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This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles and practices of surgical procedures and skills. Students will learn the theoretical underpinnings of surgical techniques, aseptic protocols, patient safety, and operating room protocols. Emphasis is placed on the acquisition of hands-on skills, including suturing, instrument handling, wound management, and basic operative maneuvers. Through a combination of lectures, demonstrations, and supervised laboratory practice, students will develop the competence and confidence required to assist in or perform minor surgical interventions, preparing them for further clinical training in the surgical field.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
45 Chapters
1229 Verified Questions
1229 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1285 Page 2
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25509
Sample Questions
Q1) Which objective should a perioperative learner strive to attain?
A)Realize that a team approach to surgical procedures cannot always occur.
B)Validate the need for constant patient observation.
C)Maintain the belief that competent behaviors are more vital than humane behaviors.
D)Hands-on experience is the most important means to understanding surgery.
Answer: B
Q2) Surgical technology programs focus primarily on scrubbing in to prepare and maintain the sterile field and handle instruments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Mentor
A)Works with orientees and learners according to a prescribed task-oriented lesson plan
B)Has more experience with personnel and the OR's climate; provides insight into the department's social atmosphere
C)Staff member who is emulated and respected for his or her clinical competence
Answer: B
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25510
Sample Questions
Q1) A universal checklist provides documentation for each step of care for patients undergoing a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which event is included on Medicare's "No Pay List" and will not be reimbursed?
A)Myocardial infarction
B)Wrong site surgery
C)Documented Alzheimer's
D)Incision and drainage of a chronic hip abscess
Answer: B
Q3) What documentation goes into the patient's chart and becomes part of the permanent record?
A)Specimen results
B)Intraoperative notes only
C)All routine and individualized care
D)Physical changes
Answer: C
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25511
Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ consists of leaving the patient for any reason when the patient's condition is contingent on the presence of the caregiver.
Answer: Abandonment
Abandonment consists of leaving the patient for any reason when the patient's condition is contingent on the presence of the caregiver.If the caregiver leaves the room knowing there is a potential need for care during his or her absence,even under the order of a physician,the caregiver is liable for his or her own actions.
Q2) Negligence is
A)professional misconduct.
B)unreasonable lack of skill.
C)the failure to use care or skills that any caregiver in a similar situation might use.
D)illegal or immoral conduct.
Answer: C
Q3) Assault is an unlawful physical threat to harm another person.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25512
Sample Questions
Q1) The _________ works to promote the best interests of the patient every single minute.
A)perianesthesia team
B)perioperative team
C)scrub person
D)anesthesiologist
Q2) The scrub person
A)does not participate in the surgical "time out."
B)is a member of the nonsterile team.
C)provides hemostasis of the surgical wound.
D)may be a nurse or surgical technologist.
Q3) Directing the activities of all learners is the role of the A)surgeon.
B)first assistant.
C)anesthesiologist.
D)circulating nurse.
Q4) The circulating nurse's role as the patient's ____________________ and ____________________ is critical and extends throughout the entire perioperative environment.
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25513
Sample Questions
Q1) The control of _______________ and ______________ loss is referred to as hemostasis.
Q2) AORN is the official accrediting body for the surgical technologist.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first assistant usually assists in positioning the patient,surgical site exposure,closing skin incisions and applying dressings.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a type of surgical hazard?
A)Biologic
B)Psychological
C)Social
D)Biomedical
Q5) The RNFA should simultaneously perform as a scrub nurse during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Hemostasis is provided by ________,___________,or thermal means.
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25514
Sample Questions
Q1) Which group conducts hazard surveillance programs and decreases hazardous conditions within the hospital and on hospital grounds?
A)Ethics committee
B)Disaster planning committee
C)Hospital safety committee
D)Continuous performance improvement committee
Q2) Which form of communication is effective for patient transfer or hand-off?
A)CPR
B)STEP
C)STEMMI
D)SBAR
Q3) Basic policies are updates and statements of task-oriented and skill-oriented actions to be taken in the implementation of policies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sales representative may never render direct patient care at any time.
