Surgical Nursing Exam Review
Course Introduction
Surgical Nursing is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the essential knowledge, skills, and attitudes required to provide effective nursing care for surgical patients. The course covers preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative care, focusing on patient assessment, infection prevention, pain management, wound care, and the use of specialized equipment and techniques in surgical environments. Emphasis is placed on teamwork, communication, and adapting to rapidly changing situations, as well as understanding common surgical procedures and the roles of nurses in multidisciplinary surgical teams. By integrating theoretical foundations with practical skills, this course prepares students to safely and confidently support patients through the surgical experience and recovery process.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 14th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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30 Chapters
784 Verified Questions
784 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2039
Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perioperative nursing diagnoses and interventions are directed toward,and guided by,the tremendous risks for harm to the patient inherent in surgery and interventional procedures;therefore nursing actions can generally be categorized as:
A) therapeutic/restorative.
B) preventive/protective.
C) caring/comforting.
D) advocating/justifying.
Answer: B
Q2) The Perioperative Patient Focused Model presents key components of nursing influence that guide patient care.Select the statement that best describes the dynamic relationship within the model.
A) The patient experience and the nursing presence are in continuous interaction.
B) Structure,process,and outcome are the foundation domains of the model.
C) The perioperative nurse is the central dynamic core of the model.
D) The interrelated nursing process rings bind the patient to the model.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the pediatric cardiac team prepared to cannulate for a coarctation repair,their neonate patient presented with a sudden dysrhythmia,ectopy,and failure to respond to digitalis.Point-of-care serum electrolyte measurements revealed low potassium,sodium,and magnesium levels.On anesthesia induction,only 35 minutes earlier,these values were at normal levels and the patient status was secure.The electrolyte levels were treated to normal and the patient was cannulated and placed on cardiopulmonary bypass.As the procedure continued the team pondered the cause to prevent a recurrence.What possible event could have caused,or contributed to,this loss of electrolytes?
A) Unreported patient diarrhea before surgery
B) Unnoticed arterial bleeding from disconnected arterial line
C) Sterile water from back table switched with heparinized saline
D) Missed breast-feeding 2 hours before procedure
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Infection Prevention and Control in the
Perioperative Setting
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ernesto Horn was admitted to the emergency department (ED)with respiratory symptoms,facial and upper body abrasions,burns,and moist lesions after a small package,delivered to his office,exploded and sprayed him with dried powder and glass shards.In response to the reported mechanism of injury,the ED team sequestered him in a secluded area away from the rest of the patients.The team believed that this was highly suspicious of a bioterrorism event.The epidemiologist was called and the patient was transferred to a negative-pressure isolation room and placed on Standard,Contact,Airborne,and Droplet Precautions.Based on these actions,what microorganism agents might be suspected to be involved?
A) Plague and tuberculosis
B) Smallpox and tuberculosis
C) Ebola virus and anthrax
D) Anthrax and smallpox
Answer: D
Q2) An integrator is a multiparameter indicator designed to measure:
A) time and pressure.
B) pressure,steam,and temperature.
C) temperature,time,and presence of steam.
D) sterility and pressure.
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Anesthesia
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anesthetic agent could not be given if an IV-only anesthesia plan was employed?
A) Thiopental
B) Halothane
C) Diazepam
D) Diphenhydramine
Q2) A basic anesthesia monitoring device that is used during general anesthesia to confirm successful endotracheal tube placement and determine the presence of gas exchange is the:
A) pulse oximetry device placed on the finger,toe or ear lobe to measure oxygen saturation.
B) stethoscope to listen to breath sounds in all lung fields.
C) capnometer/end-tidal CO monitor to identify expired CO in the breathing circuit.
D) postintubation arterial blood gas monitoring with a point-of-care testing device.
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Chapter 5: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Number the sequence of steps for positioning a patient in prone position.
a.The arms are placed on armboards or secured at the sides,lower legs are elevated on a pillow with gel padding under the knees and toes off of the bed surface;a leg strap is placed across thighs.
b.The transport vehicle is locked adjacent to the locked OR bed.
c.Pressure points are checked:the cheeks,eyes,ears,female breasts,male genitalia,knees,and toes.
d.Anesthesia is induced with the patient in supine position on the transport vehicle.
e.The anesthesia provider supports the head and neck during the turn.
f.Four people using the "log-roll" technique turn the supine patient to prone onto the OR bed prepared with gel rolls placed at the location for the patient's shoulders and iliac crests.
