Surgical Procedures and Patient Safety
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive overview of common surgical procedures alongside a deep exploration of patient safety principles within the surgical environment. Students will study the preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative phases of care, with special emphasis on aseptic techniques, infection control, surgical team coordination, and prevention of medical errors. The course also covers risk assessment, patient advocacy, and the latest guidelines for maintaining safety and quality in surgical settings. Through case studies and current best practices, students will learn how to ensure optimal patient outcomes and uphold the highest standards of professionalism in surgical care.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 12th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
1290 Verified Questions
1290 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tour of the perioperative environment can help decrease the learner's anxiety before beginning a perioperative program.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Mentor
A)Works with orientees and learners according to a prescribed task-oriented lesson plan
B)Has more experience with personnel and the OR's climate;provides insight into the department's social atmosphere
C)Staff member who is emulated and respected for his or her clinical competence
Answer: B
Q3) Invasive procedures are frequently diagnostic and do not enter the body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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3
Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identifying the surgical site is always done with an "X" to verify the correct site.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Both perioperative nurses and surgical technologists work toward the common goal of providing the safest possible care so that patients achieve favorable surgical outcomes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Failure of a caregiver to maintain accountability constitutes: A) liability.
B) negligence.
C) false standards.
D) consistency.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a reportable sentinel event?
A) Surgery on the wrong site
B) Any near miss
C) Minor hemolysis with no clinical sequelae
D) Unsuccessful suicide attempt
Answer: A
Q2) ____________________ consists of leaving the patient for any reason when the patient's condition is contingent on the presence of the caregiver.
Answer: Abandonment
Abandonment consists of leaving the patient for any reason when the patient's condition is contingent on the presence of the caregiver.If the caregiver leaves the room knowing there is a potential need for care during his or her absence,even under the order of a physician,the caregiver is liable for his or her own actions.
Q3) Who obtains the informed consent for a surgical procedure?
A) Perioperative nurse
B) Surgeon/physician
C) Scrub person
D) Head nurse
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional
Credentialing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the scrub person's responsibility?
A) Establish and maintain the sterile field.
B) Assist anesthesia providers with patient positioning.
C) Complete procedure documentation and specimen requisitions.
D) Maintain communication with waiting patient family members.
Q2) The circulating nurse's role as the patient's ____________________ and ____________________ is critical and extends throughout the entire perioperative environment.
Q3) Which is a member of the nonsterile perioperative team?
A) Surgeon
B) Circulating nurse
C) Scrub person
D) First assistant
Q4) Licensure implies:
A) a well-trained individual.
B) an enthusiastic employee.
C) a certain amount of appropriate independence in actions.
D) graduation from an accredited program.
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) The control of ____________________ and ____________________ loss is referred to as hemostasis.
Q2) It is important to ____ and think in advance about each step to help the procedure run smoothly.
A) guess every move
B) anticipate
C) retract every time
D) react
Q3) A registered nurse first assistant (RNFA)reviews the patient's chart,including laboratory results,subjective and objective data,and pending tests.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is an example of a physical hazard in the OR?
A) Medication
B) Needlestick injury
C) Prep solution
D) Anesthesia gases
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) An effective infection control program aims to reduce the ____________________ of infection and control ____________________.
Q2) Updates are statements of task-oriented and skill-oriented actions to be taken in the implementation of policies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All perioperative team members must be certified in CPR.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Practices that continue despite lack of scientific evidence are referred to as:
A) protocols.
B) bad excuses.
C) sacred cows.
D) national standards.
Q5) Which is one benefit of Magnet status for a facility?
A) The opportunity for professional growth and enrichment
B) Nursing salaries are increased.
C) Nursing retention is minimized and increased turnover results.
D) The cost of care provided at the facility is higher.
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Sample Questions
Q1) When allowing family members to view a deceased patient before the body is transported to the morgue,the perioperative nurse should:
A) remain with the body and lend support.
B) use clichés when speaking with the family.
C) allow other patients to view the body as a reminder that life is short.
D) place blame on the surgeon who allowed this to happen.
Q2) One definition of a patient is:
A) a healthy person using medical services.
B) an individual recipient of health care services.
C) adults or children who are sick.
D) a person trying to feel better.
Q3) On what foundations are cancer treatment and prognoses based?
