
A)An implantable meshlike tissue that helps prevent adhesions in the peritoneum
B)A clear spray used on sterile instruments to keep infection rates low
C)A collection of microorganisms that develops on the surfaces of implanted medical devices
D)A patient-specific picture of organs or body tissues that define a disease process
Q2) What form of hepatitis is a major health care-associated problem transmitted by blood,saliva,semen,and other body fluids?
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis B
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis D
Q3) Which of the following is a common fungal infection transmission route?
A)Urine
B)Coughing
C)Fecal material
D)Spermatic fluid
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the proper way to pass medications to a sterile person at the sterile field?
A)The scrub person uses a syringe and needle to draw out of the bottle held by the circulator.
B)The circulator flips off the cap of the medication bottle and pours the medicine into a cup or basin on the sterile field.
C)The medication is drawn up in a syringe and hypodermic needle by the circulator, the needle is removed, and the drug is dispensed in a cup on the sterile field by the circulator.
D)The medication is drawn up in a syringe by the circulator, the hypodermic needle remains attached, and the drug is dispensed in a cup on the sterile field by the circulator.
Q2) Which three areas of the human body are major areas of microbial shedding?
A)Feet, lips, umbilicus
B)Neck, axillae, perineum
C)Flank, waist, groin
D)Fingertips, ankle, chest
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17
Chapter 16: Appropriate Attire, Surgical Hand Hygiene, and Gowning and Gloving
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sterile vest,when put on correctly,allows the scrubbed person's back to be sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following may be worn into the OR?
A)Pierced ear studs
B)Rings, watches
C)Dangling earrings
D)Necklaces or chains
Q3) Which antimicrobial agent is ototoxic and may cause permanent damage if used in the presence of the cornea?
A)Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
B)Iodophors
C)Triclosan
D)Ethyl alcohol
Q4) What is the purpose of surgical hand and arm cleansing?
A)To sterilize the skin before gloving
B)To remove every microorganism present on the skin
C)To warm hands and arms before entering a cold OR environment
D)To decrease the number of resident microorganisms on the skin to a minimum
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Critical disposable items should not be reprocessed for use in a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is glutaraldehyde used for?
A)Disinfectant for endoscopes and lensed instruments
B)Housekeeping
C)Low-level disinfectant
D)Used on wet instruments for cleaning
Q3) What is the purpose of prerinsing or presoaking instruments after use?
A)To prevent blood and debris from drying on instruments
B)To prevent the instruments from rusting
C)To soften and remove dried blood and debris
D)To eliminate the need for cleaning them before sterilization
Q4) Personal protective equipment must be worn when cleaning instruments to prevent contact with accidental spray from contaminated body fluids and chemical cleaning solutions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ethylene oxide (EO)is a chemical sterilant that does not kill spores.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Like EO sterilization,hydrogen peroxide sterilization requires a lengthy aeration period.
A)True
B)False
Q3) External indicator tape should be placed within an item's package to determine sterility.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a type of chemical sterilizing agent?
A)Steam
B)Microwave
C)Ozone gas
D)Radiation vapor
Q5) Lubricant on any items must be removed before being sterilized with EO gas.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most commonly used instrument to clamp blood vessels?
A)Lahey forceps
B)Tenaculum
C)Hemostat
D)Rongeur
Q2) Which type of tissue forceps are used on delicate tissue?
A)Rat toothed forceps
B)Thumb forceps or smooth pick-ups
C)Babcock forceps
D)Lahey forceps
Q3) What type of suctioning is done using a syringe and needle?
A)Suctioning with a Yankauer
B)Aspiration
C)Autotransfusion
D)Using a Poole suction device
Q4) What is the main purpose of staplers?
A)To staple the nurses paper work
B)Close the end of a hollow or large organ.
C)Hold a cavity open.
D)Create a working space.
21
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Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Harmonic scalpel is a common bipolar electrical energy handpiece used in the OR.What does the working end accommodate?
A)Scissors only
B)Light beam
C)Blade tip or scissors
D)Laser
Q2) Which type of electrosurgery unit is preferred when a patient has an implanted cardiac pacemaker?
A)Bipolar unit
B)Monopolar unit
C)Active electrode unit
D)No unit is to be used with a pacemaker
Q3) Which type of laser is most effective at coagulation?
A)CO2 laser
B)Ho:YAG
C)KTP
D)Nd:YAG
Q4) There is a difference between electrosurgery and electrocautery.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the patient's senses is last lost before unconsciousness from anesthesia is assumed?
