Surgical Procedures and Patient Care
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of common surgical procedures and the principles of patient care before, during, and after surgery. Students will explore the roles and responsibilities of the surgical team, techniques for maintaining sterility, and the necessary steps in preparing both the operating room and the patient. Emphasis is placed on patient assessment, preoperative and postoperative care, pain management, infection prevention, and monitoring for complications. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical application, students will develop the skills required to ensure patient safety and support optimal outcomes throughout the surgical experience.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Surgical Procedures 1st Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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18 Chapters
356 Verified Questions
356 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2110 Page 2
Chapter 1: Importance of the Surgical Technologist on the Surgical Team
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42048
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following personal character traits pertains to one's pledge to recognize and admit mistakes so that corrective action can be taken immediately?
A)Surgical conscience
B)Respect for the team
C)Good manual dexterity
D)Organizational skills
Answer: A
Q2) Entry level surgical technologists can fill which of the following roles:
A)Scrub surgical technologist
B)Circulating surgical technologist
C)Second assisting surgical technologist
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) How many phases of patient care constitute surgical case management? A)2 B)3 C)4
D)5
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42049
Sample Questions
Q1) Ann Contreras has consulted a noted colorectal surgeon after experiencing episodes of rectal bleeding over the last 2 weeks. She had a screening colonoscopy 5 years ago with several adenomatous polyps and mild diverticular disease. She presents to the endoscopy suite after a successful bowel prep and NPO since midnight. The GI endoscopist is confident that she will find tumor growth in the rectum and decides to employ further diagnostic applications to determine potential for metastasis. Which of the following endoscopic procedures best describes Ann's procedure?
A)Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatoscopy (ERCP)
B)Rectal manometry with dilatation
C)Flexible sigmoidoscopy
D)Colonoscopy with endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)
Answer: D
Q2) Which statement about the McBurney incision is most correct?
A)It is an oblique inguinal incision in the left lower quadrant.
B)It is the incision of choice to repair a direct inguinal hernia.
C)It is an oblique inguinal incision in the right lower quadrant.
D)The direction is more transverse than oblique.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas and Spleen
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42050
Sample Questions
Q1) What technologic characteristic of robotic surgery provides a superior indication for robotic-assisted laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A)The surgeon controls two instruments plus a camera while an assistant suctions and retracts.
B)Bladeless robotic trocars minimize entry injury and inadvertent hemorrhage.
C)The magnified three-dimensional picture may reduce bile duct injuries during dissection.
D)Robotic stapler and suture devices promote intracorporeal anastomotic techniques.
Answer: C
Q2) The liver, pancreas, and spleen share many similarities. Select the statement about these organs that is true.
A)All three are solid organs and very vascular.
B)All three are metabolic organs.
C)All three organs have terminal attachments to the duodenum.
D)All of the options are false.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Repair of Hernias
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42051
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the open hernia procedures listed below, which classic hernia procedure is considered, by some surgeons, to not be anatomically correct because the superior transversalis fascia is sutured to the inguinal ligament instead of to the inferior portion of the transversalis fascia or the Cooper ligament?
A)Shouldice repair
B)Bassini repair
C)McVay repair
D)Cooper repair
Q2) Which two similar hernia repair approaches reestablish the integrity of the transversalis fascia and simultaneously reestablish and strengthen the posterior inguinal floor by sewing the transversalis fascia to the Poupart ligament?
A)The Shouldice and the McVay ligament repair
B)The Bassini and the Shouldice repair
C)The McVay and the Cooper ligament repair
D)The Shouldice and the Cooper ligament repair
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Chapter 5: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42052
Sample Questions
Q1) From the list below, select the statement that is true about fallopian tube cancer.
A)Fallopian tube cancer metastasizes to the ovaries and cervix.
B)Fallopian tube cancer is fast-growing in women with genital herpes.
C)Fallopian tube cancer is very rare, with an incidence of less than 1%.
