Surgical Techniques
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides comprehensive instruction in the fundamental principles and practices of surgical techniques. Students will gain hands-on experience with aseptic procedures, instrument handling, tissue manipulation, suturing methods, and wound management, focusing on both open and minimally invasive approaches. Emphasis is placed on patient safety, operative protocols, and the integration of technology in the operating room. Through lectures, demonstrations, and supervised laboratory sessions, students develop proficiency in essential surgical skills and decision-making required for successful operative outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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24 Chapters
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1684 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an independent, nonprofit national organization that develops standards for and accredits health care organizations in the United States?
A) the Joint Commission
B) U.S.Department of Health and Human Services
C) American National Standards Institute
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Answer: A
Q2) The federal governmental insurance programs under the general heading of CMS include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Medicare Part A
B) Medicare Part B
C) CHAMPUS
D) Medicaid Answer: C
Q3) Surgical technologists may discuss details of their daily experiences as long as they are not in a public place.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following forms of consent is defined by the Joint Commission as "agreement or permission accompanied by full notice about what is being consented to"?
A) general
B) implied
C) informed
D) special
Answer: C
Q2) In a common adage, what is the "best medicine" in health care?
A) conscience
B) documentation
C) judgment
D) prevention
Answer: D
Q3) Errors in chart documentation should be erased to prevent confusion by subsequent caregivers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following levels of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is the pinnacle and can be accomplished only when all other needs are met?
A) esteem
B) love and belonging
C) physiological and safety
D) self-actualization
Answer: D
Q2) Maslow's research produced a hierarchical structure of ___________.
A) administrative authority
B) pathological diseases
C) human progression
D) insurance reimbursement
Answer: C
Q3) In general, a surgical procedure represents a physical, psychological, social, and spiritual event to the patient.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what way can the surgical technologist who is setting up his or her back table and Mayo stand reduce an 18-month-old patient's anxiety prior to induction of anesthesia?
A) Wave to and joke with patient, while maintaining distance from unsterile areas.
B) Break scrub and hold patient down on bed during IV placement.
C) Leave room when patient enters to reduce number of persons in room, returning after anesthesia induction.
D) Perform normal duties of preparation of the sterile field, keeping as quiet as possible for induction.
Q2) During a surgical procedure on a pregnant patient, the surgical technologist in the scrub role may be asked to palpate what area to detect possible contractions?
A) carotid artery
B) gravid uterus
C) radial artery
D) xiphoid process
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6
Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT part of a three-prong plug?
A) active (hot) wire/prong
B) ground pin/prong
C) bipolar wire/prongs
D) inactive (neutral) wire/prong
Q2) Which of the following organizations sets standards for electrical safety, sterilization, and use of medical devices?
A) AAMI
B) ANSI
C) CSPS
D) OSHA
Q3) What is the acronym for the treatment administered to a surgical technologist within 2 hours following a needle stick during a procedure on a patient with HIV?
A) PASS
B) PEP
C) PPE
D) PMMA
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clarity of a computer monitor screen image is its:
A) resignation
B) resistance
C) resolution
D) resonance
Q2) Which type of laser has a wavelength that creates a bright blue-green visible light within a plasma tube?
A) argon
B) CO<sub>2</sub>
C) Ho:YAG
D) Nd:YAG
Q3) Cartesian coordinate geometry uses the system of graphing mathematical functions and moves the robotic manipulators along the x, y, and z axes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient return electrode (ground pad) may be repositioned to another site if the gel is still "sticky."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term means the number of microbes or amount of organic debris on an object at any given time?
A) asepsis
B) bioburden
C) infection
D) sepsis
Q2) Which type of surgical instrument must NEVER be immersed in any type of mechanical decontaminating equipment?
A) powered
B) stainless steel
C) titanium
D) tungsten-carbide
Q3) What is the type of process the ultrasonic cleaner uses to dislodge minute particles of soil and organic debris?
A) cavitation
B) chelation
C) emulsification
D) solubilization
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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Injuries associated with an exploded nuclear device include:
A) blast injuries
B) thermal/flash burns
C) retinal injuries
D) all of the above
Q2) The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) is a division of which governmental group?
A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
B) Food and Drug Administration
C) Department of Health and Human Services
D) Department of Homeland Security
Q3) Clinical death begins? how many minutes after the cessation of heart action and breathing:
A) 4-6
B) 2-4
C) 3-5
D) 1-3
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following naming categories for pharmaceutical drugs would NOT be used in a health care setting?
