

Surgical Procedures Test Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of foundational and advanced surgical procedures used in modern medical practice. It covers preoperative assessment, intraoperative techniques, and postoperative care across a range of surgical specialties. Emphasis is placed on sterile technique, patient safety, instrumentation, wound management, and the integration of multidisciplinary teams in surgical settings. Through lectures, case studies, and practical demonstrations, students develop critical thinking and technical skills required for success in the surgical environment.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
24 Chapters
1684 Verified Questions
1684 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/283

Page 2

Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4689
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following symbols on the Association of Surgical Technologists (AST) logo represents the surgical technologist performing various roles in surgery?
A) empty circle
B) empty rectangle
C) black/blue triangle
D) filled rectangle
Answer: C
Q2) Surgical technologists may discuss details of their daily experiences as long as they are not in a public place.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The terms entry-level, proficient, and expert practitioners are applied to which of the following?
A) accreditation status of surgical technology programs
B) continuing education (CE) credit categories
C) NBSTSA certification titles
D) AST recommended clinical ladder levels
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4690
Sample Questions
Q1) Which governmental agency has authority as outlined in the Safe Medical Device Act?
A) EPA
B) FDA
C) HIPAA
D) OSHA
Answer: B
Q2) The American Hospital Association replaced its "Patient's Bill of Rights" with which of the following?
A) doctrine of personal liability
B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
C) Patient Self-Determination Act
D) Patient Care Partnership
Answer: D
Q3) Living will and durable power of attorney are examples of advance directives in health care.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4691
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following procedures would be surgical treatment for an elderly patient's psychological dissatisfaction with his or her appearance?
A) blepharoplasty and rhytidectomy
B) laparoscopic cholecystectomy
C) transurethral resection of prostate
D) extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy
Answer: A
Q2) Dr Hans Selye defines stress as a "nonspecific response of the body a demand" (2006)
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Cultural and religious values of patients can conflict with the practice of modern medicine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5

Chapter 4: Special Populations
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4692
Sample Questions
Q1) To preserve evidence in a criminal case, what might be done to the patient's hands if the patient does not require surgery?
A) A hand sanitizer is rubbed into the skin of the hands.
B) Bags are placed around the hands and taped in place.
C) Sterile oversized gloves are placed on both hands.
D) A surgical scrub brush and water are used to 2 inches above the elbows.
Q2) Which of the following is the major cause of serious trauma suffered by pediatric patients?
A) bicycle falls
B) birth injuries
C) electrical burns
D) motor vehicle accidents
Q3) What other condition frequently suffered by obese patients and discovered intraoperatively may be treated surgically in conjunction with a bariatric procedure?
A) cholelithiasis
B) degenerative osteoarthritis
C) non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
D) obstructive sleep apnea
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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4693
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the mnemonic used to remember the steps to take in the event of a surgical fire?
A) PASS
B) PMMA
C) RACE
D) RAST
Q2) What is the acronym for the treatment administered to a surgical technologist within 2 hours following a needle stick during a procedure on a patient with HIV?
A) PASS
B) PEP
C) PPE
D) PMMA
Q3) Which characteristic of surgical overhead lights allows the surgeon to differentiate between the colors of arterial and venous blood or subtle color changes in tissues?
A) lightbulbs that give fluorescent light
B) lightbulbs that approximate sunlight
C) adjustable tracks for repositioning lights
D) spot focus with dark center to prevent glaring
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4694
Sample Questions
Q1) Which term describes the right and left (side-to-side) movements of a robotic manipulator that has 3-D capability?
A) axis
B) pitch
C) roll
D) yaw
Q2) What is the term for the object in an electrical circuit (e.g., surgical light or ESU) that receives and can modify the amount of power from the source?
A) conductor
B) field
C) load
D) terminal
Q3) What is the name of the complex robotic operating system created and marketed by Intuitive Surgical?
A) Aesop
B) Columbus
C) da Vinci
D) Magellan
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Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4695
Sample Questions
Q1) The biological indicator (BI) for the steam sterilization method is:
A) DART
B) Bowie-Dick
C) Bacillus atrophaeus
D) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
Q2) What is the advantage of using ethylene oxide gas sterilization?
A) It is the safest method of sterilization.
B) It has the shortest total cycle time.
C) It is the least expensive method.
D) It is safe for heat- and moisture-sensitive items.
Q3) Why are large steam sterilizers loaded with space between wrapped items or trays?
A) It ensures that the carts are not over-weighted.
B) It makes it easier to unload when the cycle is complete.
C) It allows adequate circulation and penetration of steam to all surfaces.
D) It allows for air to remain inside the packages to facilitate steam penetration.
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9

Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4696
Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the primary role of the surgical technologist in an intraoperative cardiac arrest?
A) Break scrub and dial 911.
B) Break scrub and quickly pull an open-heart setup.
C) Perform chest compressions on the patient.
D) Protect the sterile field unless directed otherwise.
Q2) Which of the following accounts for up to 90% of contamination and should be removed as soon as possible after exposure to a radiological disaster?
A) ash
B) clothing
C) dust
D) hair
Q3) The objectives of emergency care and trauma surgery are:
A) to preserve life
B) to prevent deterioration of patient condition
C) to provide necessary care to restore the patient to his/her previous lifestyle
D) all of the above
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Page 10

Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4697
Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of general anesthesia would the risk of aspiration be the greatest?
A) induction
B) maintenance
C) emergence
D) recovery
Q2) Which drug is administered intravenously to treat life-threatening cardiac ventricular arrhythmias?
A) cimetidine
B) diazepam
C) naloxone HCl
D) lidocaine HCl
Q3) The anesthesia provider would assign which physical status classification rating to a patient with severe systemic disease, massive obesity, poorly controlled hypertension, or status postmyocardial infarction?
A) ASA 1
B) ASA 2
C) ASA 3
D) ASA 4
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4698
Sample Questions
Q1) Why must chest tubes be attached to a water-seal drainage system?
A) to keep the pleural cavity humid
B) to add weight to the drainage device to keep it upright
C) to keep the microbial count in the drainage from reentering
D) to keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure for respiration
Q2) What is the name of the paired parts of a hemostat that span between the box lock and the finger rings?
A) jaws
B) ratchets
C) shanks
D) tips
Q3) GI, chest, and airway are types of:
A) tubes
B) drains
C) catheters
D) instruments
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12

Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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88 Verified Questions
88 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4699
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are techniques for eliminating dead space in a wound EXCEPT:
A) careful approximation of tissues
B) electrical nerve stimulation
C) placement of wound drain
D) pressure dressings
Q2) Which blood type is considered the universal recipient?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
Q3) Which wound classification would be assigned to a vaginal hysterectomy with anterior and posterior colporrhaphy?
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
Q4) Avitene, Gelfoam, and Surgicel are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4700
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following descriptions of how to pour liquids into a container on the sterile field is correct?
A) Hold the bottle 6 inches above and over the basin.
B) Hold the bottle 6 inches above but with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.
C) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and over the basin.
D) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.
Q2) The patient undergoing laparotomy should be prepped:
A) in a side-to-side motion from bedside level to bedside level
B) in vertical strokes from superior prep margins to inferior prep margins
C) from the periphery inward toward the incision site in a circular motion
D) from the incision site outward toward the periphery in a circular motion
Q3) What is the temporary position for a female patient for placement of urinary catheter prior to abdominal hysterectomy?
A) frog-legged
B) jackknife
C) low lithotomy
D) semi-Fowler's
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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4701
Sample Questions
Q1) When a vessel cannot be accessed percutaneously for angiography, how else could it be done?
A) auscultation
B) cut-down
C) digital subtraction
D) palpation
Q2) Rapid serial film changers and pressure injectors are used in which diagnostic imaging study?
A) angiogram
B) CT scan
C) echocardiogram
D) MRI scan
Q3) Hemoglobin is measured in grams per deciliter, and hematocrit is measured in percentages.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are types of white blood cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: General Surgery
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4702
Sample Questions
Q1) Being on or affecting the same side of the body
A)Mesentery
B)Strangulated
C)Ipsilateral
D)Lithotripsy
E)Dysphagia
F)Ulcerative colitis
G)Jaundice
H)Rebound pain
I)Aponeurosis
J)Billroth I
Q2) The hepatic and splenic flexures are located proximally and distally in which part of the large intestine?
A) ascending
B) descending
C) sigmoid
D) transverse
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Page 16

Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4703
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are paired ligaments that support the uterus in the lower abdomen and attach it to the pelvis, EXCEPT:
A) broad
B) round
C) cardinal
D) Cooper's
Q2) Clamp, clamp, cut, tie (CCCT) is a way to anticipate routine dissection steps during hysterectomy procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the name of a bivalve speculum frequently found in a vaginal procedure tray?
A) Goelet
B) Graves
C) Heaney
D) Hegar
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4704
Sample Questions
Q1) Type of drape with a rounded fenestration and adhesive backing; used when procedure involves the globe of the eye
A)Diopter
B)Beaver
C)Aperture
D)Canthus
E)Vitrector
F)Split
G)Diplopia
H)Corneal dystrophy
I)Tarsal plate
J)Trabecular meshwork
Q2) Which of the following is a pharmacologic agent that constricts the pupil of the eye?
A) acetylcholine
B) atropine
C) betamethasone
D) viscoelastic
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4705
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for creating a surgical opening into the tympanic membrane?
A) antrostomy
B) myringotomy
C) septoplasty
D) turbinectomy
Q2) In which of the following procedures would the surgical technologist need to have a spreader and a hook ready for use?
A) myringotomy
B) septoplasty
C) tonsillectomy
D) tracheotomy
Q3) Which of the following is all that is necessary for instrument setup for bilateral myringotomy tube (BMT) placement?
A) back table
B) basin set
C) Mayo stand
D) kick bucket
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Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4706
Sample Questions
Q1) Portion of the tooth that contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue
A)Gingiva
B)Enophthalmos
C)Panoramic
D)Pulp
E)Alveolar process
F)Weider
G)Dentin
H)Caldwell
I)Malocclusion
J)Molars
Q2) Strands of wire used to attach arch bars to the upper and lower jaw should be prestretched and cut to which length?
A) 5 cm
B) 10 cm
C) 15 cm
D) 20 cm
Q3) Dental drills are always used to cut bone so that teeth can be extracted whole.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4707
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements describing variations of polydactyly is NOT correct?
A) The condition mainly involves the carpal and metacarpal bones.
B) The digits of the hands or feet may be involved.
C) The fifth finger duplications are the most common.
D) The duplication can be a partial digit or a complete additional digit.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a type of liposuction?
A) electrosurgery
B) laser
C) tumescent
D) ultrasonic
Q3) Which glands are found only in the external genitalia and axillae?
A) apocrine
B) ceruminous
C) merocrine
D) sebaceous
Q4) Plastic and reconstructive surgeries must be done only after an individual has stopped growing, due to potential changes in anatomy of younger patients.
A)True
B)False

21
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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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95 Verified Questions
95 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4708
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is responsible for emptying of the bladder and closure of the bladder orifice?
A) detrusor muscle
B) external sphincter
C) urogenital diaphragm
D) vesical trigone
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a type of pubovaginal or suburethral sling?
A) allograft fascia lata
B) autograft fascia lata
C) polypropylene mesh tape
D) radiopaque vaginal packing
Q3) Diabetes, vascular disorder, nerve damage, and trauma are all possible causes of:
A) epispadias
B) hypospadias
C) impotence
D) prostate cancer
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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4709
Sample Questions
Q1) Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI?
A) impervious apron under gown
B) additional sterile sleeves
C) space suit or body exhaust suits
D) high-efficiency particulate air masks
Q2) Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum?
A) head
B) neck
C) greater trochanter
D) lesser trochanter
Q3) The connections between the large bones of the skull are categorized as which type of joint?
A) amphiarthrosis
B) coxarthrosis
C) diarthrosis
D) synarthrosis
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Page 23

Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4710
Sample Questions
Q1) The drainage and collection device attached to chest tubes relies on a water seal to reestablish negative pressure in the pleural cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the event that a VATS procedure had to be converted to an open procedure, which open case would be performed?
A) coronary artery bypass
B) laparoscopy
C) thoracotomy
D) tracheotomy
Q3) What is the medical term for coughing up blood?
A) asthma
B) bronchitis
C) hemoptysis
D) pneumonitis
Q4) The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria.
A)True
B)False
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4711
Sample Questions
Q1) How far beyond the atherosclerotic lesion should a balloon in angioplasty reach?
A) 1-2 mm
B) 3-5 mm
C) 1-2 cm
D) 3-5 cm
Q2) What is the name of the condition that manifests by deep aching pain in the lower extremity during rest periods?
A) capitation
B) coarctation
C) claudication
D) contraction
Q3) What are the operative mortality rates of patients with ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and shock?
A) 10% to 20%
B) 20% to 40%
C) 50% to 60%
D) > 80%
Q4) The lumens of veins are larger than the lumens of arteries.
A)True
B)False

Page 25
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4712
Sample Questions
Q1) The circle of Willis is a:
A) network of connected arteries at the base of the brain
B) structure of supporting connective tissue for the brain
C) complex neural network that connects the two hemispheres of the brain
D) series of channels and foramina within the cerebrospinal fluid network of the brain
Q2) What is the name of the measuring device used to assess intraventricular pressure?
A) capnometer
B) manometer
C) oximeter
D) tonometer
Q3) Which approach is MOST desirable for treatment of herniated cervical disc with subsequent intervertebral fusion?
A) anterior midline
B) anterior medial
C) posterior midline
D) posterior medial
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