Q2) Mrs.Faulkner's Braden scale score is 11.This places her at __ risk.
A) low
B) mild
C) high
D) very high
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Sutures, Needles, and Instruments
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perioperative nurse and the surgical technologist have a responsibility to maintain a safe environment of care for the surgical patient.A surgical complication concerning surgical counts that poses serious harm for the patient and potential consequences for the involved staff is called:
A) a malpractice suit.
B) a retained foreign object.
C) "res ipsa loquitur."
D) criminal negligence.
Q2) Linda,a veteran perioperative nurse,remembers a time when all suture needles had eyes and she even had her own needle rack.She hand-threaded all sutures according to the surgeon's preference.The newer sutures were originally called "atraumatic" sutures because they did not double back through a needle eye and cause tissue trauma during pulling or suturing through the tissue.Today,we call this manufacturing process of connecting the suture thread to the needle:
A) engineered crimp.
B) controlled release.
C) reverse cutting.
D) swaged.
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8
Chapter 7: Surgical Modalities
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To help visualize abdominal structures and to enhance safety during laparoscopic procedures,a pneumoperitoneum is created.After Veress needle confirmation,insufflation tubing is connected and the process begun.CO gas is used to insufflate the abdominal cavity at an ideal flow rate of ___ to achieve an ideal intra-abdominal pressure of .
A) 14 to 16 L/min;9 mm Hg
B) 10 to 12 mm Hg;10 L/min
C) 14 to 16 mm Hg;9 L/min
D) <9 L/min;10 to 12 mm Hg
Q2) The new endoscopy and surgery center called in an outsource company to present the options and advantages of reprocessing single use devices at their staff meeting.Select the appropriate questions that the staff should ask before making their decision.
A) Can the disposable device be adequately cleaned?
B) Is the device tested and checked for form and function after cleaning?
C) Can the device withstand disinfection or sterilization?
D) How many times can a device be reprocessed and reused?
Q3) Flexible tube with channels for suction,biopsy,irrigation,light
Q4) Suction,air,water,and light connection adaptors to energy source
Q5) Distal tip,flexible movement,lenses,air-water nozzle,CCD chip
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Wound Healing, Dressings, and Drains
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bariatric unit was experiencing an alarming rate of postoperative wound dehiscence and evisceration on postoperative day 1,as the patients began to ambulate independently.The perioperative nurse practitioner and clinical nurse specialist met with two of the surgical technologists who were the scrubbed persons for these procedures.They collaborated with the patient safety,risk management,and infection preventionist representatives to conduct a failure mode effects analysis (FMEA)on surgical routine,wound closure,and postoperative care.They decided to audit three factors that fall under the influence of the surgical team.Select the response below that reflects significant surgical team influence on wound healing.
A) Patient nutrition,blood albumin level,sterile technique
B) Sterile technique,wound closure materials,hemostasis methods
C) Patient smoking history,suture diameter and use of nonabsorbables,steroid therapy
D) Patient body mass index,use of retention sutures,and abdominal binder
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Chapter 9: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the treatment strategy for PONV that is considered a best practice in the perioperative and perianesthesia setting.
A) Scopolamine patch left on up to 24 hr,comfort measures and aromatherapy of patient's selection,droperidol for refractory nausea
B) Prophylactic antiemetic agent(s) of two different receptor sites,bimodal pain management,H2 blockers,antacids,and oxygen therapy
C) Normalized hydration and blood pressure,appropriate rescue antiemetic (rescue antiemetic should affect a different receptor site than prophylactic agents already given),multimodal pain management
D) Intraoperative IV dexamethasone 8 mg and ondansetron (ODT) 4 mg,followed by a 1-mg oral disintegrating ondansetron tablet taken on discharge and each of the next two mornings
Q2) Select the appropriate example of physiologic symptoms of pain.
A) A proxy pain rating by someone who knows the patient well
B) Facial grimacing and crying
C) The patient's self-report of pain
D) Physiologic indicators,such as elevated vital signs
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sharon Close has been diagnosed with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)without the dysplastic changes of Barrett's esophagus.Her GERD is unresponsive to proton pump inhibitors and histamine blockers.She also has a history of endometriosis with multiple surgeries for ablation of endometrial implants on her small bowel and adhesiolysis.Her surgeon is hesitant to pursue an open or a laparoscopic Nissen surgical approach.What procedure might her surgeon consider in lieu of a Nissen?