A) Type of cancer and extent of the disease
B) Type of insurance the patient has
C) Type of surgery the patient chooses to have performed
D) Type of cancer-causing agents the patient was exposed to
Q4) Before administration of anesthetics,a patient may be acutely aware of the surroundings and activities.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a common pediatric procedure performed that results from the diagnosis of otitis media?
A) Goniotomy
B) Tenotomy
C) Luque fixation
D) Myringotomy
Q2) When greater than ____ of estimated blood volume is lost,hypotension is apparent in the pediatric patient.
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 75%
Q3) Which is a congenital anomaly characterized by a fusion of two or more fingers or toes?
A) Dyndactyly
B) Syndactyly
C) Polydactyly
D) Manydactyly
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-care deficit is a common nursing diagnosis when assessing the preoperative geriatric surgical patient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Prolonged anesthesia induction is a common finding with older surgical patients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is important to assess for multiple vaginal births in an older adult female patient because that data could indicate:
A) uterine and bladder prolapse.
B) ovarian cancer.
C) number of children.
D) presence of a pessary.
Q4) A decrease in estrogen production can increase the risk for osteoporosis and heart disease in women.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The operating bed should not be set up under a movable or track ceiling device.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where in the surgical environment would you find the receptionist,pneumatic tube system,and computer systems used to retrieve patient records?
A) Conference room
B) Support service office
C) Central control desk
D) Central processing area
Q3) In what transition zone area is it acceptable for patients to wait prior to receiving anesthesia and to be given invasive lines and regional anesthesia?
A) Preoperative holding area
B) Induction room
C) Postanesthesia care unit
D) Dressing room
Q4) Swinging doors are the preferred door type in the OR.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical
Locations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use ____________________ patient identifiers when administering drugs or blood,taking blood samples,or providing treatments.
Q2) What type of outpatient surgery department is a self-contained unit located within or attached to the hospital but physically separate from the inpatient OR suite?
A) Office-based center
B) Hospital-based integrated unit
C) Hospital-based dedicated unit
D) Hospital-affiliated satellite surgery center
Q3) The Federated Ambulatory Surgery Association (FASA)states that a true ASC is ____ in services and not ____ on a main hospital.
A) independent;dependent
B) somewhat dependent;dependent
C) lacking;independent
D) dependent;relying
Q4) While a patient is awake during a procedure under local anesthesia,it is better to use hand signals as a way to ask for instruments.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is necessary to wash your hands after removing gloves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Every patient is considered a potential contaminant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Remove gloves first before taking off the gown,so as not to contaminate the front of the gown with dirty gloves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The scrub person may remove the mask or eyewear after stepping far enough away from the patient and sterile field at the end of a case.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When cleaning up instruments after a surgical procedure,place unloaded knife handles and such instruments as scissors and those with sharp tips separate from other instruments so that processing personnel may identify them easily.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is all right to use the electrosurgical unit (ESU)near the rectum after the rectum has been packed with a moist sponge.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In what case might methyl methacrylate be used?
A) Corneal transplant
B) Hip replacement
C) Cholecystectomy
D) Carpal tunnel repair
Q3) Which is a common injury caused by holding retractors in one position for prolonged periods?
A) Retinal detachment
B) Femoral stress fracture
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Chronic fatigue syndrome
Q4) Electrical current applied to a patient's trunk,from where it can follow many paths through the body,is considered a microshock.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Resident flora aid in the synthesis of vitamins and folic acid while in the large intestine but may cause an infection if relocated to a surgical incision.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a disease caused by direct contact or exposure of neurologic tissue to a prion?
A) Kaposi's sarcoma
B) Tapeworms
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D) Pneumocystis carinii
Q3) Who has a higher risk of exposure to potentially harmful microorganisms?
A) Scrub person
B) Circulating nurse
C) Central processing technician
D) Fluoroscopy technician
Q4) Bacteria have membrane-bound organelles with a nucleus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of impervious barriers used in a surgical procedure?
A) Sterile drapes
B) OR bed sheet
C) Plastic pillowcase cover
D) Clean garbage liner
Q2) If an item,such as the end of a suture,extends over the edge of the sterile field,can it be brought back into the sterile field?
A)True
B)False
Q3) OR lights should be cleaned once weekly to prevent the spread of microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the most important reason for keeping the doors to the OR closed except when opening is necessary?
A) The patient may get cold.