A) chemical
B) generic
C) street
D) trade
Q2) A bovine-derived enzyme used as a chemical method of hemostasis is:
A) heparin
B) collagen
C) thrombin
D) epinephrine
Q3) Which drug is administered intravenously to treat life-threatening cardiac ventricular arrhythmias?
A) cimetidine
B) diazepam
C) naloxone HCl
D) lidocaine HCl
Q4) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal saline, antibiotic, and Dakin's solution are used to facilitate mechanical debridement in which type of dressing?
A) bolster
B) perineal
C) pressure
D) wet-to-dry
Q2) What is the term for the opening in a surgical drape that is placed over the operative site?
A) fenestration
B) orifice
C) slot
D) window
Q3) Bougie, Heaney, Hegar, and Van Buren are types of:
A) dilators
B) dissectors
C) drains
D) dressings
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12
Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of suture is often used to create a vascular anastomosis?
A) synthetic, absorbable, multifilament on a 3/8 circle cutting needle
B) synthetic, nonabsorbable, multifilament on a 1/2 circle taper needle
C) synthetic, absorbable, monofilament on a Keith straight needle
D) synthetic, nonabsorbable, monofilament with double-armed taper needles
Q2) Approximation is bringing two sides of a wound together closely with sutures, wound zippers, or special adhesives so that the wound can heal from side to side.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A continuous suturing technique that places sutures in the endothelial layer of the skin in short, lateral throws is called a:
A) mattress suture
B) purse-string suture
C) traction suture
D) subcuticular suture
Q4) Avitene, Gelfoam, and Surgicel are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
A)Apical
B)Lateral recumbent
C)Auscultation
D)Impervious
E)Perineum
F)Neutral zone
G)Tachypnea
H)Perfusion
I)Depilatory
J)Torsion
Q2) During the surgical skin prep, areas that are considered contaminated should:
A) not be scrubbed at all
B) need no special attention
C) be scrubbed separately or last
D) be scrubbed vigorously and first
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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Difference of optical density in a radiograph that results from a difference in radiolucency or penetrability
A)Fluoroscopy
B)Rad
C)Pulse oximeter
D)Signs
E)Digital subtraction
F)Palpation
G)Retrograde
H)Urinalysis
I)CAT scan
J)Contrast
Q2) For which of the following diagnoses would a myelogram MOST likely be ordered?
A) kidney infection
B) carpal tunnel syndrome
C) nerve root compression
D) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Q3) Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are types of white blood cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dilation of the submucosal and subcutaneous venous plexus that lines the anal canal is called:
A) anal fissure
B) fistula-in-ano
C) hemorrhoid
D) pilonidal cyst
Q2) What type of hernia protrudes through the transversalis fascia in the area of Hesselbach's triangle?
A) direct
B) femoral
C) indirect
D) umbilical
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a region of the pancreas?
A) body
B) capsule
C) head
D) tail
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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Q1) Which of the following is routinely done first in a basic gynecologic laparoscopy that may require a small separate setup and glove change before proceeding?
A) cervical conization
B) pelvic ultrasonography
C) insertion of uterine manipulator
D) injection of methylene blue into IV
Q2) Bulb syringes are used in obstetrical delivery procedures to:
A) collect cord blood gas specimens
B) collect pelvic washings for cytology
C) suction amniotic fluid from the field
D) suction the mouth and nares of the neonate
Q3) Which of the following procedures would likely be assigned a Class III or Class IV wound and may require aerobic and anaerobic culture tubes?
A) dilation and curettage
B) radical hysterectomy
C) cesarean section delivery
D) marsupialization of Bartholin's cyst
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tetracaine drops are used in ophthalmologic procedures to:
A) fill the posterior cavity to prevent retinal detachment
B) numb the surface of the eye and surrounding structures
C) irrigate the cornea to prevent drying and abrasions
D) flush traumatic laceration tissue to prevent post-op SSI
Q2) Overhead OR spotlights should be placed on highest setting to provide necessary illumination during intraocular procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What kind of anesthetic block is used for a vitrectomy procedure?