D)Fallopian tube cancer is seen primarily as a metastasis from the small intestine.
Q2) When catheterizing the female patient, the urethra must be located. The correct order of the external organs of the vulva listed anterior to posterior is:
A)mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, urethra, clitoris, vaginal opening.
B)labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, urethra, vaginal opening, mons pubis.
C)mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, urethra, vaginal opening.
D)labia majora, labia minora, urethra, mons pubis, clitoris, vaginal opening.
Q3) An example of perineal glands that secrete mucus is:
A)Skene's glands.
B)Bartholin's glands.
C)perineal glands.
D)labial glands.
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Chapter 6: Genitourinary Surgery
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42053
Sample Questions
Q1) The kidneys are highly vascular organs. Approximately how much of the entire circulating blood volume do the kidneys process at any one time?
A)One fifth
B)1 ml per kg body weight
C)One third
D)30 ml per hour
Q2) Which action best reflects the movement of urine from the renal pelvis to the bladder?
A)Normal intra-abdominal positive pressure promotes renal drainage.
B)Slight distention of the renal pelvis initiates a wave of peristaltic contractions.
C)Distention of the proximal ureter facilitates gravity drainage through signaling channels.
D)Urine is propelled into the bladder when adrenal hormones bind with ureteral receptor sites.
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Chapter 7: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42054
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary function of the three thyroid hormones is to regulate:
A)energy metabolism.
B)body growth and development.
C)calcium storage in the bones.
D)the decrease in blood calcium levels.
Q2) Jennifer Peoples is a 41-year-old woman with suspected primary adenocarcinoma of the thyroid; she is scheduled for total thyroidectomy surgery. How can the scrub person, Joni, a new surgical technologist, participate in using risk reduction strategies in the scrub role?
A)Pay meticulous attention to sterile technique.
B)Provide efficient and expedient hemostatic devices and materials as needed.
C)Maintain sterility of the instruments until the patient leaves the room in the case of need for emergency tracheostomy.
D)All of the options reflect appropriate scrub role risk reduction techniques.
Q3) The pyramidal lobe of the thyroid is described as:
A)a small lobe often involved in 30% of cases of thyroid dysfunction.
B)a protrusion of an immature thyroglossal duct cyst overgrowth.
C)a thin upward protrusion of thyroid tissue from the isthmus.
D)a vestige of an embryonic thyroid cyst.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Breast Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42055
Sample Questions
Q1) Ductal ectasia is a benign breast disorder that is difficult to distinguish from cancer, primarily because it presents with:
A)bilateral tenderness, mottled skin patterns of the breast, and fullness.
B)bilateral multicentric nodules and nipple discharge.
C)mottled skin patterns of the breast and edema.
D)a hard and irregular mass, nipple discharge, and enlarged axillary nodes.
Q2) A breast biopsy, performed after the patient has received a local anesthetic, will require adjunct sedation and monitoring equipment. What relevant considerations should the surgical team member note during the preoperative assessment?
A)Skin assessment
B)Allergies
C)ASA physiologic status
D)Risks for injury
Q3) Women of high socioeconomic status and higher education also have a high incidence of breast cancer, most likely due to:
A)high-fat diet.
B)lifestyle-related genetic mutations.
C)later age at first birth.
D)better compliance with regular screening.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Ophthalmic Surgery
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42056
Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing for pars plana vitrectomy in the posterior segment, the perioperative nurse must be aware that a combined scleral buckling procedure may be necessary. Other important information the perioperative team should know before preparing the OR for the procedure includes the location of the ocular problem, the surgeon's plan to address the problem, and the instrumentation and biomedical equipment and devices to be used. Technologic advances in ophthalmic surgery require that perioperative teams be familiar with complex biomedical equipment. A best practice, stated below, relevant to the safe use of complex equipment would be:
A)determine the presence and appropriate date (not expired) of the biomedical monitoring label.