A)True
B)False

Page 8
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25515
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is Sister Callista Roy's conceptual model for nursing?
A)Caring
B)Self-care
C)Adaptation
D)Transition
Q2) On what foundations are cancer treatment and prognoses based?
A)Type of cancer and extent of the disease
B)Type of insurance the patient has
C)Type of surgery the patient chooses to have performed
D)Type of cancer-causing agents the patient was exposed to
Q3) At what time of day should diabetic patients be scheduled for surgical procedures?
A)Middle of day
B)Late afternoon
C)Early in the day
D)Last case of the day
Q4) Before administration of anesthetics,a patient may be acutely aware of the surroundings and activities.
A)True
B)False
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25516
Sample Questions
Q1) The resting metabolic rate of an infant is about the same as an adult.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anorectal malformation occurs during what weeks of fetal development?
A)13th to 16th weeks
B)4th to 12th weeks
C)3rd to 6th weeks
D)17th to 20th weeks
Q3) Which condition was mandated by the government and screened in schools at an early age?
A)Osteoporosis
B)Talipes equinovarus
C)Dysplasia
D)Scoliosis
Q4) Which is one of the "rule of tens" in regard to cleft lip repair?
A)Over 10 years in age
B)10% of body fat
C)Less than 10 cm of lip tissue
D)10 pounds in body weight
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25517
Sample Questions
Q1) What chronic inflammatory disease characterized by the fixation or fusion of a vertebral joint can cause age-related postures?
A)Osteoporosis
B)Rheumatoid arthritis
C)Orthostatic hypotension
D)Ankylosing spondylosis
Q2) Which is an influence that helps shape the prototype of the older adult's place in society?
A)Geographic
B)Physical
C)Social
D)Political
Q3) At what temperature can a geriatric patient be at risk for hypothermia?
A)Below 100.5° F
B)Above 94° F
C)Below 96.8° F
D)Above 99.6° F
Q4) A comorbidity is the existence of two or more diseases in one individual.
A)True
B)False

Page 11
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25518
Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to prop OR doors open during or in between surgical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of filter is used in the OR setting that eliminates almost all dust particles?
A)HEPA
B)NIOSH
C)EPA
D)ACH
Q3) What is the recommended ratio of fresh air exchanges to recirculated air per hour in Class A ORs?
A)5 air exchanges with 1 exchange of outside air
B)10 air exchanges with 2 exchanges of outside air
C)15 air exchanges per hour with 3 exchanges of outside air
D)25 air exchanges with 5 exchanges of outside air
Q4) Fiberoptic cables should not be detached from the instrument.
A)True
B)False
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25519
Sample Questions
Q1) Depending on how the patient feels in PACU,he or she may drive home after a general anesthetic agent has been given.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ASCs may take emergency patients and usually employ more than 50 employees.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patients with a documented history of postoperative nausea and vomiting are not likely good candidates for ambulatory surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Federated Ambulatory Surgery Association (FASA)states that a true ASC is _______ in services and not _________ on a main hospital.
A)independent; dependent
B)somewhat dependent; dependent
C)lacking; independent
D)dependent; relying
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25520
Sample Questions
Q1) Remove gloves first before taking off the gown,so as not to contaminate the front of the gown with dirty gloves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The scrub person may remove the mask or eyewear after stepping far enough away from the patient and sterile field at the end of a case.
A)True B)False
Q3) Before the first procedure of the day,what does the scrub person or circulator need to damp-dust in the OR before bringing supplies in for the first case of the day?
A)OR overhead lights and furniture
B)OR scrub sinks
C)Sterilizer interior wall surface
D)Air filter grill cover
Q4) Knife blades should be removed using a heavy hemostat. A)True B)False
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25521
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a protective equipment item worn while fluoroscopy is being used in the OR?
A)Exam gloves
B)Surgical scrub top
C)Fluid-proof shield
D)Lead apron with thyroid collar
Q2) What equipment in the OR can help decrease the amount of surgical plume during a procedure?
