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Surgical Technology Exam Questions - 1684 Verified Questions

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Surgical Technology Exam

Questions

Course Introduction

Surgical Technology is an in-depth course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles, skills, and responsibilities required of surgical technologists in the operating room. This course covers topics such as aseptic techniques, sterilization procedures, surgical instrumentation, preoperative and postoperative patient care, and the setup and maintenance of a sterile field. Students will gain hands-on experience in assisting surgical teams during a variety of procedures, learn about patient safety and infection control, and develop the professional behaviors necessary for effective teamwork in high-pressure healthcare environments.

Recommended Textbook

Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical

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24 Chapters

1684 Verified Questions

1684 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4689

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following symbols on the Association of Surgical Technologists (AST) logo represents the surgical technologist performing various roles in surgery?

A) empty circle

B) empty rectangle

C) black/blue triangle

D) filled rectangle

Answer: C

Q2) A private surgical technologist is usually employed by which of the following?

A) surgeon or physician group

B) ambulatory surgery center

C) instrument sales company

D) traveling staffing agency

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following historical figures developed the first x-ray machine?

A) Celsius

B) Jenner

C) Lister

D) Roentgen

Answer: D

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The legal term that identifies the knowledge and skills required for a profession and describes a health care provider's core accountability, based on education, experience, and credentialing is:

A) professional liability

B) policies and procedures

C) recommended standards of practice

D) scope of practice

Answer: D

Q2) "Captain of the ship" doctrine holds the surgeon accountable for all actions of the operating room team in lawsuits.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) In a common adage, what is the "best medicine" in health care?

A) conscience

B) documentation

C) judgment

D) prevention

Answer: D

Page 4

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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Anointing of the sick is a practice of Muslim tradition and includes facing the patient toward the holy city of Mecca.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) A patient may be considered a candidate for donation after cardiac death (DCD) if his or her heart is predicted to cease functioning within what period of time after removal from mechanical support?

A) immediately

B) 30 minutes

C) 90 minutes

D) 3 hours

Answer: C

Q3) In general, a surgical procedure represents a physical, psychological, social, and spiritual event to the patient.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Special Populations

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70 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The term golden hour refers to reduction of morbidity and mortality of which type of patient population?

A) pregnant patients

B) trauma victims

C) premature neonates

D) organ transplant recipients

Q2) Which physiological response to environmental temperature changes is missing or undeveloped in an infant of less than 6 months of age?

A) fever

B) flushing

C) shivering

D) shock

Q3) Vomiting from preoperative narcotics can predispose patients with diabetes to fluid and electrolyte imbalances resulting in:

A) hypertension

B) hypotension

C) hyperglycemia

D) hypoglycemia

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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) was previously often referred to as:

A) holding

B) isolation

C) outpatient

D) recovery

Q2) All of the following are ways to reduce personnel radiological exposure EXCEPT:

A) amplification

B) distance

C) shielding

D) time

Q3) Which of the following is NOT part of a three-prong plug?

A) active (hot) wire/prong

B) ground pin/prong

C) bipolar wire/prongs

D) inactive (neutral) wire/prong

Q4) Locker rooms, administrative offices, and the departmental main desk are examples of semirestricted areas in the OR suite.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What term is used to describe the transferring of files and documents to a compact disc (CD)?

A) burning

B) etching

C) flashing

D) surfing

Q2) All of the following represent a complete AC electrical circuit EXCEPT:

A) C battery C battery wire flashlight bulb

B) ESU generator bipolar cord one prong of bipolar forceps tissue other prong of bipolar forceps bipolar cord ESU generator

C) positive (hot) wire negative (neutral) wire ground source

D) wall plug ESU generator active electrode pencil tissues patient ground pad ESU generator wall plug

Q3) The patient return electrode for a patient undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy would MOST likely be placed:

A) on the anterior thigh

B) under the buttocks

C) on the anterior left chest

D) around the right upper arm

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Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission

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75 Verified Questions

75 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sterilization process monitors include mechanical, chemical, and biological methods to ensure all parameters were met.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Gravity displacement steam sterilizer cycles are much shorter than prevacuum cycles.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion

A)Prions

B)Helminths

C)Spores

D)Prokaryotes

E)Helicobacter pylori

F)Zygomycosis

G)Viruses

H)Clostridium perfringens

I)Flagella

J)Staphylococcus aureus

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What process does the human body use to achieve natural hemostasis?

A) coagulation

B) compensation

C) transfusion

D) transmission

Q2) How long should a person performing disaster triage take to categorize patients for treatment?

A) 1 minute or less

B) 1-2 minutes

C) 2-5 minutes

D) 5-10 minutes

Q3) DIME triage categories for the "walking wounded" are color coded:?

