Surgical Procedures
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive overview of common and advanced surgical procedures across various medical specialties. Students will learn about the principles and techniques involved in preoperative preparation, operative protocols, and postoperative care. The curriculum covers sterile techniques, instrumentation, wound management, suturing, and patient safety standards. Through a mix of lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on simulated practices, students gain the foundational knowledge and skills required to assist or perform surgical interventions, while also understanding potential complications and strategies for successful patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Surgical Procedures 1st Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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18 Chapters
356 Verified Questions
356 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Importance of the Surgical Technologist on the Surgical Team
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following personal character traits pertains to one's pledge to recognize and admit mistakes so that corrective action can be taken immediately?
A)Surgical conscience
B)Respect for the team
C)Good manual dexterity
D)Organizational skills
Answer: A
Q2) The Association of Surgical Technologists (AST) was formed in ________________________.
A)1965
B)1970
C)1969
D)1980
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Triangulation is a term used to describe the method used to provide instrument access to the anatomy during abdominal surgery. It is uniquely associated with which surgical incision?
A)Mid-epigastric transverse incision
B)Left paramedian incision
C)Thoracoabdominal incision
D)Laparoscopic port incisions
Answer: D
Q2) Carly Shelmire is a 5-year-old girl with a history of weight loss and stomach upset and pain after eating; she is also small for her age. Her pediatrician suspects celiac disease. Carly has arrived at the pediatric endoscopy unit for a procedure that is less invasive and will also have the benefit of spending the next few hours in the mall across from the hospital with her mom until the procedure is over. What is Carly's scheduled procedure?
A)GI manometry
B)Small bowel enteroscopy
C)Capsule endoscopy
D)Stretta procedure
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas and Spleen
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The head of the pancreas is fixed to the:
A)spleen.
B)duodenum.
C)stomach.
D)biliary tree
Answer: B
Q2) The liver is essential in the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, generating nutrient stores of which substance that supplies energy sources to the brain and body?
A)Carbohydrate glucose substrate
B)Glycogen
C)Serum glucosamine
D)Bile salts
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Repair of Hernias
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the open hernia procedures listed below, which classic hernia procedure is considered, by some surgeons, to not be anatomically correct because the superior transversalis fascia is sutured to the inguinal ligament instead of to the inferior portion of the transversalis fascia or the Cooper ligament?
A)Shouldice repair
B)Bassini repair
C)McVay repair
D)Cooper repair
Q2) The anterolateral abdominal wall consists of an arrangement of muscles, fascial layers, and muscular aponeuroses lined interiorly by peritoneum and exteriorly by skin. The key landmark of the _____________ designates the roof of the inguinal canal and the key landmark of the __________ designates the floor of the inguinal canal.
A)external oblique aponeurosis; transversalis aponeurosis and fascia
B)lateral rectus abdominis; transversalis aponeurosis and fascia
C)external oblique aponeurosis; Poupart ligament
D)transversalis aponeurosis and fascia; Cooper ligament aponeurosis
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Chapter 5: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Matilda Gunderson, a 55-year-old woman with uterine cancer, is scheduled for an open panhysterectomy. She is positioned in low lithotomy with her legs symmetrically arranged in padded cradle stirrups. After the incision is made and primary dissection accomplished, she will be positioned in Trendelenburg position to facilitate exposure of the lower pelvis and displacement of the small bowel from the operative area. Matilda is at risk for compromise and injury related to prolonged Trendelenburg tilt, which promotes:
A)decreased pulmonary compliance and functional residual capacity.
B)increased popliteal congestion and peripheral vascular collapse.
C)shearing force injury from sliding toward the head of the OR bed.
D)avascular ischemic changes to the lower leg and feet from gravitational devascularization.
Q2) An example of perineal glands that secrete mucus is:
A)Skene's glands.
B)Bartholin's glands.
C)perineal glands.
D)labial glands.
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Chapter 6: Genitourinary Surgery
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adrenal glands lie retroperitoneally beneath the diaphragm, capping the medial aspects of the superior pole of each kidney. The adrenal medulla secretes ______________ while the adrenal cortex secretes ____________ and
A)epinephrine; steroids and hormones
B)steroids; adrenaline and hormones
C)epinephrine; pituitary-stimulating hormone and adrenaline
D)pituitary hormones; cortisol and norepinephrine
Q2) The PSA test is a serum lab test for prostate-specific antigen. If the test value is elevated, the patient is at risk for carcinoma of the prostate; a PSA value greater than 10 ng/ml is highly suggestive of prostatic carcinoma. Tissue from a transrectal prostate biopsy provides the cellular information to confirm the diagnosis. The American Urological Association (AUA) prostate cancer staging tool essentially provides what important information about the tissue specimen?
A)Prostate cancer stages of severity
B)Indications for selecting appropriate intervention
C)Prognosis and potential for recovery
D)All of the options define the AUA score system.
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Chapter 7: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism by which the parathyroid glands maintain calcium homeostasis?