A)Wet laparotomy sponges
B)Fans in the OR to circulate the air
C)Smoke evacuator
D)Increased number of air exchanges within the operating room
Q3) Which group of people is more prone to a latex allergy?
A)Children with spina bifida
B)Food service workers
C)People with allergy to shellfish
D)People allergic to poison ivy or dust
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25522
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one example of an infection resistant to antibiotic therapy?
A)MRSA
B)Helicobacter pylori
C)Tetracycline
D)Rhinitis
Q2) Which is a recommendation for caring for a surgical patient with TB?
A)Use reusable anesthesia equipment as often as possible.
B)Operate on these patients as soon as possible to decrease the spread of the secretions.
C)Use respiratory isolation precautions for those patients with a positive TB sputum culture.
D)Keep these patients in an isolation room with positive pressure ventilation.
Q3) Which conditions may be indicative of a systemic infection?
A)Temp = 37.5° C, heart rate = 76
B)Temp = 38.5° C, respiratory rate = 26 to 30
C)White blood cell count = 5000, heart rate = 90
D)Temp = 36.5° C, respiratory rate = 18,
Q4) Bacteria are transmitted only through insect bites.
A)True
B)False
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25523
Sample Questions
Q1) If a sterile package wrapped in an absorbent material barrier becomes wet or damp,what should you do?
A)Wipe it off, and then open it when the outer package is completely dry.
B)Use it as is because it was sterilized at one time.
C)Do not use because of the moisture that may have seeped into the package and contaminated it.
D)If it was sterilized less than 2 weeks ago, it is acceptable to use it.
Q2) Hair is considered a gross contaminant and a major source of staphylococci.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which three areas of the human body are major areas of microbial shedding?
A)Feet, lips, umbilicus
B)Neck, axillae, perineum
C)Flank, waist, groin
D)Fingertips, ankle, chest
Q4) When scrubbed in,it is never acceptable to fold one's hands under one's arms and tuck them in the axillary region.
A)True
B)False
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25524
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct method of open gloving?
A)Open the gloves and just put them on.
B)Grasp the inside cuffs of both gloves when putting them on.
C)Use the skin-to-skin, glove-to-glove technique.
D)Ensure no bare skin is exposed.
Q2) There is a recommended technique for the scrub person to gown and glove one's self.
A)True B)False
Q3) When using a brushless/waterless method to cleanse the hands and arms,personnel should wash their hands before applying the antiseptic solution. A)True B)False
Q4) The purpose of wearing OR attire is to maintain uniformity among the operative team.
A)True B)False
Q5) It is acceptable to use a closed gloving technique during a surgical procedure. A)True B)False
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25525
Sample Questions
Q1) Which disinfectant is safe to use for housekeeping purposes?
A)Formaldehyde
B)Alcohol and chlorine compounds
C)Glutaraldehyde
D)Ethylene oxide
Q2) Pasteurization is a commonly used method to sterilize critical and surgical instrumentation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An ultrasonic cleaner sterilizes the instruments placed in it similar to a washer-sterilizer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is glutaraldehyde used for?
A)Disinfectant for endoscopes and lensed instruments
B)Housekeeping
C)Low-level disinfectant
D)Used on wet instruments for cleaning
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25526
Sample Questions
Q1) Ethylene oxide (EO)is a chemical sterilant that does not kill spores.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is acceptable to open sterile supplies into a rigid closed container because the four sides are sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is a type of chemical sterilizing agent?
A)Steam
B)Microwave
C)Ozone gas
D)Radiation vapor
Q4) How does Sterrad sterilization work?
A)Items don't need to be thoroughly rinsed before use.
B)They have low volatility.
C)It works by a strong vacuum.
D)Aeration is needed.
Q5) Lubricant on any items must be removed before being sterilized with EO gas.
A)True
B)False
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25527
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of tissue forceps are used on delicate tissue?