B)demonstrate competence with equipment and check each piece carefully before the patient arrives in the OR.
C)schedule the manufacturer's representative to be present to provide technical support.
D)schedule the biomedical clinical engineer to check all equipment before each procedure.
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Chapter 10: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42057
Sample Questions
Q1) Several types of diagnostic imaging studies visualize structures by producing serial sections through different anatomic planes, highlighting specific structures or tissue densities. Examples of these imaging diagnostics would be:
A)complementary CT scan with MRI.
B)MRI scan.
C)CT scan.
D)All of the options
Q2) Of the three salivary glands, which one is the largest?
A)Sublingual
B)Submandibular
C)Zygomatic
D)Parotid
Q3) Acoustic neuromas arise from the Schwann cells of the vestibular portion of the eighth cranial nerve and are benign tumors. What is the postauricular incisional approach that offers the best chance of saving the integrity of the facial nerve?
A)Transaural
B)Supraaural
C)Translabyrinthine
D)Intravestibular
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Surgery
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42058
Sample Questions
Q1) Bone grafting using allografts or autografts may be used to fill cavities after removal of large amounts of bone that might result in instability, or to fill bony defects and to promote the union of fractures at the time of open reduction. Banked bone is available in many shapes of cortical and cancellous tissue. The American Association of Tissue Banks (AATB) accredits and periodically inspects bone-banking programs to ensure that specific standards are followed in the retrieval, processing, storage, and distribution of bone grafts. Bone graft that is sealed in a sterile labeled envelope from a tissue transplant company and stored in a vacuum-sealed freezer, monitored with an alarm, would be considered a(n):
A)reengineered human tissue product.
B)allograft.
C)xenograft.
D)autograft.
Q2) Invasion of osteoblasts
Q3) Bands of dense connective tissue that hold bone to bone
A)Ligaments
B)Tendons
C)Cartilage
Q4) Callus formation
Q5) Fibrin network formation
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Neurosurgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42059
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following histologic classifications of brain tumors is usually benign, circumscribed and slowly growing and arises from arachnoid cells?
A)Astrocytoma
B)Craniopharyngioma
C)Meningioma
D)Oligodendroglioma
Q2) Identify the dural fold that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
A)Falx cerebri
B)Tentorium cerebelli
C)Falx cerebelli
D)Tentorium cerebri
Q3) The brainstem consists of which three structures?
A)Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
B)Midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata
C)Mesencephalon, diencephalon, and cerebellum
D)Pons, medulla, and foramen magnum
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Chapter 13: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42060
Sample Questions
Q1) During the planning phase of a procedure for liposuction or post-bariatric contouring, the perioperative team will assemble and organize supplies and devices because the procedure may require:
A)repositioning one or more times during surgery.
B)meticulous accounting of fluid loss and blood replacement.
C)pressure dressings.
D)patient transfer to an alternating-pressure bed.
Q2) One of the most popular lasers used in plastic and reconstructive surgery is attracted to the water in the skin cells and ablates the cells at a predetermined depth. Collagen material beneath the skin surface is also heated, resulting in smoother and slightly tighter skin. Several lasers are attracted to areas of darker pigmentation. This treatment has virtually replaced dermabrasion, because of its consistency in terms of depth of penetration and also because this technique is less dependent on user technique or skill. Select the laser modality that would be the best option for ablation or removal of a pigmented red tattoo.
A)CO<sub>2</sub> laser
B)Erbium:YAG laser
C)Nd:YAG laser
D)Excimer laser
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Thoracic Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42061
Sample Questions
Q1) The perioperative team will need to collaborate with the anesthesia provider, since continuous hemodynamic monitoring, oximetry, and ventricular function assessment by transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) are all performed intraoperatively.
Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) may also be required. Select all the procedures from the list below for which these preparations are indicated.