A) Bier
B) spinal
C) caudal
D) retrobulbar
Q4) All of the following are methods of intraocular lens insertion EXCEPT:
A) fan-folded through small incision
B) flat, original shape through larger incision
C) folded in half through medium incision
D) rolled up and passed through small tube
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epistaxis is more commonly known as an acute:
A) allergic reaction
B) ear infection
C) nose bleed
D) upper respiratory inflammation
Q2) What is the term for bony overgrowth of the stapes?
A) arteriosclerosis
B) atherosclerosis
C) multiple sclerosis
D) otosclerosis
Q3) In which of the following procedures would the surgical technologist need to have a spreader and a hook ready for use?
A) myringotomy
B) septoplasty
C) tonsillectomy
D) tracheotomy
Q4) A tuning fork is a useful tool during parotidectomy to safely identify branches of the seventh (VII) cranial nerve.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Q1) All of the following are configurations of fixation plates for maxillofacial fracture reduction EXCEPT:
A) H
B) L
C) W
D) Y
Q2) Odontectomy procedures are given a wound classification of Class II.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding arch bars is CORRECT?
A) They are thin, malleable bars with hooks facing up for maxilla and down for mandible.
B) They are thin, malleable bars with hooks facing down for maxilla and up for mandible.
C) They are thick, rigid, semicircle bars with hooks facing up for maxilla and down for mandible.
D) They are thick, rigid, semicircle bars with hooks facing down for maxilla and up for mandible.
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any of the following may be used topically for hemostasis of the STSG donor site
EXCEPT:
A) epinephrine
B) mineral oil
C) phenylephrine
D) thrombin
Q2) Type of drape designed to encase and cover the hair of the head
A)Eschar
B)Heterograft
C)Turban
D)Hypovolemia
E)Stratum
F)Aesthetic
G)Montgomery straps
H)Caliper
I)Denuded
J)Oscillating
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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coiled segment of the spermatic ducts that stores sperm and is attached to the superior surface of the testis
A)Epididymis
B)Balanitis
C)Hyperplasia
D)Palladium
E)Torsion
F)Hypospadias
G)Robotic
H)Geiger counter
I)Chordee
J)Tunica vaginalis
Q2) In which surgical approach would the latissimus dorsi, internal and external oblique muscles be transected for access to the operative site?
A) inguinal oblique
B) suprapubic
C) subcostal flank
D) transverse abdominal
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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed?
A) AAMI
B) facility policies
C) manufacturer
D) OSHA
Q2) Patients in which age group are MOST commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty?
A) neonates
B) school-aged
C) ages 30 to 50
D) over 65 years
Q3) Which of the following describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture?
A) asterisk ( * )
B) back slash ( / )
C) spiral ( S )
D) transverse ( )
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Q1) What is the medical term for visible changes in density on chest x-ray that indicates pulmonary pathology?
A) hemoptysis
B) hilum
C) infiltrate
D) inspiration
Q2) What is the first step in the formation of an atheroma?
A) accumulation of cholesterol and lipids
B) collagen deposition and scar tissue formation
C) growth of new smooth muscle tissue
D) injury to endothelial lining
Q3) Which of the following thoracic procedures would require the patient to be put on cardiopulmonary bypass?
A) pneumonectomy
B) upper lobectomy
C) decortication of the lung
D) pulmonary thromboendarterectomy
Q4) Video-assisted thoracic surgery procedures use carbon dioxide for distention.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arteries that become the femoral arteries as they exit the pelvis
A)Aortic bodies
B)Superior mesenteric
C)Left common carotid
D)Thoracic
E)Vascular clamp
F)Inferior mesenteric
G)Vasa vasorum
H)Abdominal
I)Vena cava
J)External iliac
Q2) Javid and Argyle are examples of which type of device used in select vascular procedures?
A) catheters
B) shunts
C) guidewires
D) peel-away sheaths
Q3) The lumens of veins are larger than the lumens of arteries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
Q2) What is the anatomical area where cerebrospinal fluid circulates over all parts of the central nervous system?
A) circle of Willis
B) epidural space
C) pericranium
D) subarachnoid space
Q3) Papaverine is used in craniotomy for aneurysm clipping to prevent:
A) clotting
B) hemorrhage
C) infection
D) vasospasm
Q4) Herniated nucleus pulposus is a congenital disorder that must be treated surgically in the neonate to prevent quadriplegia.
A)True
B)False
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