Surgical Patient Care Test Questions - 1684 Verified Questions

Page 1


Surgical Patient Care Test

Questions

Course Introduction

Surgical Patient Care focuses on the principles and practices involved in caring for patients before, during, and after surgical procedures. The course covers topics such as preoperative assessment, patient preparation, infection control, intraoperative assistance, postoperative monitoring, wound care, pain management, and recognition and management of complications. Emphasis is placed on patient safety, effective communication within the surgical team, and adherence to ethical and legal guidelines. Through lectures, simulations, and clinical experiences, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the critical role healthcare professionals play in supporting positive surgical outcomes and promoting optimal patient recovery.

Recommended Textbook

Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical

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24 Chapters

1684 Verified Questions

1684 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4689

Sample Questions

Q1) Classification of cell saver, medical lab, radiology, EEG, and orthopedic technicians, and other hospital employees

A)Resume

B)Surgical assistant

C)Job description

D)Organizational structure

E)Career ladder

F)Role

G)Allied Health

H)Feedback

I)Intraoperative case management

J)Problem-solving skills

Answer: G

Q2) Which of the following historical figures developed the first x-ray machine?

A) Celsius

B) Jenner

C) Lister

D) Roentgen

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4690

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following torts would be classified as unintentional?

A) battery

B) defamation

C) foreign bodies left in patient

D) invasion of patient privacy

Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following surgical patients would be legally authorized to sign an informed surgical consent, based on medical practice acts and state law?

A) premedicated competent adult

B) adult in a persistent vegetative state

C) an emancipated 16-year-old minor

D) a foreign language speaker without an interpreter

Answer: C

Q3) Living will and durable power of attorney are examples of advance directives in health care.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which area of concern or fear would MOST likely be the main focus for a teenage patient having surgery?

A) abandonment

B) body image

C) insurance coverage

D) mortality

Answer: B

Q2) What type of procedure or care provides a terminal patient with symptom relief or avoidance and improves quality of the remaining life expectancy?

A) definitive

B) palliative

C) supportive

D) therapeutic

Answer: B

Q3) Cultural and religious values of patients can conflict with the practice of modern medicine.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Special Populations

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which special patient population group has a 30% to 80% statistical likelihood of coexisting psychiatric illness in addition to the diagnosis for which they are coming to surgery?

A) HIV/AIDS

B) geriatric

C) physically challenged

D) substance abuse

Q2) Enlargement of the spleen, which may result in debilitating fevers

A)Torticollis

B)Glasgow Coma Scale

C)Adolescent

D)Septic

E)CVP line

F)Splenomegaly

G)PTSD

H)Hypovolemic

I)Diabetic retinopathy

J)Myocardial hypertrophy

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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards

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65 Verified Questions

65 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4693

Sample Questions

Q1) The emergency shut-off valve for the supply of oxygen into an operating room is designated by which color?

A) black

B) blue

C) green

D) red

Q2) What are the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines for OR air exchanges per hour?

A) 10-15 with 20% fresh outside air

B) 10-15 with 90% filtered recirculated air

C) 20-25 with 20% fresh outside air

D) 20-25 with 90% filtered recirculated air

Q3) Which of the following is commonly used as a tissue fixative and preservative for surgical specimens sent to pathology?

A) ethylene oxide

B) formalin

C) glutaraldehyde

D) polymethyl methacrylate

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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The subatomic particles that orbit in shells around a nucleus and are responsible for creating electrical current

A)Internet

B)Modern

C)Electrons

D)Alternating

E)Font

F)Insulator

G)Resistance

H)Software

I)Power

J)Ground

K)Port

L)Matter

M)Battery

N)Hardware

O)Scanner

Q2) The bipolar mode of the ESU can be used only to cut tissue.

A)True

B)False

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission

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75 Verified Questions

75 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following concepts has replaced the previous system of assessing storage conditions and package integrity based on an arbitrary expiration designation?

A) double wrapping

B) event related

C) Julian dating

D) time related

Q2) The biological indicator (BI) for the steam sterilization method is:

A) DART

B) Bowie-Dick

C) Bacillus atrophaeus

D) Geobacillus stearothermophilus

Q3) Which method of chemical sterilization has limitations based on the challenge of diffusion into narrow lumens?

A) ethylene oxide gas

B) glutaraldehyde

C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma

D) peracetic acid

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) is a division of which governmental group?