A)They secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH), which promotes calcium storage in the intestines.
B)They produce a hormone that, with calcitonin, takes calcium from the bones and promotes calcium absorption by the intestines.
C)They stimulate the pituitary to produce PTH and calcitonin, which elevates serum calcium levels.
D)They secrete hormones that stimulate the production of calcium in the bones and small intestines when serum calcium levels fall below 4.5 mg/dl.
Q2) Substernal or intrathoracic thyroidectomy is indicated for extensions of goiters that are encroaching into the substernal or intrathoracic regions, causing tracheal or esophageal obstruction. Access to the substernal compartment is typically facilitated by:
A)splitting the sternum.
B)using a right mini-thoracotomy approach.
C)using long instruments through a regular thyroid incision.
D)using a mediastinoscopy approach.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Breast Surgery
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of breast cancer surgery is removal of the mass with a margin of normal tissue and a good cosmetic result. The choice of procedure depends on the size and site of the mass, the characteristics of the cells, the stage of the disease, and the patient's choice. Select the statement that best reflects the difference between minimally invasive excisional breast biopsy with stereotactic image-guided location and removal of tissue.
A)The stereotactic biopsy produces a specimen for cytologic study, while the excisional biopsy produces a histologic specimen.
B)The excisional biopsy is performed under direct visualization, while the stereotactic approach is image-guided.
C)The excisional approach requires drain placement, while stereotactic biopsy rarely requires a drain.
D)Stereotactic biopsy is recommended for lesions in the areola, high in the axilla, or chest wall while excisional biopsy is not appropriate for these areas.
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Chapter 9: Ophthalmic Surgery
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cataract is defined as any opacification of the lens. Cataracts may be congenital, posttraumatic, or induced by medications, but are most commonly the result of age-related changes. Which of the following statements about cataracts best describes its presentation or etiology (cause)?
A)A cataract can be compared to a window that is frosted or yellowed.
B)Cataracts can be classified as brittle or pliable, based on collagen matrix fibers in the capsule.
C)Cataracts are an early sign of type 1 diabetes.
D)The cloudiness is caused by clumping of lipoproteins in the lens capsule.
Q2) Sutures used in ophthalmic surgery are very fine and range in size from 4-0 to 10-0. Handling and arming these sutures can be a challenge for the surgical technologist with uncorrected presbyopia. Eye sutures should be handled as little as possible to avoid:
A)weakening and fraying.
B)causing the formation of needle burrs.
C)losing sutures among the drapes or on the floor.
D)reaction and discomfort for the patient.
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Chapter 10: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chain of three small articulated bones extends across the middle ear cavity and conducts vibrations from the tympanic membrane across the middle ear into the oval window and the fluid-filled inner ear. What are the names of those three small articulating bones?
A)Ossicles, incus, and crura
B)Stapes, capitulum, and stirrup
C)Malleus, incus, and stapes
D)Anvil, head, and hammer
Q2) The surgical microscope is often used to provide illumination and magnification for complex procedures to the ear, laryngeal surgery, or reconstructive free flap procedures following neck surgery. A common eyepiece magnification for an otologic microscope is 12.5, and the usual objective (lens) is ______- mm focal length (f). A _______- mm lens is used for laryngeal surgery.
A)250 or 300; 400
B)400; 150
C)150; 400
D)400; 250 or 300
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Surgery
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hematoma formation
Q2) Bone grafting using allografts or autografts may be used to fill cavities after removal of large amounts of bone that might result in instability, or to fill bony defects and to promote the union of fractures at the time of open reduction. Banked bone is available in many shapes of cortical and cancellous tissue. The American Association of Tissue Banks (AATB) accredits and periodically inspects bone-banking programs to ensure that specific standards are followed in the retrieval, processing, storage, and distribution of bone grafts. Bone graft that is sealed in a sterile labeled envelope from a tissue transplant company and stored in a vacuum-sealed freezer, monitored with an alarm, would be considered a(n):
A)reengineered human tissue product.
B)allograft.
C)xenograft.
D)autograft.
Q3) Identify the layer of connective tissue that covers all bone.
A)Periosteum
B)Calcium
C)Cartilage
D)Fascia
Q4) Fibrin network formation
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Neurosurgery
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20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42059
Sample Questions
Q1) The brainstem consists of which three structures?
A)Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
B)Midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata
C)Mesencephalon, diencephalon, and cerebellum
D)Pons, medulla, and foramen magnum
Q2) What is a common congenital neural tube closure defect that may present as a fluid-filled sac in the lumbar region and contains neural elements?
A)Encephalocele
B)Chiari malformation
C)Hydrocephalus
D)Myelomeningocele
Q3) Which of the following is the anatomical bloodless plane that contains loose areolar tissue and permits mobility of the scalp?
A)Subarachnoid space
B)Galea aponeurotica
C)Subgaleal space
D)Diploe table
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Chapter 13: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skin grafting provides an effective way to cover a wound if vascularity is adequate, infection is absent, and hemostasis is achieved. Skin from the donor site is detached from its blood supply and placed in the recipient site. The best description of a successful skin graft outcome is:
A)the skin is a good color match.