B) The hallway may be too noisy and prevent the surgeon from concentrating.
C) Closed doors maintain a positive pressure atmosphere.
D) Closed doors prevent environmental cleaning staff from hearing and seeing surgical events.
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Chapter
Gloving
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a gown is contaminated during a surgical procedure,where is it removed by the person wearing it?
A) At the sides below the waist
B) Under the axillae
C) At the shoulders below the neckline
D) From the back and neck
Q2) The appropriate OR attire for a visitor whose presence in the OR will be brief is a one-piece coverall,head cover,mask,and shoe covers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is an item that must be worn by any person entering the sterile field?
A) Scrub jacket
B) Eyeglasses
C) Exam gloves
D) Head cover
Q4) Which of the following may be worn into the OR?
A) Pierced ear studs
B) Rings,watches
C) Dangling earrings
D) Necklaces or chains
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Instruments being placed into a disinfecting solution should be dry.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which disinfectant contains detergent properties and causes the gradual alteration of cell membranes to produce leakage of protoplasm of some microorganisms?
A) Iodophors
B) Phenolic compounds
C) Quaternary ammonium compounds
D) Enzymatic detergent
Q3) Which is a disadvantage of using ultraviolet (UV)irradiation as a means of disinfection?
A) The rays can kill selective vegetative bacteria,fungi,and lipoprotein viruses.
B) UV rays may cause skin burns.
C) UV rays produce nonionizing radiant energy.
D) Pathogens have effective contact with the UV rays for destruction.
Q4) Disinfection is the same as sterilization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a reason not to use a flash sterilizer?
A) Routine sterilization of a tray
B) Urgent or unplanned situations
C) If an instrument has been dropped
D) For immediate use of an item
Q2) When assembling instrument trays,sharp instruments should be placed on the bottom of the tray to prevent injury when removing instruments from the tray.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Like EO sterilization,hydrogen peroxide sterilization requires a lengthy aeration period.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which chemical sterilants require the user to wear personal protective equipment (PPE)throughout use of the product?
A) Glutaraldehyde
B) Steam sterilant
C) Nonionizing radiation
D) Cobalt-60
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Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using any type of power equipment,what must be checked before handing up any instrument?
A) Make sure the instrument is in "on" mode and ready to be used.
B) The instrument must be in "off" mode.
C) Check to make sure the instrument is in the "safety" mode.
D) Make sure the instrument is unassembled and in the "on" mode.
Q2) Wait until the end of the procedure to wipe and clean instruments of blood or bodily fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Always keep sharps such as blades and hypodermic needles in a metal basin so as to minimize a needlestick.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a type of dissector that might be used in an orthopedic surgical procedure?
A) Bone cutter
B) Snare
C) Curette
D) Adson forceps
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Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a responsibility of the biomedical laser technician?
A) Prepare and teach the patient intraoperatively.
B) Check the laser equipment brought into the OR.
C) Cover windows and provide appropriate eyewear.
D) Provide preventive maintenance of the laser periodically.
Q2) It is imperative that the surgical field be stable and immobile during a surgical procedure performed using the microscope.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which laser medium is used to create a lasing effect when the emission is stimulated?
A) Normal saline
B) Light beam
C) Solid rods
D) UV light
Q4) Which type of laser is useful in breaking up kidney stones?
A) Excimer
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Free electron
D) Ho:YAG
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Q1) The preoperative interview is not the time to discuss the operating room suite and the routines the patient may experience because he or she will have been premedicated before entering the suite and does not need to know this information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Herbal or dietary supplements must be asked about and noted on the patient's chart preoperatively.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Today,patients are usually admitted on the same day of their surgery and are given preoperative instructions on an outpatient basis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Once the patient is placed on the OR table prior to a procedure,the circulating nurse does not need to be with the patient because the anesthesia provider will take over and start induction.
A)True
B)False
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Considerations
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Q1) Doppler can be used only to evaluate arterial blood flow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sensory evoked potential (SEP)is useful in diagnosing which type of abnormality?
A) Hepatic tumor
B) Kidney stones
C) Acoustic neuroma
D) Air embolus
Q3) What type of specimen is collected with a circular sharp,hollow tip?
A) Aspiration biopsy
B) Brush biopsy
C) Punch biopsy
D) Smear
Q4) What group of people should receive a mammogram?