A)Taste
B)Sight
C)Hearing
D)Touch
Q2) Herbal or dietary supplements must be asked about and noted on the patient's chart preoperatively.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which topic would be reviewed in a preoperative phone call to a patient?
A)What type of vacation or illness coverage the patient will use when missing work
B)What type of financial coverage the patient will use to pay for the procedure
C)The patient's personal feeling towards the surgeon
D)NPO instructions that the patient must adhere to before surgery
Q4) The family of the surgical patient should be included in preoperative teaching.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Diagnostics, specimens, and Oncologic
Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term diagnosis refers to the art or the act of determining the nature of a patient's disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of hormonal therapy is an option in the treatment of cancer?
A)Antiestrogens
B)Antibiotics
C)Hormonal receptors
D)Endocrine manipulation
Q3) A malignant tumor
A)migrates from tissue to tissue.
B)grows in an organized manner.
C)increases in size slowly.
D)must always be debulked.
Q4) Frozen sections can be placed in formalin until the pathologist can examine the specimen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are sources of drugs derived from?
A)Plant sources
B)Mineral sources
C)Biological sources
D)All of the above
Q2) As long as the circulating nurse verifies the drug with the scrub person as it is being dispensed,it is not necessary for the scrub person to verify the name of the drug with the surgeon as it is handed up for use.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which drug name describes the molecular components of the compound?
A)Official name
B)Chemical name
C)Brand name
D)Trade name
Q4) Herbal supplements are not regulated by the FDA and may cause serious problems if medical and anesthesia providers do not know a patient is taking these products.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a main objective in the maintenance of general anesthesia?
A)Ensure analgesia is constant.
B)Maintain consistent hypovolemia.
C)Ensure correct suture lines.
D)Ensure the patient can hear the surgeon begin the procedure.
Q2) Which drug reverses the action of a muscle relaxant?
A)Succinylcholine
B)Pavulon
C)Prostigmin
D)Nimbex
Q3) The emergency case cart should be near the surgical suite with resuscitative drugs and equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is an advantage of endotracheal administration of general anesthetics?
A)Protects the teeth from trauma
B)Ensures a patent airway
C)No incidence of sore throat
D)Decreased work for anesthesia provider
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Sample Questions
Q1) The paper band on a pack of x-ray detectable laparotomy tapes or sponges should not be broken after they are counted.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is included in the verbal report given to the PACU nurse once the patient reaches the recovery area?
A)Type of insurance the patient has
B)Type of procedure done
C)Where the patient lives
D)Employment status
Q3) Once the initial skin incision has been made,the scalpel must be removed from the field to avoid injuring the patient or a surgical team member.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The temperature of irrigation solution should be between 110° F and 115° F so that the patient's tissues will not be burned.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a method of hair removal done as close as possible to the scheduled time for the surgical procedure?
A)Scissor removal
B)Manual removal
C)Clippers
D)Waxing
Q2) A donut is a ring shaped device used to pad and protect only the head during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Iodophors should be used with caution on persons with a known sensitivity or allergy to iodine or shellfish.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nonradiopaque sponges are used during the skin prep,rather than the counted sponges from the instrument table.
A)True
B)False
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28
Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Capnometry measures end-tidal concentration of carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement about CVP is true?
A)A manometer is used and positioned level to the patient's right atrium.
B)Normal readings are 8 to 12 mm Hg.
C)CVP readings can be taken using a radial artery catheter.
D)Taking a breath can create positive pressure and alter the CVP.
Q3) What sign indicates the pulmonary artery catheter is in the correct location?
A)An audible beep heard on the invasive monitor screen
B)A narrow downstroke followed by a single notch on the upstroke
C)A steep upstroke followed by a dicrotic notch on the downstroke
D)A tachycardic QRS waveform (heart rate 100 bpm or greater)
Q4) Core body temperature refers to the entire body temperature including the interior and body surface.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The stroke volume (SV)is measured to indicate ventricular function.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a component used to classify surgical needles?
A)Color
B)Length
C)Point
D)Neck
Q2) What type of device is used to span an incision?
A)Bumper
B)Bolster
C)Bridge
D)Buttons or beads
Q3) A __________ stitch is one in which each individual stitch is placed,tied,and cut in succession from one suture.
A)horizontal mattress
B)simple interrupted
C)Connell suture
D)continuous running
Q4) After an EEA stapler is used to anastomose two edges of tissue together,a donut-shaped ring is sent to pathology as a specimen.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) All tissues should be handled gently for complete hemostasis during the surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a common cause of adhesion formation?