A)Rat toothed forceps
B)Thumb forceps or smooth pick-ups
C)Babcock forceps
D)Lahey forceps
Q2) Which instrument can be used to examine a cavity's interior?
A)Yankauer
B)Speculum
C)Tungsten needle holder
D)Bayonet forceps
Q3) Which is a responsibility of the circulating nurse before the start of a procedure?
A)Drape the Mayo stand and back table
B)Inspect sterile instruments for imperfections and condition
C)Count instruments
D)Assemble the scalpel blade in the proper handle
Q4) A number 10,11,or 15 blade is the most commonly used blade to make initial skin incisions.
A)True
B)False
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25528
Sample Questions
Q1) There is a difference between electrosurgery and electrocautery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What item should be on the sterile field while an ESU is being used during a procedure?
A)Dry sponges
B)A full basin of saline to immerse the ESU between uses
C)A suction evacuator device
D)Monopolar ESU
Q3) Only the operator of the laser must wear safety eyewear during the surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Harmonic scalpel is a common bipolar electrical energy handpiece used in the OR.What does the working end accommodate?
A)Scissors only
B)Light beam
C)Blade tip or scissors
D)Laser
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25529
Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent an incorrect surgical procedure on a patient or an error in medication.A "time out" takes place before incision.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the patient's senses is last lost before unconsciousness from anesthesia is assumed?
A)Taste
B)Sight
C)Hearing
D)Touch
Q3) Which tip should be kept in mind when interviewing a patient?
A)Use direct questions and ask for one-word answers to keep the interview brief.
B)Use technical jargon to describe the procedure so as not to confuse the patient.
C)Prohibit family members' presence during the interview because their presence would invade the privacy of the patient.
D)Put the patient at ease during the interview.
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25530
Sample Questions
Q1) Because MRI uses a large electromagnet,metallic devices are allowed into the MRI machine as long as they are stainless steel.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a potential complication of a long-term catheter?
A)Spread of cancer cells
B)Loss of bladder control
C)Thrombosis
D)Loss of vascular elasticity
Q3) What type of radiologic procedure is used to study a joint after the injection of gas or contrast into it?
A)Ventriculography
B)Computed tomography
C)Arthrography
D)Ultrasonography
Q4) ____________ may contribute to the formation of cancerous tumors.
A)Holistic medical care
B)Radiation
C)Endoscopy
D)Excessive protein intake
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25531
Sample Questions
Q1) What items on the sterile field need to be labeled with a drug's name,strength,and amount once it is received on the field?
A)The drug's container and syringe
B)The needle holder
C)The retractor used before injecting the drug
D)The hypodermic needle used to inject the drug
Q2) When dispensing ointment from a multidose pack,the tube should be squeezed to dispense 1/2 inch of ointment in the trash before applying a portion to the sterile field.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which phase of clinical trials is performed on 100 to 300 people with an actual disease process for which the drug is the proposed treatment for 2 years?
A)Phase I
B)Phase II
C)Phase III
D)Phase IV
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25532
Sample Questions
Q1) The emergency case cart should be near the surgical suite with resuscitative drugs and equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The patient decides which type of anesthesia they prefer to have.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What position should a patient be in when receiving spinal anesthesia?
A)Supine
B)Prone
C)Lithotomy
D)Lateral
Q4) Which local anesthetic is potent and probably the most commonly used?
A)Lidocaine
B)Cocaine
C)Marcaine
D)Percaine
Q5) Benzodiazepines are a form of sedative.
A)True
B)False
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25533
Sample Questions
Q1) Where is an optimal location to place the dispersive electrode pad for use with an ESU?
A)Over scar tissue
B)Over a hairy area
C)Over a large muscle mass
D)Over a bony prominence
Q2) When does the "timeout" occur during a surgical procedure?
A)After the incision has been made
B)While the patient is being intubated
C)Before the incision is made with the surgeon present in the room
D)When the patient is in PACU
Q3) When is the baseline count done?