A) green

B) yellow

C) red

D) black

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Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia

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80 Verified Questions

80 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the term for the portion of the endotracheal tube that is inflated to create a closed airway system?

A) cuff

B) jacket

C) neck

D) sleeve

Q2) What would be the scrubbed surgical technologist's role in the general anesthesia induction phase?

A) applies cricoid pressure for intubation

B) initates the "time-out"

C) maintains absolute quiet

D) suctions oral secretions

Q3) Teratogens fall into which category of medication effects?

A) addiction

B) adverse

C) therapeutic

D) toxic

Q4) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies

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61 Verified Questions

61 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The choice of wound dressing is dependent upon all of the following EXCEPT:

A) location of the incision or wound

B) type and amount of drainage expected

C) ambulatory status of the patient post-op

D) condition of the incision/wound upon closure

Q2) What is the term for the opening in a surgical drape that is placed over the operative site?

A) fenestration

B) orifice

C) slot

D) window

Q3) Which of the following drains works by passive action?

A) Hemovac

B) Jackson-Pratt

C) Penrose

D) Stryker

Q4) Syringes can be made of plastic, glass, metal, rubber, or a combination of any of these.

A)True

B)False

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound

Closure

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88 Verified Questions

88 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of healing occurs in an aseptic wound with good approximation and ideal surgical conditions?

A) first intention

B) second intention

C) third intention

D) fourth intention

Q2) Which of the following is an example of acceptable and safe intraoperative autotransfusion blood collection?

A) blood collected during a major abdominal trauma procedure with small bowel perforation

B) bloody ascites fluid drained from the peritoneal cavity during surgery for ovarian cancer

C) blood collected from sponges into a basin of sterile saline during repair of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm

D) bloody fluid suctioned during liver resection with use of reconstituted topical thrombin spray on oozing bleeders

Q3) Avitene, Gelfoam, and Surgicel are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.

A)True

B)False

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement regarding instrument counts is CORRECT?

A) They should be counted while all still on back table.

B) They are unnecessary if only one tray is opened for use.

C) They are required by state law for every surgical procedure.

D) They have been replaced by routine practice of post-op x-ray to verify no retained instruments.

Q2) Which of the following statements regarding transfer of an awake, mobile patient from stretcher to OR table is INCORRECT?

A) Both table and stretcher must be locked to prevent movement during transfer.

B) One staff member is positioned on table side to receive patient and one on stretcher side to stabilize.

C) Instruct patient to keep the blanket on during transfer, preventing hypothermia and for privacy.

D) The safety strap is secured tightly across patient's waist to prevent possible fall due to narrow OR table.

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14

Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures

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55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Objective, observable evidence or manifestations of a pathological condition

A)Fluoroscopy

B)Rad

C)Pulse oximeter

D)Signs

E)Digital subtraction

F)Palpation

G)Retrograde

H)Urinalysis

I)CAT scan

J)Contrast

Q2) What is another term used for diagnostic isotope scanning?

A) electroencephalography

B) nuclear medicine

C) capnography

D) spirometry

Q3) Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are types of white blood cells.

A)True

B)False

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Page 15

Chapter 14: General Surgery

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80 Verified Questions

80 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Where are the parathyroid glands located in relation to the thyroid?

A) anterior midline

B) posterior midline

C) dorsal, superior and inferior

D) ventral, superior and inferior

Q2) A T-tube or wound drain left in place following laparoscopic cholecystectomy would

MOST likely exit through:

A) a left subcostal stab wound

B) the umbilical port site incision

C) one of the 5 mm right port site incisions

D) the subxiphoid 10 mm port site incision

Q3) Another name for a thyroid tenaculum is a:

A) Braun

B) Jacobs

C) Lahey

D) Schroeder

Q4) The Hasson technique for establishing pneumoperitoneum requires the use of a Verres needle.

A)True

B)False

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery

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80 Verified Questions

80 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the procedure name for the removal of fibroid tumors of the uterus with the preservation of fertility?

A) endometrial ablation

B) myomectomy

C) oophorectomy

D) pelvic exenteration

Q2) Delivery of the placenta is the conclusion of which stage of labor?

A) first

B) second

C) third

D) fourth

Q3) Which procedure involves an en bloc removal of the uterus, bilateral ovaries and fallopian tubes, supporting ligaments, upper third of the vagina, and pelvic lymph nodes?

A) anterior and posterior colporrhaphy

B) bilateral laparoscopic tubal ligation

C) radical hysterectomy

D) suprapubic hysterectomy

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17

Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery

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65 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the name of the structure that is a small depression containing only cones and has the highest visual acuity?

A) ciliary body

B) central fovea

C) choroid coat

D) crystalline lens

Q2) A trephine is used in which ophthalmologic procedure?