B)the recipient site develops a new blood supply from the base of the wound.
C)capillary refill returns within 24 hours.
D)a split-thickness graft is able to regenerate in an area of full-thickness loss.
Q2) Facial fractures are classified according to a system developed by Rene Le Fort in the early 1900s. A fracture that starts at the nasal bones, crosses the frontal process of the maxilla and lacrimal bones, and extends through the orbital floor, infraorbital rim, and lateral maxillary sinus wall is known as a:
A)Le Fort I.
B)Le Fort II.
C)Le Fort III.
D)Le Fort IV.
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Chapter 14: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perioperative team will need to collaborate with the anesthesia provider, since continuous hemodynamic monitoring, oximetry, and ventricular function assessment by transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) are all performed intraoperatively.
Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) may also be required. Select all the procedures from the list below for which these preparations are indicated.
A)Donor harvesting
B)Living-related single-lung transplant
C)Cadaveric single-lung transplant
D)Double-lung transplant
Q2) Pleurodesis is undertaken as a treatment for malignant pleural effusion and for unresolved spontaneous pneumothorax. The endpoint goal of a pleurodesis is to:
A)prevent accumulation of pleuritic secretions.
B)bond the parietal pleura to the lung.
C)achieve permanent pneumothorax.
D)cause adherence of the pleural layers.
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Chapter 15: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What drug is used to reverse the effects of heparin?
A)Prostigmine
B)Protonics hydrochloride
C)Protamine sulfate
D)Prothrombin
Q2) Select the statement that best describes the comparative difference between open aortic aneurysm repair and endovascular aneurysm (EVAR) repair.
A)The open aneurysm surgery approach has a major abdominal incision and increased patient morbidity.
B)In EVAR, the prosthetic endograft or stent-graft is introduced into the aneurysm through a surgically exposed femoral artery.
C)In EVAR, self-expanding or balloon-expandable stents are used rather than sutures.
D)All the options are correct.
Q3) Identify the venous structure that prevents blood backflow.
A)Semilunar intimal folds
B)Coarctation segments
C)Pressure receptors
D)Venules
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17
Chapter 16: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among the treatment options for tricuspid valve disease are suture annuloplasty, ring annuloplasty, and valve replacement with either a biologic or a mechanical prosthesis. Like the mitral valve, the tricuspid annulus is saddle-shaped and techniques to repair the valve should consider this anatomic configuration for optimal repair. Patients with significant tricuspid stenosis, regurgitation, or failed tricuspid (suture or ring) annuloplasty may require insertion of a prosthetic biologic or mechanical valve. Because there are no specific tricuspid prosthetic valves available, what type of prosthetic graft would be created or implanted?
A)An annuloplasty with a felt-pledgetted suture
B)A tricuspid annular permanent dilator
C)A mitral prosthesis
D)An annuloplasty ring
Q2) Select the noninvasive diagnostic test that illustrates heart wall motion and blood flow through the heart and quantifies cardiac function.
A)Radionuclide imaging
B)Cardiac catheterization
C)Echocardiography
D)Cardiac function studies
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Chapter 17: Pediatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The toddler uses symbols and engages in creative play. Toddlers are beginning to develop free will and control over their bodies. Which of the interventions below is age-appropriate for toddlers?
A)Sing songs from your own childhood that the child may be able to learn.
B)Give only simple choices and involve them in actions when possible.
C)Make up a story about their personal comfort item as you give it to their parent to keep.
D)Ask them about their concerns and offer information to decrease their fears.
Q2) Baby Boy Doe is a newborn found outside of the emergency department (ED). He is hypothermic and has several deep lacerations across his back, abdomen, and legs that will require surgical repair. He is transferred to the surgical bay of the ED and prepared for anesthesia induction. What risk reduction strategies are appropriate during the preanesthetic phase to achieve and maintain normothermia?
A)Adjust room temperature to 23° to 24° C (73.4° to 75.2° F).
B)Provide a radiant heat lamp during placement of monitoring lines and induction.
C)Wrap lower extremities in elastic bandages and encase in a plastic bag for newborns.
D)Keep child exposed as much as possible to benefit from the heat lamp.
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Chapter 18: Trauma Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST) may assist with diagnosis in difficult situations. What group of scans is performed and what do they identify?
A)A chest, pelvic, and four abdominal scans; collections of fluid and free air
B)A chest, abdominal, and cervical spine scans; hemorrhage
C)A full body scan; midline shifts
D)A full body CT, MRI, and PET scans; life-threatening and secondary injuries
Q2) What special consideration should be made when assessing a pediatric trauma patient for level of consciousness?
A)Use the modified Glasgow Coma Scale for children.
B)Use the Broslow tape.
C)Stimulate the child gently in case he or she is a victim of shaken baby syndrome.
D)Use the universal Glasgow Coma Scale for all ages.
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