A) Women more than 50 years old
B) Women between the ages of 20 and 35
C) Men with a familial history of maternal breast cancer
D) Mammograms are not recommended to any age group
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of drug effect is manifested by the entire body?
A) Localized
B) Systemic
C) General
D) Diagnostic
Q2) Which drug name describes the molecular components of the compound?
A) Official name
B) Chemical name
C) Brand name
D) Trade name
Q3) The first dose of a drug given in a series that is larger than subsequent doses is called what?
A) Loading dose
B) Localized dose
C) Diagnostic dose
D) Maintenance dose
Q4) When dispensing a drug that has been drawn up in a syringe using a needle,it should be delivered via the syringe without the injection needle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a local anesthesia case,an anesthesia provider must be present in the room with the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which system can monitor the effects of anesthesia on the brain during a procedure?
A) DTS
B) IMV
C) BIS
D) GPS
Q3) Which is an anesthetic gas that is similar to halothane and is contraindicated in severe renal disease?
A) Nitrous oxide
B) Desflurane
C) Enflurane
D) Propofol
Q4) Benzodiazepines are classified as nondepolarizing or depolarizing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Q1) The ____________________ (scrub person or circulating nurse)keeps the instrument count sheets and verifies the instruments on the sterile field so that the baseline count is identical to the closing count.
Q2) The nurse should anticipate the needs of the surgeon and try to stay one step ahead.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a sterile towel is used to pack a wound during a case for use as a retractor,the circulating nurse does not have to be told because it is not radiographically detectable and it is not a countable item.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Where is an optimal location to place the dispersive electrode pad for use with an ESU?
A) Over scar tissue
B) Over a hairy area
C) Over a large muscle mass
D) Over a bony prominence
27
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Q1) What potential complication can occur while a patient is in a sitting position?
A) Hypertension
B) Air embolism
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Headache
Q2) In the supine position,the patient's occiput and cervical area are at risk for skin breakdown during a procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Antiembolic stockings or sequential compression devices help to prevent severe hypotension and venous pooling.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nonwoven fabric disposable drapes:
A) are lightweight and antistatic
B) are always more expensive than nondisposable drapes
C) must be sterilized immediately before use
D) are not flame retardant
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Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Q1) Central venous pressure (CVP):
A) measures left atrial blood pressure.
B) measures total body blood volume.
C) reflects the pressure in the major veins as blood returns to the heart.
D) measures cardiac output.
Q2) Which is a result that may occur when using the bispectral index (BIS)monitor during a surgical procedure?
A) Increased core temperature
B) Decreased pain levels
C) Reduced drug use
D) Decreased infection rate
Q3) Core body temperature refers to the entire body temperature including the interior and body surface.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When sending an arterial blood gas sample to the laboratory for analysis,never place the specimen on ice because that will cause the sample to coagulate,which will make it unusable.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions, implants, and Wound
Closure
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Q1) Which is a strand used to make suture materials?
A) Monofilament
B) Polyfilament
C) Unafilament
D) Bifilament
Q2) Which is a classification of suture?
A) Disposable
B) Absorbable
C) Reusable
D) Resorbable
Q3) When incisions are made along Langer lines,the resulting closure is more cosmetically pleasing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a handling consideration when working with surgical gut and collagen sutures?
A) Prior to use,allow the alcohol in the packet to evaporate.
B) Do not unwind the suture before handing it up on a needle holder.
C) Be careful to not soak suture in saline prior to use.
D) Avoid spilling the fluid within the suture packet onto the sterile field.
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wound disruption is characterized by which of the following symptoms?
A) Bradycardia
B) Abnormal discharge and change in the contour of the wound
C) Increased bowel gas pressure
D) Increased blood pressure
Q2) ____ is characterized by swelling between fascial layers in any plane of the body.
A) Incisional infection
B) Compartment syndrome
C) Necrotizing fasciitis
D) Keloid
Q3) The hemostatic scalpel uses argon gas to provide rapid hemostasis by monopolar coagulation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hypothermia increases cellular metabolism as the body attempts to increase its warmth during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Q1) Time spent in the PACU varies from patient to patient and can change with each patient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is one purpose of the postoperative follow-up phone call?
A) To assess patient outcomes upon discharge
B) To avoid a pending lawsuit by the patient or family members
C) To improve patient satisfaction scores on future surveys
D) To satisfy insurance company demands for follow-up
Q3) Which is an item that the circulating nurse's handoff report needs to contain?