A) Thoracoabdominal partial esophagectomy
B) Endoscopic mucosal resection
C) Endoluminal plication of the lower esophageal segment
D) Heller's myotomy
Q2) Triangulation is a term used to describe the method used to provide instrument access to the anatomy during abdominal surgery.It is uniquely associated with which surgical incision?
A) Mid-epigastric transverse incision
B) Left paramedian incision
C) Thoracoabdominal incision
D) Laparoscopic port incisions
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas, and Spleen
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marvin Townsend is a 29-year-old man with paraplegia caused by spinal cord injury from a diving accident 4 years ago.He is transported into the trauma ED after being hit by a car as he was crossing the street in his wheelchair.He has a possible rupture of his liver and is scheduled for surgery.The perioperative nurse,on response to the trauma call,meets him in the ED to conduct a preoperative assessment and prepare for his procedure.Marvin tells the nurse that he is latex-sensitive because he was told that as a spinal cord injured person he should always be considered latex-allergic.An appropriate risk reduction strategy for Marvin's latex sensitivity/allergy would be to:
A) advise the anesthesia provider to premedicate with an H2 blocker,diphenhydramine,and prednisolone.
B) alert the OR and postoperative recovery areas of his latex allergy,check the setup for latex-containing items,and replace those items with non-latex alternatives.
C) transfer his care to the pediatric OR in the adjoining hospital where everything in the OR is latex-free.
D) position code and latex carts outside of the OR and watch for signs of latex reaction;tape an epinephrine-filled syringe to the head of his transport vehicle.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Repair of Hernias
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contributing factors to hernia formation include age,gender,previous surgery,obesity,nutritional status,and pulmonary and cardiac disease.The formation of the hernia at a site of weakness is due to any number of conditions that cause:
A) impaired healing and defective collagen formation.
B) thinning and stretching of muscle fibers.
C) increased pressure within the abdomen.
D) loss of tissue elasticity.
Q2) Bupivacaine and ropivacaine are look-alike/sound-alike drugs.Adverse drug reactions (ADRs)can occur if a clinician confuses these two drugs.Both drugs promote nerve conduction blockage analgesia when given locally,but bupivacaine is cardiotoxic.When selecting a local anesthetic to fill an elastomeric pain pump,what is one contraindication that should be considered?
A) If the patient is hypersensitive to amide local anesthetics
B) If the patient has cardiovascular disease
C) If the patient is confused or unconscious
D) If the patient had a local injection of lidocaine during the procedure
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Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the skin preparation for a gynecologic procedure that requires both an abdominal and a vaginal prep,the perioperative nurse must ensure that cross-contamination does not occur.Select two nursing interventions that support cross-contamination prevention.
A) Tuck sterile towels under the patient's buttocks and both sides of the abdomen.
B) Insert the urinary catheter to drainage before beginning the prep.
C) Prep the abdomen before beginning the vaginal prep.
D) Use two separate prep trays (one for the abdomen,one for the vagina).
Q2) An example of perineal glands that secrete mucus is:
A) Skene's glands.
B) Bartholin's glands.
C) perineal glands.
D) labial glands.
Q3) Ova travel through the fallopian tubes toward the uterus by which type of action?
A) Peristalsis
B) Gravity
C) Brownian motion
D) Intra-abdominal pressure
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Chapter 14: Genitourinary Surgery
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The flexible cystoscope is a delicate and valuable endoscopic instrument indicated for diagnostic bladder evaluation for patients with obstructive symptoms from prostatic hyperplasia and a rigid prostatic urethra.It has valuable benefits because of its small diameter and flexibility.Select benefits that support the use of flexible endoscopy in the outpatient setting.
A) It may be accomplished using a local anesthetic.
B) It can be used for patients unable to assume the lithotomy position.
C) It can be performed on the patient's bed on the nursing unit.
D) The cystoscope can be processed between patients without manual cleaning and disinfection.
Q2) A wide variety of ureteral and urethral drains,stents,and other catheters are designed and used for specific urologic procedures.A commonly used catheter is described by its tip.What catheter type is described as open-ended tip,whistle tip,cone tip,and olive tip?
A) Irrigation catheter
B) Urethral catheter
C) Ureteral catheter
D) Pigtail catheter
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The preoperative testing regimen for diagnosing thyroid disorders follows a structured plan of history taking,neck palpation,imaging scans,and fine needle aspiration.Select the statement from that is an appropriate reflection of a thyroid diagnostic study.
A) Palpation determines size,contour,swallowing function,lymph nodes,and bruits.