A)Donor harvesting
B)Living-related single-lung transplant
C)Cadaveric single-lung transplant
D)Double-lung transplant
Q2) Thoracotomy can be performed with the patient in one of three common positions: lateral, semilateral, and supine. While the supine position is used for the median sternotomy approach, which of the lateral positions is used for an anterolateral approach?
A)Semilateral
B)Lateral
C)Prone
D)Lateral decubitus
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Chapter 15: Vascular Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42062
Sample Questions
Q1) During the 4-hour vascular procedure, the circulating nurse, Karen, and the surgical technologist, Judy, have each had a coffee break and a lunch break. Judy has returned from lunch to find four medicine cups with clear fluid, each unlabeled. The outgoing relief scrub person, during her hand-off report to Judy, points to each cup and states; "The first one is contrast dye, the second cup is heparin, the third is heparinized saline and the fourth is papaverine; it's easy, they're in alphabetical order." Judy discarded all four medications and Karen replaced them into appropriately labeled medicine cups. After the procedure, Karen completed an unusual occurrence report. What recommendations should she include in her corrective action plan that the relief scrub person should have done? Select all that apply from the listed options.
A)Ensure concurrent medication verification, both verbally and visually; include medication name, strength, dose, and expiration date.
B)Verify all medications concurrently with the entering and exiting personnel at shift change or break relief.
C)Remove any unlabeled medication or solution from the field.
D)Keep all medication containers used during the procedure in the OR until the conclusion of the procedure.
E) None of the aobve
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Cardiac Surgery
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42063
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the noninvasive diagnostic test that illustrates heart wall motion and blood flow through the heart and quantifies cardiac function.
A)Radionuclide imaging
B)Cardiac catheterization
C)Echocardiography
D)Cardiac function studies
Q2) Among the treatment options for tricuspid valve disease are suture annuloplasty, ring annuloplasty, and valve replacement with either a biologic or a mechanical prosthesis. Like the mitral valve, the tricuspid annulus is saddle-shaped and techniques to repair the valve should consider this anatomic configuration for optimal repair. Patients with significant tricuspid stenosis, regurgitation, or failed tricuspid (suture or ring) annuloplasty may require insertion of a prosthetic biologic or mechanical valve. Because there are no specific tricuspid prosthetic valves available, what type of prosthetic graft would be created or implanted?
A)An annuloplasty with a felt-pledgetted suture
B)A tricuspid annular permanent dilator
C)A mitral prosthesis
D)An annuloplasty ring
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Chapter 17: Pediatric Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42064
Sample Questions
Q1) Pharyngeal obstruction is revealed by a history of sleep-disordered breathing. Mouth breathing, snoring, pauses in breathing, restless sleep, waking at night, and enuresis may be related to obstruction. Pharyngeal obstruction may also be caused by recurrent pharyngitis or tonsillitis. Select all the procedures that are designed for the relief of pharyngeal obstruction from those listed below.
A)Tonsillectomy
B)Adenoidectomy
C)Flexible nasolaryngoscopy
D)Pharyngotomy
Q2) Young children are predisposed to parasympathetic hypertonia (increased vagal tone), which can be induced by:
A)painful stimuli such as eye surgery or abdominal retraction.
B)anxiety stimuli such as separation from a parent.
C)environmental stimuli such as loud noise or flashes of light.
D)thermal stimuli such as ambient excessive heat or cold.
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Chapter 18: Trauma Surgery
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42065
Sample Questions
Q1) Blunt trauma injuries may not fully reveal the degree or depth of injury. What noninvasive diagnostic test is critical to diagnosis in potential traumatic brain injury?
A)Pupil reflex and response to light
B)Skull radiograph
C)CT scan of the head
D)Neurovascular arteriography
Q2) What special consideration should be made when assessing a pediatric trauma patient for level of consciousness?
A)Use the modified Glasgow Coma Scale for children.
B)Use the Broslow tape.
C)Stimulate the child gently in case he or she is a victim of shaken baby syndrome.
D)Use the universal Glasgow Coma Scale for all ages.
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