A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

B) Food and Drug Administration

C) Department of Health and Human Services

D) Department of Homeland Security

Q2) During triage of a chemical and nuclear disaster, victims are separated in order to contain the contamination.The warm zone?

A) is 300 feet from the hot zone

B) is 50 feet from the hot zone

C) is 1000 feet form the hot zone

D) is 500 feet from the hot zone

Q3) Which biological disease poses to be one of the highest risks to nations:

A) anthrax

B) HIV

C) hepatitis

D) MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus)

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia

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80 Verified Questions

80 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Minums, drams, and drops are volume measurements in which measurement system?

A) apothecary

B) common

C) household

D) metric

Q2) Which drug is administered intravenously to treat life-threatening cardiac ventricular arrhythmias?

A) cimetidine

B) diazepam

C) naloxone HCl

D) lidocaine HCl

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a drug administration route?

A) biodegradable

B) enteral

C) parenteral

D) topical

Q4) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies

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61 Verified Questions

61 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Weitlaner, O'Connor-O'Sullivan, and Balfour are examples of:

A) bone-holding forceps

B) handheld retractors

C) noncrushing clamps

D) self-retaining retractors

Q2) What type of surgical specialty rooms would be most likely equipped with three or four overhead operating lights?

A) bariatrics

B) open heart

C) plastic reconstructive

D) urology and cystoscopy

Q3) What is the term for the cut-in lines in the jaws or hemostatic clamps and tissue forceps?

A) secretions

B) serrations

C) striations

D) suppressions

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12

Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound

Closure

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88 Verified Questions

88 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following surgical needles is a solid bore (not hollow) type of needle?

A) Dorsey

B) heparin

C) Keith

D) Tru-cut

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a method of achieving hemostasis?

A) apportional

B) chemical

C) mechanical

D) thermal

Q3) A surgeon's choice of suture to be used is based on the surgeon's training, the condition of the patient, the type of wound, and the conditions surrounding the surgical intervention.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Tourniquets provide permanent mechanical hemostasis and enhance visualization by creating a bloodless field.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The sitting position is a modification of which position?

A) Trendelenburg

B) lithotomy

C) Fowler's

D) Kraske

Q2) Which of the following descriptions of how to pour liquids into a container on the sterile field is correct?

A) Hold the bottle 6 inches above and over the basin.

B) Hold the bottle 6 inches above but with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.

C) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and over the basin.

D) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.

Q3) What is the term used for the area beneath the fingernails that is cleaned with a pick during the surgical scrub?

A) subacromial

B) subdermal

C) sublingual

D) subungual

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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Roentgenography, named for the German physicist who discovered it, is better known today as:

A) echocardiography

B) pulse oximetry

C) radiography

D) ultrasonography

Q2) What is another term used for diagnostic isotope scanning?

A) electroencephalography

B) nuclear medicine

C) capnography

D) spirometry

Q3) Cholangiography is the diagnostic study that images which anatomical structure?

A) common bile duct

B) large intestine

C) upper GI tract

D) urinary system

Q4) MRI scans require shielding of thyroid and gonads because of ionizing radiation emissions.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: General Surgery

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80 Verified Questions

80 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the incision routinely used for open cholecystectomy?

A) McBurney

B) Pfannenstiel

C) left subcostal

D) right subcostal

Q2) Pancreaticoduodenectomy is also known as which of the following procedures?

A) Bassini-Shouldice

B) McVay

C) Nissen

D) Whipple

Q3) What is the name of a gastric mass of indigestible vegetable fiber and hair that may require surgical excision?

A) bezoar

B) calculus

C) polyp

D) ulcer

Q4) The Hasson technique for establishing pneumoperitoneum requires the use of a Verres needle.

A)True

B)False

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery

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80 Verified Questions

80 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the procedure name for the removal of fibroid tumors of the uterus with the preservation of fertility?

A) endometrial ablation

B) myomectomy

C) oophorectomy

D) pelvic exenteration

Q2) Which piece of operating room furniture would likely be unnecessary for many vaginal surgical procedures?

A) back table

B) ESU

C) kick bucket

D) Mayo stand

Q3) Which radiological study might be ordered preoperatively for a patient scheduled for tuboplasty?

A) angiography

B) cholangiogram

C) hysterosalpingogram

D) retrograde urography

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17

Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery

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65 Verified Questions

65 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which substance is used following vitrectomy for long-term support of the retina with fewer restrictions on position?