B) Fluoroscopy-guided fine needle aspiration is typically performed for frozen section.
C) Ultrasonic scans are the treatment of choice to evaluate thyroid nodules.
D) MRI and CT scans evaluate local invasion of the tumor nodules within the thyroid capsule.
Q2) Thyroid surgery is considered surgery of the head and neck.There is a high risk for surgical fires because of the proximity of all three components of the fire triangle.Select the statement that best reflects an appropriate nursing action to prevent a surgical fire.
A) Include the fire risk score during the time-out briefing.
B) Prevent prep solution from pooling under the patient's head,neck,and shoulders.
C) Permit the prep solution to dry before draping.
D) All the options are risk reduction considerations.
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Chapter 16: Breast Surgery
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before surgery,the perioperative nurse should procure the necessary medical and surgical supplies,instruments,and equipment for the planned operation.Mammograms,ultrasound and MRI,or other imaging studies should be available in the OR for the surgeon's review.The reason for the imaging studies' availability in the OR is to:
A) provide tools for teaching other surgery team members and students.
B) confirm the correct surgical site and location of pathology.
C) identify and confirm the correct patient.
D) confirm the correct surgical site and location of pathology,and identify and confirm the correct patient.
Q2) The catheter component of Talia's port system is inserted into what structure(s)?
A) Left mammary or subclavian vein
B) Right atrium by way of the jugular vein
C) Subclavian or jugular vein
D) Inferior vena cava
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Chapter 17: Ophthalmic Surgery
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The refractive apparatus of the eye directs (refracts)the light rays to strike the:
A) retina.
B) optic nerve.
C) vitreous body.
D) lateral geniculate body.
Q2) Select the true statement about dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR).
A) A DCR is performed for chronic or recurrent dacryocystitis,which is also called epiphora.
B) A dacrolithotripsy is attempted if the DCR is unsuccessful.
C) DCR establishes a new passageway for tear drainage into the nasal cavity.
D) The passageway is usually restored with the use of ultrasonic lacrimal probes.
Q3) Evisceration
Q4) Enucleation
Q5) Exenteration
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19
Chapter 18: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The salivary glands produce saliva,which serves to moisten the mouth and initiate:
A) antibacterial activity in the mouth.
B) carbohydrate digestion.
C) enzymatic activity on all ingested food.
D) alimentary (GI) tract peristalsis.
Q2) What mouth structure is considered the boundary between the buccal cavity and the lingual cavity?
A) Hard palate
B) Soft palate
C) Teeth
D) Floor of the mouth
Q3) The nose is divided into the prominent external portion and the internal portion known as the nasal cavity.The primary purpose of the nose is to:
A) facilitate the sense of smell.
B) warm inspired air.
C) moisturize inspired air.
D) prepare inspired air for the lungs.
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Chapter 19: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an open anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)repair,an examination under anesthesia (EUA)is performed immediately after induction of anesthesia,when the ligaments are completely lax,to evaluate the severity of the injury.The surgeon then makes a straight midline or slightly medial incision across the knee.Arthroscopic repair causes less patellar pain and decreased disturbance of extensor mechanisms.What preoperative indicators contribute to selecting the surgical approach (open or arthroscopic)of choice?
A) Classification and severity of the tear or capsular instability
B) Surgeon experience and preference
C) Patient history of a prior failed repair or gross knee joint disruption
D) All of the options are contributing factors.
Q2) Osteoporosis is one of the most common and serious of bone diseases and is responsible for more than 2 million fractures a year.Osteoporosis-related fractures most commonly occur in the hip,spine,and wrist,but any bone can be affected.The excessive reduction of total bone mass in osteoporosis is due to the loss of:
A) calcified matrix and collagenous fibers.
B) exercise and weight-bearing physical activity.
C) estrogen and testosterone.
D) calcium or vitamin D.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surfaces of the hemispheres form convolutions called gyri and intervening furrows called sulci,which serve as anatomic landmarks.Two sulci of particular anatomic importance during surgery are the lateral sulcus,or sylvian fissure,which separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes,and the central sulcus,or fissure of Rolando,which separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe.The central sulcus also separates the motor cortex from the sensory cortex.Both the motor and sensory cortices are represented by a map called a homunculus that proportionately shows each body part at the area of the gyri that controls it and illustrates how the number of neurons corresponds to the degree of motor and sensory control required.Select all the true statements about sensory and motor function.