A)As the tray is being assembled
B)During the setup before the procedure
C)During the procedure
D)When the incision is being closed
Q4) When draping the patient,it is acceptable to hand the surgeon hand towels and clips over the patient.
A)True
B)False
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25534
Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient is in the lateral position,what positioning aid is used to prevent pressure on the bony prominences,blood vessels,and nerves?
A)IV bag
B)Sand bags
C)Pillow
D)Antiembolic stocking
Q2) Who has joint responsibility for placing the patient in the correct surgical position?
A)Circulator, surgeon, and anesthesia provider
B)Circulator and scrub person
C)Surgeon and anesthesia provider
D)Circulating nurse and first assistant
Q3) The umbilicus is considered a contaminated area and should be cleaned first before the main incisional site.
A)True
B)False
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25535
Sample Questions
Q1) Establishing a patient's preoperative baseline is very important because it can alert the caregiver to any physiologic changes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement about CVP is true?
A)A manometer is used and positioned level to the patient's right atrium.
B)Normal readings are 8 to 12 mm Hg.
C)CVP readings can be taken using a radial artery catheter.
D)Taking a breath can create positive pressure and alter the CVP.
Q3) Which is an indication for using pulmonary artery monitoring?
A)Staph infection
B)Melanoma
C)Renal failure
D)Diabetes mellitus
Q4) Which is a contraindication to proceeding with intracranial pressure (ICP)monitoring?
A)Diabetes mellitus
B)Hypertension
C)Anticoagulation therapy
D)Increased cerebral spinal fluid production
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25536
Sample Questions
Q1) After an EEA stapler is used to anastomose two edges of tissue together,a donut-shaped ring is sent to pathology as a specimen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a handling consideration when working with surgical gut and collagen sutures?
A)Before use, allow the alcohol in the packet to evaporate.
B)Pull the suture straight before handing it up on a needle holder.
C)Soak suture in saline before use.
D)Avoid spilling the fluid within the suture packet onto the sterile field.
Q3) Which layer of the epidermis creates cells that reproduce and multiply to form new epidermal layers?
A)Stratum corneum
B)Stratum lucidum
C)Stratum granulosum
D)Stratum spinosum
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29 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25537
Sample Questions
Q1) An elevated leukocyte level (white blood cell count)indicates the presence of infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a practice associated with the insertion of drains during a surgical procedure?
A)Keep the end of the drain sterile until connected to the drainage tubing.
B)Keep only the drain and the top half of the tubing sterile.
C)Wrap tape around tubing connections to secure them.
D)Dress the drain site together with the incision site.
Q3) Radiopaque sponges are not to be used as part of the dressing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a condition that may delay wound healing?
A)Gastritis
B)Otitis media
C)Obese patient
D)Sebaceous cyst
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Sample Questions
Q1) When does the postoperative phase begin?
A)As soon as the surgery is over
B)When report is given
C)When the patient is admitted to the postoperative area
D)When the patient is home
Q2) Time spent in the PACU varies from patient to patient and can change with each patient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The main focus of the PACU nurse is on
A)discharge.
B)all physiologic processes.
C)circulation.
D)documentation.
Q4) What is one purpose of the postoperative follow-up phone call?
A)To assess patient outcomes upon discharge
B)To avoid a pending lawsuit by the patient or family members
C)To improve patient satisfaction scores on future surveys
D)To satisfy insurance company demands for follow-up
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25539
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an intraoperative factor that can increase a patient's risk of developing a respiratory complication?
A)Type of preoperative medication
B)Blood type
C)ASA classification
D)Braden score
Q2) Which is a cause or trigger of malignant hyperthermia (MH)?
A)Excessive heat in the OR suite
B)Nondepolarizing muscle relaxants
C)Depolarizing skeletal muscle relaxants
D)Unexplained preoperative fever
Q3) Which is a symptom of cardiac arrest?