A)Wrong type of dressing applied
B)Suture material
C)Serosal injury
D)Scar formation
Q3) What type of wound healing is present when the wound is cleaned and debrided,antibiotic therapy is initiated,and a deeper and wider scar results?
A)Second intention
B)First intention
C)Third intention
D)Non-intention
Q4) Which is an external mechanical method of hemostasis used in the OR setting?
A)Sequential compression device (SCD)
B)Sclerotherapy
C)Thrombin
D)Oxytocin
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one purpose of the postoperative follow-up phone call?
A)To assess patient outcomes upon discharge
B)To avoid a pending lawsuit by the patient or family members
C)To improve patient satisfaction scores on future surveys
D)To satisfy insurance company demands for follow-up
Q2) A patient having a surgical procedure performed in a physician's office does not need postoperative care and should be able to leave immediately after it is over.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Time spent in the PACU varies from patient to patient and can change with each patient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is one way a PACU nurse can assess a patient's pain level?
A)Palpating the surgical incision
B)Wait until they are crying
C)Asking the anesthesia provider whether the patient is experiencing pain
D)Using the FACES scale
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32
Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sickle cell anemia is an inherited disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A neurogenic shock involves the loss of tone in the peripheral blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of shock is a result of increased capillary permeability with loss of blood volume into the tissues?
A)Vasogenic shock
B)Neurogenic shock
C)Hypovolemic shock
D)Traumatic shock
Q4) Allogeneic blood is a patient's own blood and requires no typing or crossmatching.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Shock can occur in the OR because of loss of heat and temperature during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which trocar has an exposed tip shaped like a pyramid or cone?
A)Blunt
B)Sharp
C)Shielded
D)Initial
Q2) Fiberoptic lighting is nonglaring and cool inside the patient.This makes it safe to lay the light source on the drapes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Natural Orifice Transluminal Endoscopic Surgery (NOTES)is a newer form of endoscopic surgery in which only two incisions are made on the patient's abdomen to remove an appendix or a gallbladder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The open method of gaining access into the body is by placing a trocar and sheath so that the expansion medium may be placed through the port.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an obvious sign of gallstones or presence of a neoplasm on or near to the gallbladder?
A)Hypertension
B)Conjunctivitis
C)Jaundice
D)Obesity
Q2) For what reason may a subcutaneous mastectomy be performed?
A)Shorter, less painful procedure
B)Removal of the overlying skin and nipple
C)Removal of a noninvasive tumor present under the breast
D)For patients with chronic mastitis
Q3) Which two structures are ligated with hemostatic clips and divided during gallbladder surgery?
A)Common bile duct and hepatic duct
B)Hepatic duct and cystic artery
C)Cystic duct and cystic artery
D)Pancreatic duct and hepatic duct
Q4) Mammography is the only diagnostic technique to diagnose breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
35
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What procedure is frequently performed to remove uterine fibroids?
A)Polypectomy
B)Myomectomy
C)In vitro fertilization
D)Vulvectomy
Q2) Intrauterine thermal balloon ablation is contraindicated for women wishing to have future pregnancies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pelvic endoscopy cases are not considered sterile procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A laparoscopy is the insertion of a scope with the use of carbon dioxide to produce a working space in the abdomen and pelvis.
A)True
B)False
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dilation of spermatic veins
A)Nephrectomy
B)Pyeloplasty
C)Prostatic hypertrophy
D)Phimosis
E)Varicocele
F)Penectomy
G)Orchiectomy
H)Hydrocele
I)Vasovasostomy
Q2) Which is a common postoperative complication after urologic surgery?
A)Joint pain
B)Wound dehiscence
C)Headache
D)Oliguria
Q3) What type of angle of vision is 0 degrees and is helpful in viewing the urethra?
A)Right angle
B)Direct forward
C)Lateral
D)Foroblique
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which procedure is an example of neurolysis?
A)Anterior cruciate ligament repair
B)Arthrodesis
C)Carpal tunnel repair
D)Bunionectomy
Q2) Which type of sterile protective attire is worn by sterile team members in an orthopedic joint replacement procedure?
A)Isolation suits
B)Goggles
C)X-ray gown
D)Long sleeves under scrub top
Q3) Which is a component of a total knee replacement?
A)Femoral head component
B)Tibial stem component
C)Patellar component
D)Humeral head component
Q4) It is acceptable to flash-sterilize a prosthetic implant such as an acetabulum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) An opening in the skull made to expose the brain and its intracranial structures is a A)craniorrhaphy.
B)craniopexy.
C)cranioplasty.
D)craniotomy.
Q2) Which procedure relieves the pain of trigeminal neuralgia,or tic douloureux?