A) Another name for the homunculus is the dermatome grid.
B) Areas of fine motor and sensory control have more neurons.
C) The right motor and sensory cortices control the right side of the body.
D) The left motor and sensory cortices control the right side of the body.
Q2) Identify the dura fold that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
A) Falx cerebri
B) Tentorium cerebelli
C) Falx cerebelli
D) Tentorium cerebri
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) When coverage for a defect cannot be achieved through skin grafting,plastic surgeons rely on other techniques to replace tissue.After mastectomy,reconstruction with a transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous (TRAM)flap is one of several options for nonsynthetic prosthetic reconstruction.Another descriptive term for the TRAM flap is the:
A) pedicle-based flap.
B) free flap.
C) mastopexy.
D) rotated tunneled flap.
Q2) A broad range of implant materials are used in plastic and reconstructive surgery.Select the implant that represents a biologic composition of a surgical implant.
A) Autologous human tissue
B) Medical-grade sterile silicone
C) Gold
D) Polypropylene
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Chapter 22: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of all the equipment,tools,and studies available during the patient's preoperative diagnostic phase,which exam is the most indispensable diagnostic tool to outline thoracic lesions and define space-occupying nature and shape?
A) Virtual bronchoscopy
B) Ultrasound
C) Chest x-ray
D) Computed tomography (CT) scan
Q2) Video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS)is a minimally invasive operative technique that has evolved over the past decade.It uses an endoscopic approach to visualize the thoracic cavity for diagnosis of pleural disease or treatment of pleural and lung conditions.In the adult,the surgeon creates a 2- to 3-cm incision between the intercostal spaces for insertion of the 10- or 12-mm trocar.The trocar sites can also be used for insertion of a .
A) fourth and sixth;robotic EndoWrist grasper
B) fifth and seventh;chest tube
C) fifth and seventh;zero-degree scope
D) sixth and eighth;video camera
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgically created arteriovenous fistulas are also referred to as a(n)_ and are indicated for enabling __.
A) axillo-femoral bypass;end-stage renal disease
B) bridge shunt;peritoneal dialysis
C) arteriovenous shunt;hemodialysis
D) side-to-side anastomosis;cannulation
Q2) Why is the change in sound made by a passing train's whistle similar to the reason the pitch rises quickly in systole and drops quickly in early diastole when measuring arterial sounds?
A) Both are explained by B-mode ultrasonography.
B) Both involve the science of plethysmography.
C) Both are explained by the Doppler effect.
D) Both are explained by the science of atomic behavior in a strong magnetic field such as MRI.
Q3) Identify the venous structure that prevents blood backflow.
A) Semilunar intimal folds
B) Coarctation segments
C) Pressure receptors
D) Venules
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the noninvasive diagnostic test that illustrates heart wall motion and blood flow through the heart and quantifies cardiac function.
A) Radionuclide imaging
B) Cardiac catheterization
C) Echocardiography
D) Cardiac function studies
Q2) Thoracic aortic aneurysmectomy is excision of an aneurysmal portion of the ascending aorta,aortic arch,or descending thoracic aorta and replacement with a prosthetic graft,valve-graft conduit,or intra-aortic prosthesis.Aneurysms may be caused by atherosclerosis,trauma,infection,or cystic medial degeneration.What presenting conditions will indicate that surgical intervention is necessary?
A) Compromised circulation or danger of rupture
B) Circumferential involvement
C) Spindle-shaped morphology
D) Combined saccular and fusiform morphology without dissection
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Chapter 25: Pediatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Donna Antonio,the perioperative nurse,explained to the child,at a developmentally appropriate level,what he or she will experience in the preoperative,intraoperative,and postoperative phases of care.Donna briefly described the roles of various staff members who will be a part of the team responsible for the child's care in the OR.She explained,to the child and family,the length of time that they will be separated from each other during the procedure and when they can be reunited in the PACU.Donna addressed the child within a developmental framework,taking into account the child's cognitive and psychosocial abilities.She used medical play items,audiovisual aids,puppets,and photographs in the education process.While Donna addressed the need for knowledge of the impending surgical procedure and provided education,she also employed interventions aimed at which nursing diagnosis?
A) Risk for Infection related to surgical intervention
B) Fear related to unmet goals
C) Anxiety related to separation from family and friends
D) Risk for hypothermia related to loss of body surface heat
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Chapter 26: Geriatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elderly patients have an increased tendency for slower metabolism,multiple chronic diseases,and a decreased reserve capacity of their organs to respond to stress,when compared to younger patients.When considering the decision for surgery,the risk of surgery should be measured against the risk of not operating,and the expected postoperative quality of life.What important factors should be evaluated in the decision-making? Select all that apply.