A) BSS

B) silicone oil

C) hydroxyapatite

D) perfluoropropane

Q2) The surgical technologist must develop the ability to transfer very small, delicate instruments into the surgeon's hand in a functional manner so that he or she does not have to look away from the microscope.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the name of the gelatin-like fluid that fills the posterior cavity of the eye?

A) aqueous humor

B) crystalline lens

C) lacrimal fluid

D) vitreous humor

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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery

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75 Verified Questions

75 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A tuning fork is a useful tool during parotidectomy to safely identify branches of the seventh (VII) cranial nerve.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The anatomic structure that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx

A)Morcellatioin

B)Hypertrophy

C)Audiography

D)Oval window

E)Lukens tube

F)Electronystagmography

G)Organs of Corti

H)Hyperextension

I)Choanal atresia

J)Eustachian tube

Q3) Which procedure is performed for treatment of sleep apnea?

A) BMT

B) FESS

C) SMR

D) UPPP

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Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

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50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which bone contributes to the posterior and inferior portion of the nasal septum?

A) mandible

B) nasal

C) vomer

D) zygoma

Q2) The mandible articulates with which part of the temporal bone to form the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

A) alveolar process

B) glenoid fossa

C) orbital floor

D) symphysis

Q3) What is the term that describes the side of teeth closest to the cheek?

A) alveolar

B) buccal

C) labial

D) lingual

Q4) Odontectomy procedures are given a wound classification of Class II.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery

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80 Verified Questions

80 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following letters represents the incisional configuration MOST commonly used for scar revision procedures?

A) C

B) H

C) U

D) Z

Q2) The mandibular symphysis is better known as the:

A) chin

B) lower lip

C) upper lip

D) nasal septum

Q3) When would a congenital facial deformity likely occur?

A) at conception

B) first trimester

C) second trimester

D) third trimester

Q4) Incisions made for endoscopic brow lifts and rhytidectomy are often placed within the hairline for camouflage.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery

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95 Verified Questions

95 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Congenital downward bowing of the penis caused by fibrous bands

A)Epididymis

B)Balanitis

C)Hyperplasia

D)Palladium

E)Torsion

F)Hypospadias

G)Robotic

H)Geiger counter

I)Chordee

J)Tunica vaginalis

Q2) What does specialized tissue within the seminiferous tubules produce?

A) mucus

B) sperm

C) testosterone

D) urine

Q3) The anatomical structures excised during radical cystectomy are different between male and female patients.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery

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100 Verified Questions

100 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4709

Sample Questions

Q1) What is a serious bone infection that may result from a compound fracture and become chronic later?

A) osteoarthritis

B) osteoclasts

C) osteomyelitis

D) osteophytes

Q2) Which device is sometimes used for achieving and maintaining the lateral position?

A) Andrews table

B) beach chair positioner

C) vacuum beanbag

D) Wilson frame

Q3) The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones?

A) clavicle

B) humerus

C) scapula

D) sternum

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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery

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90 Verified Questions

90 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4710

Sample Questions

Q1) The apex of the lung is located:

A) inferiorly and laterally

B) medially where the bronchus enters

C) medially just above the diaphragm

D) superiorly and just above the clavicle

Q2) Noninvasive study used to diagnose mitral valve stenosis or other valvular disorders

A)Asystole

B)Electrocardiograph

C)Perfusion

D)Ventricular fibrillation

E)Bradycardia

F)Heart block

G)Echocardiography

H)Ventricular tachycardia

I)Atrial fibrillation

J)Ejection fraction

Q3) The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4711

Sample Questions

Q1) Atraumatic instrument designed to gently occlude blood flow without causing permanent damage

A)Aortic bodies

B)Superior mesenteric

C)Left common carotid

D)Thoracic

E)Vascular clamp

F)Inferior mesenteric

G)Vasa vasorum

H)Abdominal

I)Vena cava

J)External iliac

Q2) Which is the largest artery in the body?

A) aorta

B) carotid

C) renal

D) subclavian

Q3) Suture pledgets are used to bolster anastomosis sites when tissue is friable.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery

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75 Verified Questions

75 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4712

Sample Questions

Q1) Special attention must be taken during application and removal of the Mayfield cranial fixation device due to the removal of the OR table head piece.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following neurosurgical retractors has attachments for malleable brain spatulas and retractors?

A) Adson-Beckman

B) Leyla-Yasargil

C) Scoville

D) Taylor

Q3) Which of the following are countable surgical sponges used in neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate tissues?

A) compressed Gelfoam

B) Cottonoid patties

C) Kittner dissectors

D) Weck-Cel spears

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