A) Address
B) Insurance information
C) Positioning information
D) Name of scrub person
Q4) A patient having a surgical procedure performed in a physician's office does not need postoperative care and should be able to leave immediately after it is over.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Q1) Which is considered the most serious cardiac dysrhythmia?
A) Ventricular tachycardia
B) Atrial fibrillation
C) Atrial flutter
D) Bundle branch block
Q2) Which is an example of vasodilator drugs?
A) Verapamil and propranolol
B) Atropine and Ditropan
C) Nipride and nitroglycerin
D) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Q3) What disturbance is characterized by dry skin,dry mucous membranes,low blood pressure,and deep rapid respirations?
A) Hypovolemia
B) Hypervolemia
C) Radiation enteritis
D) Oliguria
Q4) Estimation of blood loss is most accurately done by looking at the contents in the suction container.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Q1) Which is a type of scope used in endoscopy or laparoscopy procedures?
A) Soft
B) Rigid
C) Plastic
D) Veress
Q2) What is the intraoperative peritoneal pressure of an adult during a laparoscopic procedure when using CO ?
A) 5 to 7 mm Hg
B) 7 to 10 mm Hg
C) 12 to 15 mm Hg
D) Greater than 18 mm Hg
Q3) What type of gas medium is used to insufflate the peritoneal cavity?
A) Nitrous oxide
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Argon
Q4) Lasers are not able to be used with endoscopic or laparoscopic procedures due to the limited vision endoscopy allows.
A)True
B)False
Page 34
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Q1) A low anterior colon resection requires the creation of a permanent colostomy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a consideration in the plan of care of an obese patient during a bariatric procedure?
A) Antiembolic stockings
B) Disposable blood pressure cuff
C) Limited warm blankets and drapes
D) Nutritional supplements
Q3) Which is a common instrument needed for a common duct exploration?
A) Richardson retractor
B) Cooley clamp
C) Malleable scoop
D) Mahoney dilator
Q4) What type of breast biopsy involves removing the entire mass for pathologic study?
A) Core biopsy
B) Incisional biopsy
C) Excisional biopsy
D) Stereotactic breast biopsy
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Q1) Fibroid uterus
A)Herniated bladder into vagina
B)Removal of ovary
C)Benign mass of uterus
D)Removal of uterus
E)Aberrant endometrial tissue
F)Inflammation of fallopian tube
G)Gestation outside uterus
H)Cervical infection
I)Mass of endometrial tissue
J)Repair of prolapsed uterus
Q2) Which of the following applies to both vaginal and abdominopelvic procedures in gynecologic surgery?
A) Patient position
B) Identical instrumentation
C) Placement of Foley catheter
D) Prophylactic anticoagulation
Q3) Air and gas are not used during a hysteroscope for uterine insufflation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dilation of spermatic veins
A)Nephrectomy
B)Pyeloplasty
C)Prostatic hypertrophy
D)Phimosis
E)Varicocele
F)Penectomy
G)Orchiectomy
H)Hydrocele
I)Vasovasostomy
Q2) Which of the following is a purpose of the kidney?
A) Produces vitamin K
B) Produces the hormone aldosterone
C) Removes metabolic wastes from the blood
D) Produces white blood cells
Q3) Which is the working unit of the kidney?
A) Nephron
B) Renal pyramid
C) Ureter
D) Renin
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance is used in orthopedic procedures to provide hemostasis in bone?
A) Mineral oil
B) Thrombin and gelfoam
C) Bone wax
D) Lactated Ringer's
Q2) Supportive dressing material
A)Osteomyelitis
B)Nonunion
C)Arthrotomy
D)Open fracture
E)Osteogenesis
F)Cast
G)Arthrodesis
H)Dislocation
I)Hallux valgus
Q3) Which shape is a classification of bones?
A) Thin
B) Flat
C) Thick
D) Round
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Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a method of occluding an aneurysm and controlling bleeding?
A) Monopolar electrosurgery
B) Vicryl suture material
C) Methyl methacrylate
D) Prolene ties
Q2) A corpus callosotomy is performed to prevent secondary generalized seizures a patient may have.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is true regarding intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A) Increased ICP allows increased cerebral cortex perfusion.