A)A stereotaxy procedure
B)A radiofrequency retrogasserian rhizotomy
C)Stereotactic depth reimplantation
D)Thalamotomy
Q3) A galea is defined as
A)a tough, highly vascular tissue over the cranium.
B)the skin layer over vessels and muscles in the brain.
C)lining of the cranium and spinal cord.
D)the circulating fluid that helps bathe the brain.
Q4) A corpus callosotomy is performed to prevent secondary generalized seizures a patient may have.
A)True
B)False
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of retractor is used in spinal surgery?
A)Bayonet
B)Penfield #4
C)Kerrison
D)Beckman
Q2) For a patient undergoing a lumbar laminectomy,anesthesia induction would be performed in which position?
A)Supine
B)Lateral
C)Prone on a Wilson frame
D)Prone on a Jackson table
Q3) Which vertebrae are considered to carry the heaviest load of the vertebral column?
A)Cervical vertebrae
B)Thoracic vertebrae
C)Sacral vertebrae
D)Lumbar vertebrae
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is a candidate for radial keratotomy?
A)Farsighted individuals
B)Blind individuals
C)Nearsighted individuals
D)Individuals with cataracts
Q2) What extraocular procedure involves removing fat pads and removing extra skinfolds?
A)Ptosis
B)Chalazion removal
C)Blepharoplasty
D)Orbital decompression
Q3) Miotic eye medications are used to constrict the pupil before ophthalmic surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Geriatric patients receiving diuretics can be at risk for which problem?
A)Impaired vision
B)Urinary urgency
C)Blindness
D)Blinking too much
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What necessary environmental controls must be considered when caring for a severe burn patient?
A)Know preexisting medical history
B)Keep skin exposed to air
C)Let family visit to distract them from pain
D)Increase room temperature and practice reverse isolation
Q2) Which is a reason that replantation of amputated parts would be contraindicated?
A)The ischemic part has been kept dry at a cooled temperature.
B)Intact subcutaneous venous circulation is present in the skin bridges.
C)The injury involves severe bruising or a crushing injury.
D)The patient has not received a tetanus shot.
Q3) Which statement would not be included in the plan of care for a patient undergoing a procedure involving a tissue allograft?
A)A dark antiseptic agent, such as Betadine, is used to prep the skin in the sterile field.
B)Hypothermia is to be avoided.
C)The patient is positioned on a gel mattress to prevent pressure sores.
D)Donor and recipient sites are draped separately.
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Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Communication is a major problem for patients with hearing loss.What is an effective means of showing concern?
A)Sign language
B)Smile
C)Touch
D)Ignore them
Q2) Which procedure involves the removal of the fixed footplate?
A)Partial stapedectomy
B)Total stapedectomy
C)Stapedotomy
D)Left stapedectomy
Q3) Which type of bite disorder presents as a receding chin when one or both jaws are more posterior?
A)Retrognathism
B)Prognathism
C)Apertognathism
D)Micrognathism
Q4) Otorhinolaryngology is the surgical treatment of the ear,nose,and throat.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the thymus located?
A)Middle of the esophagus
B)Hilus of the lung
C)Anterior section of the mediastinum
D)Base of the visceral pleura
Q2) Which is a reason for inserting an airway stent?
A)Alternative to endotracheal intubation
B)Palliative care for obstruction of neoplasm
C)To prevent postoperative bleeding
D)To assist with laser use in the thoracic cavity
Q3) Funnel chest
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rapid heartbeat
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q2) Elevated levels of potassium help protect the heart and assist in improved cardiac function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where does the impulse for cardiac contraction originate?
A)Superior vena cava
B)Inferior vena cava
C)Sinoatrial (SA) node
D)Vagus nerve
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a predisposing factor to venous stasis disease?
A)Hyperkalemia
B)Low socioeconomic status
C)Obesity
D)Pulmonary fibrosis
Q2) Prosthetic implant to maintain patency after dilation of vessel
A)Embolectomy
B)Atherectomy
C)Balloon dilation
D)Intraluminal stent
E)Laser angioplasty
F)Thrombolytic therapy
G)Thrombectomy
Q3) Which is one of the three layers of the arterial walls?
A)Semilunar
B)Popliteal
C)Intima
D)Mediastinal
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Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child awaiting a liver transplant requires a liver donated by a child because of patient size and surface area of the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is one of the three types of bone marrow transplants?
A)Synologous
B)Allogeneic
C)Xenologous
D)Isogenic
Q3) Donor is also the recipient of the tissue
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
Q4) During organ procurement,no drugs are given to the patient during the procedure.
A)True
B)False
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