A)Tachycardia
B)Reactive pupils
C)Warm skin
D)Absence of bleeding in surgical field
Q4) Shock can occur in the OR because of loss of heat and temperature during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Fiberoptic lighting is nonglaring and cool inside the patient.This makes it safe to lay the light source on the drapes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After an endoscopic procedure,it is acceptable to evacuate the CO into the room air because the OR staff are wearing masks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Incisions of 5 mm made in adults for endoscopic procedures do not need to be sutured closed because they are so small.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When using a robotic system to perform a surgical procedure,the surgeon is required to give the robot commands to activate its actions.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An anastomosis is a surgically created opening in an organ that forms an exit from the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A/an __________ amputation is performed at the lower third of the thigh.
Q3) What open procedure involves creating a McBurney incision?
A)Femoral hernia repair
B)Appendectomy
C)Left upper lobe resection
D)Modified mastectomy
Q4) Which is the most common site for a pancreatic tumor?
A)Fundus of pancreas
B)Head of pancreas
C)Islets of Langerhans
D)Acini
Q5) Zenker's diverticula are pockets or pouches formed at the distal end of the esophagus.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What type of incision is used in cases where the fetus is in transverse presentation?
A)Low transverse
B)Low vertical midline
C)Classic uterine
D)Clark's low line
Q2) A cyst located on an ovary is usually removed to prevent further damage or transformation into a symptomatic condition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What term means "bleeding in between menstrual periods in a premenopausal woman?"
A)Menstruation
B)Menorrhagia
C)Menometrorrhagia
D)Menarche
Q4) The perineum forms the base of the pelvic floor and helps support the posterior vaginal wall.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The sizes of urologic endoscopes are measured in what scale?
A)French
B)Gauge
C)Inches
D)Yards
Q2) What size is the usual adult cystoscope?
A)25 Fr
B)29 Fr
C)21 Fr
D)70 Fr
Q3) Which patient position is commonly used when the kidney is exposed posteriorly?
A)High lithotomy
B)Supine
C)Lateral
D)Recumbent
Q4) What type of procedure involves the removal of staghorn renal calculus?
A)Percutaneous chemolysis
B)Percutaneous nephrostolithotomy
C)Ultrasonic lithotripsy
D)Nephrolithotomy or pyelolithotomy
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Q1) What material cushions the bones and is smooth?
A)Muscles
B)Discs
C)Ligaments
D)Cartilage
Q2) Which is a possible postoperative complication after orthopedic surgery?
A)Pain
B)Hypertension
C)Fat embolism
D)Hypocapnia
Q3) Which substance is used in orthopedic procedures to provide hemostasis in bone?
A)Mineral oil
B)Thrombin and gelfoam
C)Bone wax
D)Lactated Ringer's
Q4) What fibrous membrane covers bones?
A)Cortex
B)Epiphysis
C)Periosteum
D)Haversian canals
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Q1) Which statement is true regarding intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A)Increased ICP allows increased cerebral cortex perfusion.
B)A normal adult ICP reading is from 5 to 8 mm Hg.
C)Manual blood pressure readings determine accurate ICP readings.
D)A ventricular catheter is the most accurate method of monitoring ICP.
Q2) What procedure is performed to suture a divided nerve?
A)Neurolysis
B)Neurectomy
C)Neurexeresis
D)Neurorrhaphy
Q3) Which is a reason for performing a thalamotomy?
A)To increase vision
B)To control hyperthermia
C)To relieve seizure activity
D)To repair a neural defect
Q4) Which is a measure taken during a craniotomy to decrease blood loss?
A)Hyperthermia
B)Lithotomy position
C)Neuroradiology
D)Controlled hypotension
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Q1) For a patient undergoing a lumbar laminectomy,anesthesia induction would be performed in which position?
A)Supine
B)Lateral
C)Prone on a Wilson frame
D)Prone on a Jackson table
Q2) What type of procedure removes a herniated disc in order to relieve pressure on the spinal nerve root?
A)Microdiscectomy
B)Kyphoplasty
C)Laminectomy
D)Thoracic epidural
Q3) Which type of diagnostic tool is most effective at diagnosing spinal injuries?