A) Personal motivation
B) Patient's financial health and insurance
C) Patient's state of independence
D) Disease course versus life expectancy
E) Patient's support system
F)Surgical risk versus nonoperative management
Q2) Age-related changes cause decreased blood flow to the kidneys with a resultant decrease in nephron function.What condition is created from the cumulative effect of the multiple drugs that the elderly patient will receive during the perioperative phase?
A) Increased chance for adverse reactions and consequential results
B) Polypharmacy psychosis
C) Weakened bladder muscle tone with urinary incontinence
D) Liver toxicity
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Chapter 27: Trauma Surgery
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Q1) Blunt force to the larynx can result in a fracture and impose immediate airway obstruction.These patients are at risk for a lost airway and may require immediate tracheotomy followed by repair of the fracture when the fracture is unstable or displaced.It is also important to consider that a trauma patient is assumed to have a full stomach;thus these patients are at high risk for aspiration and resultant pneumonia.What is an appropriate nursing action in the event of a lost airway after anesthesia induction and before intubation?
A) Assist the anesthesia provider with securing the airway while applying cricoid pressure.
B) Assist the anesthesia provider by inserting a nasogastric tube and connecting to suction.
C) Leave the room to get the emergency tracheostomy tray and trach tubes.
D) Increase the oxygen delivery and perform a head tilt-chin lift.
Q2) Focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST)may assist with diagnosis in difficult situations.What group of scans is performed and what do they identify?
A) A chest,pelvic,and four abdominal scans;collections of fluid and free air
B) A chest,abdominal,and cervical spine scans;hemorrhage
C) A full body scan;midline shifts
D) A full body CT,MRI,and PET scans;life-threatening and secondary injuries
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Interventional Radiology
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Q1) Reactions to contrast media can occur and the risk varies according to several patient and contrast-related factors.What is the single best predictor of a contrast-related reaction?
A) Allergy to shellfish
B) Allergy to iodine
C) Prior reaction to contrast media
D) A history of anaphylactoid reactions
Q2) An interventional radiology procedure for the correction of a blocked or narrowed blood vessel is a(n):
A) angiogram.
B) arterial embolization.
C) biliary stenting.
D) balloon angioplasty.
Q3) Select the diagnostic and interventional radiology procedure that is not classified as a vascular procedure.
A) Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
B) Carotid interventions
C) Portal hypertension management (TIPS)
D) Uterine artery embolization
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Integrated Health Practices:Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) As a result of the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA),the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)can restrict a marketed supplement only if its use has shown the product is unsafe.New supplements no longer subject to premarket safety evaluations by the FDA.Because herbal products are so readily available and have such widespread media attention,many people think that they can safely self-medicate.Why should the public be aware and educated about dietary supplements and potential harmful effects?
A) There are no regulations establishing criteria for purity or manufacturing procedures.
B) Impurities and unknown substances may be present in these products.
C) The potential exists for variability in the potency of different batches of the same botanical product.
D) All of the options are correct assumptions about botanical supplements.
Q2) Select the alternative or complementary therapy that would be appropriate to integrate into the plan of care in the perioperative setting.
A) Chiropractic manipulation under anesthesia
B) Homeopathic medications integrated into the anesthesia plan
C) Guided imagery before and during anesthesia induction
D) Ayurveda cleansing practices integrated into the skin preparation
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Chapter 30: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
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Q1) Healthcare professionals should employ strategies to reduce their risk of allergic reaction to latex in the perioperative environment.Select a best practice for minimizing the risk of latex allergy development in nonallergic patients,and the risk of reaction in sensitive or allergic patients.
A) Use powder-free gloves that have low levels of protein and chemical allergens.
B) Use sterile oil-based hand creams before donning gloves if latex gloves must be worn.
C) Use nonlatex gloves for activities not likely to involve contact with infectious materials.
D) Wear an OR hat without an elastic band and do not wear rubber tennis shoes.
Q2) Which of the following may be a consequence of high-dose or full-body radiation?
A) Radiation poisoning,heart disease,stroke,and death
B) Nausea,vomiting,diarrhea,and weakness
C) Cancer and mental retardation in children of mothers exposed during pregnancy
D) All of the options are possible consequences of high-dose or full-body radiation
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