A) dacryocystorhinostomy

B) enucleation

C) keratoplasty

D) strabismus correction

Q3) Tetracaine drops are used in ophthalmologic procedures to:

A) fill the posterior cavity to prevent retinal detachment

B) numb the surface of the eye and surrounding structures

C) irrigate the cornea to prevent drying and abrasions

D) flush traumatic laceration tissue to prevent post-op SSI

Q4) Donor corneas must be screened for HIV, HBV, and CJD prior to transplant.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery

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75 Verified Questions

75 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) PE tubes placed during myringotomy procedures must be removed following resolution of otitis media.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Condition of being enlarged due to chronic inflammation; may cause obstruction

A)Morcellatioin

B)Hypertrophy

C)Audiography

D)Oval window

E)Lukens tube

F)Electronystagmography

G)Organs of Corti

H)Hyperextension

I)Choanal atresia

J)Eustachian tube

Q3) The pinna of the ear is the visible external portion that collects sound waves and channels them into the middle and inner ear.

A)True

B)False

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

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50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Thickened ridge of bone that contains the sockets that bear the teeth of the upper and lower jaw

A)Gingiva

B)Enophthalmos

C)Panoramic

D)Pulp

E)Alveolar process

F)Weider

G)Dentin

H)Caldwell

I)Malocclusion

J)Molars

Q2) Dental procedures require thorough cavity prepping due to possibility of surgical site infections.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Odontectomy procedures are given a wound classification of Class II.

A)True

B)False

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery

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80 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Crescent, Benelli, and Benelli-lollipop lifts are techniques used during:

A) mastopexy

B) rhinoplasty

C) rhytidectomy

D) blepharoplasty

Q2) Breast ptosis is surgically corrected by:

A) malar implants

B) mastopexy

C) mentoplasty

D) marsupialization

Q3) For which procedure would the surgical technologist possibly need a second setup for obtaining a costal cartilage graft?

A) cleft lip repair

B) otoplasty for microtia

C) TRAM flap reconstruction

D) fasciectomy for Dupuytren's contracture

Q4) Severed digits should be kept tightly covered and warm to prevent clot formation and necrosis, preventing replantation.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery

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95 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Simple nephrectomy is routinely performed in which position?

A) lateral

B) low-lithotomy

C) prone

D) supine

Q2) Which irrigation or distention fluid would be contraindicated during cystoscopy for fulguration of bladder tumor?

A) glycine

B) saline

C) sorbitol

D) water

Q3) What procedure is performed to remove a calculus lodged in the area of the hilum?

A) cystoscopy

B) orchiectomy

C) pyelolithotomy

D) urethrotomy

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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery

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100 Verified Questions

100 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The proximal end of the radius and C1 on C2 vertebrae are examples of which type of diarthrosis?

A) gliding

B) hinge

C) pivot

D) saddle

Q2) The connections between the large bones of the skull are categorized as which type of joint?

A) amphiarthrosis

B) coxarthrosis

C) diarthrosis

D) synarthrosis

Q3) Which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone?

A) clavicle

B) humerus

C) scapula

D) sternum

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery

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90 Verified Questions

90 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Electrical conduction disorder requiring permanent pacemaker

A)Asystole

B)Electrocardiograph

C)Perfusion

D)Ventricular fibrillation

E)Bradycardia

F)Heart block

G)Echocardiography

H)Ventricular tachycardia

I)Atrial fibrillation

J)Ejection fraction

Q2) What is the medical term for coughing up blood?

A) asthma

B) bronchitis

C) hemoptysis

D) pneumonitis

Q3) The saphenous vein used for coronary artery grafting must be reversed before anastomosis due to the presence of valves in the vein.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery

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55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Suture pledgets are used to bolster anastomosis sites when tissue is friable.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which diagnostic study provides the most detailed information for surgical planning in AAA repair?

A) angiogram

B) aortogram

C) CT scan

D) ultrasound

Q3) Which vascular device is double-lumened for administration of chemotherapy, antibiotic therapy, and IV fluids?

A) Argyle

B) Fogarty

C) Groshong

D) Javid

Q4) What is the name of the frequently used balloon embolectomy catheter?

A) Robinson

B) Groshong

C) Fogarty

D) Foley

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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery

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75 Verified Questions

75 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are countable surgical sponges used in neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate tissues?

A) compressed Gelfoam

B) Cottonoid patties

C) Kittner dissectors

D) Weck-Cel spears

Q2) What is the name of the structure on which the pituitary gland sits?

A) atlas

B) foramen magnum

C) odontoid process

D) sella turcica

Q3) Which of the following is a primary benign tumor that arises from the protective coverings of the brain?

A) astrocytoma

B) ependymoma

C) glioma

D) meningioma

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