A)Radiograph
B)PET scan
C)Ultrasound
D)MRI
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Q1) Which is a device used to estimate intraocular pressure (IOP)?
A)A corneal trephine
B)A Geissen eye ruler
C)An air-puff device
D)A phacoemulsifier to measure fluid pressure
Q2) What cleansing product do ophthalmologists recommend to patients with inflamed eyelids?
A)Dish soap
B)Alcohol
C)Antibiotic ointment
D)Diluted baby shampoo
Q3) LASIK (laser-assisted in-situ keratomileusis)reshapes the corneal surface in order to remove scars or other irregularities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Miotic eye medications are used to constrict the pupil before ophthalmic surgery.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The rule of sevens chart is used to estimate burn injury in the adult.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What process increases the surface of the dermal-epidermal layer to create a skin flap?
A)Rotational flap
B)Tissue expansion with a tissue expander
C)Subcutaneous flap
D)Arterialized flap
Q3) Which type of graft remains attached at one or both ends of the donor site during its transfer to the recipient site?
A)Free graft
B)Free flap
C)Pedicle flap
D)Vascular flap
Q4) Which is a benefit of using a split-thickness mesh graft of skin?
A)Can be cut to fit exactly to the recipient site
B)Prevents serum from escaping the openings in the recipient site
C)Can be placed over the recipient site with slight tension
D)Heals by first intention

42
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Q1) Which endoscopic sinus procedure clears the ethmoidal compartments of disease?
A)Functional endoscopic sinus procedure (FESS)
B)Wigand procedure
C)Sphenoidotomy
D)Rhinoplasty
Q2) What procedure is done as an emergency to help the patient breathe?
A)Tonsillectomy
B)Septoplasty
C)Turbinectomy
D)Tracheotomy
Q3) A Le Fort III fracture involves a transverse fracture of the maxilla,which results in a fragmentation of the palate and upper alveoli.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of anesthesia agent is contraindicated while placing a graft in the middle ear?
A)Carbon dioxide
B)Carbon monoxide
C)Lidocaine and epinephrine
D)Nitrous oxide
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Q1) What process,caused by a puncture of the left pleural cavity,may result in a collapsed right lung?
A)Pectus excavatum
B)Median sternotomy
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Segmental resection
Q2) What type of bronchoscope is mainly used for foreign body removal and to find the cause of persistent bleeding?
A)Indirect
B)Rigid
C)Flexible
D)Bypass
Q3) What type of device is used to prolong resuscitation after a patient is removed from cardiopulmonary bypass?
A)BCMA
B)ACLS
C)CPRS
D)ECMO
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Q1) Which autologous vessel has the best long-term patency rate when used as a graft in a coronary artery bypass graft procedure?
A)Saphenous vein
B)Radial artery
C)Internal mammary artery (IMA)
D)Popliteal vein
Q2) Provides structural support for coronary arteries
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q3) The most common complication after cardiac surgery is stroke.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which type of aneurysm is caused by a break in the integrity of the vessel wall,which requires an open repair?
A)Pseudoaneurysm
B)True aneurysm
C)Dissecting aneurysm
D)Saccular aneurysm
Q2) Which of the following are used to protect the small intestine and colon during an abdominal aneurysmectomy?
A)Dry prep towels to soak up any blood loss
B)Warm, moist tapes
C)Warm, saline-soaked ray-tec
D)Sweetheart retractor
Q3) Pulverizing of plaque by a high-speed burr
A)Embolectomy
B)Atherectomy
C)Balloon dilation
D)Intraluminal stent
E)Laser angioplasty
F)Thrombolytic therapy
G)Thrombectomy
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Q1) Tissue typing,or histocompatibility testing,is the detection of what substance known to affect rejection?
A)Complex assays
B)Cell-surface antigens
C)Cyclosporine
D)Prostaglandin
Q2) Donor is also the recipient of the tissue
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
Q3) Presence of which disease is an indication for a bone marrow transplantation?
A)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
B)Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
C)Myelogenous leukemia
D)Graft-versus-host disease
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