B) A normal adult ICP reading is from 5 to 8 mm Hg.
C) Manual blood pressure readings determine accurate ICP readings.
D) A ventricular catheter is the most accurate method of monitoring ICP.
Q4) Which is a reason for performing a thalamotomy?
A) To increase vision
B) To control hyperthermia
C) To relieve seizure activity
D) To repair a neural defect
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Q1) Which specific need of the spinal cord injury patient must be addressed after the injury?
A) Temperature control
B) Tactile sensation
C) Loss of vision
D) Loss of hearing
Q2) The spinal cord is composed of white matter on the outside and gray matter on the inside.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What part of the spine is formed by the connection of the posterior laminae?
A) Vertebral arch
B) Central foramen
C) Spinous process
D) Lumbar plexus
Q4) Which type of diagnostic tool is most effective at diagnosing spinal injuries?
A) Radiograph
B) PET scan
C) Ultrasound
D) MRI
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Incisions into cornea
A)Ptosis
B)Pterygium
C)Keratotomy
D)Chalazion
E)Keratoplasty
F)Iridectomy
G)Cataract
H)Gas tamponade
I)Vitrectomy
J)Avulsion
K)Dilation of pupil
Q2) What is removal of the entire eyeball and the severing of the muscular attachments called?
A) Innervation
B) Enucleation
C) Exenteration
D) Extirpation
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) Nose reshaping
A)Rhytidoplasty
B)Rhinoplasty
C)Blepharoplasty
D)Otoplasty
E)Liposuction
F)Mentoplasty
G)Panniculectomy
H)Plication
I)Z-plasty
J)Mohs' micrograph
K)Dermabrasion
Q2) Which category of plastic surgery deals especially with areas of the body such as the breast and face?
A) Congenital anomalies
B) Aesthetic appearance
C) Neoplasms
D) Traumatically acquired disfigurements
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42
Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Q1) Which is a diagnostic tool used to determine the extent of a craniofacial deformity?
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) Manual sketches of the facial formations
D) PET scan
Q2) Which procedure involves the removal of the fixed footplate?
A) Partial stapedectomy
B) Total stapedectomy
C) Stapedotomy
D) Left stapedectomy
Q3) What type of procedure involves the removal of the tongue and the use of a free flap?
A) Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
B) Glossectomy
C) Laryngectomy
D) Mucogingivoplasty
Q4) Patients having a procedure,such as a laryngoscopy,that involves the use of a laser should have their eyelids ____________________ and their face covered with a
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Q1) Pigeon chest
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
Q2) Which is a factor that influences the choice of incisions for thoracic surgery?
A) Patient age
B) Surgeon preference
C) Intrapleural pressure
D) Hemodynamic quality
Q3) A thymectomy is performed to relieve the symptoms of what disease?
A) Graves' disease
B) Tuberculosis
C) Bronchospasm
D) Myasthenia gravis
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elevated levels of potassium help protect the heart and assist in improved cardiac function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Revascularizes the myocardium
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)AbioCor
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q3) Which is a piece of equipment that every cardiac OR should contain?
A) MRI
B) Defibrillator
C) Argon beam coagulator
D) Video tower console
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which serious immediate complication of peripheral vascular surgery that requires an immediate return to the OR?
A) Pain
B) Hypertension
C) Thrombus
D) Hypotension
Q2) Which is an advantage of using an autologous saphenous vein graft?
A) Less expensive than an allograft
B) Does not have to be anastomosed to the receiving vessel
C) Is lined with epithelial cells to inhibit clotting
D) Decreases in diameter as it courses distally
Q3) Which type of aneurysm is caused by a break in the integrity of the vessel wall,which requires an open repair?
A) Pseudoaneurysm
B) True aneurysm
C) Dissecting aneurysm
D) Saccular aneurysm
Q4) Pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the lungs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Between 1 week and 4 months,sometimes reversible
A)Hyperacute
B)Accelerated
C)Acute
D)Chronic
Q2) Which two organs can be removed from non-heart-beating donors?
A) Skin and bone
B) Kidney and pancreas
C) Heart and liver
D) Lung and liver
Q3) Which is one of the three types of bone marrow transplants
A) Synologous
B) Allogenic
C) Xenologous
D) Isogenic
Q4) Procured organs are placed in sterile containers and packed with dry ice to decrease ischemia.
A)True
B)False
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