Surgical Instrumentation Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Surgical Instrumentation is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the selection, use, handling, and care of the various instruments utilized in a surgical environment. The course covers the identification and classification of surgical instruments according to specialty and procedure, as well as the principles of instrument sterilization and maintenance to ensure patient safety and optimal surgical outcomes. Students will learn techniques for instrument setup, passing, and management within the sterile field, along with troubleshooting common challenges encountered in operative settings. Emphasis is placed on understanding the function of each instrument and its role within specific surgical procedures, preparing students for effective collaboration within the surgical team.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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24 Chapters
1684 Verified Questions
1684 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical technologists and other allied health professionals in perioperative services usually work under the direction of which hospital administrative director?
A) chief executive officer
B) chief financial officer
C) medical director
D) director of nursing
Answer: D
Q2) Surgical technologists may discuss details of their daily experiences as long as they are not in a public place.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The terms entry-level, proficient, and expert practitioners are applied to which of the following?
A) accreditation status of surgical technology programs
B) continuing education (CE) credit categories
C) NBSTSA certification titles
D) AST recommended clinical ladder levels
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is establishing a neutral zone designed to do?
A) diffuse potential violence in high-stress situations
B) prevent sharps injuries during surgical procedures
C) reduce cross-contamination in the OR suite
D) quarantine patients with airborne diseases
Answer: B
Q2) Errors in chart documentation should be erased to prevent confusion by subsequent caregivers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) General consent is obtained by patients admitted to the hospital and covers all routine services and medical treatment in broad terms but not invasive procedures such as surgery.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which area of concern or fear would MOST likely be the main focus for a teenage patient having surgery?
A) abandonment
B) body image
C) insurance coverage
D) mortality
Answer: B
Q2) Anointing of the sick is a practice of Muslim tradition and includes facing the patient toward the holy city of Mecca.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What does Sister Callista Roy define as "all conditions, circumstances, and influences that surround and affect the development and behavior of the person"?
A) adaptation
B) development
C) environment
D) synchronization
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Special Populations
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a surgical procedure on a severely injured trauma patient, which of the following measures is of utmost importance?
A) performing accurate sponge, sharps, and instrument counts
B) prepping all traumatic wounds with a pulse lavage device
C) keeping the patient's spine in alignment during changes in position
D) keeping the patient's body temperature well below 35°C (95°F).
Q2) What is the usual cause of a clavicular fracture of a neonate during a vaginal delivery?
A) cephalopelvic disproportion
B) placenta previa
C) shoulder dystocia
D) use of surgical forceps
Q3) Which organ is MOST often injured in motor vehicle accidents?
A) brain
B) heart
C) liver
D) spleen
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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positive pressure gradient that prevents airborne contaminants in the corridors from entering the OR when doors are opened
A)CSPD
B)Anesthesia cart
C)Hypodermics
D)Suction outlets
E)Pre-op holding
F)Static electricity
G)Fluoroscopy
H)Substerile
I)Laminar flow
J)Laser
Q2) The post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) was previously often referred to as:
A) holding
B) isolation
C) outpatient
D) recovery
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Materials such as plastic, glass, wood, rubber that inhibit the flow of electrons
A)Internet
B)Modern
C)Electrons
D)Alternating
E)Font
F)Insulator
G)Resistance
H)Software
I)Power
J)Ground
K)Port
L)Matter
M)Battery
N)Hardware
O)Scanner
Q2) The bipolar mode of the ESU can be used only to cut tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contamination caused by passage of microorganisms through a sterilized package by way of moisture wicking is termed:
A) saturation
B) strike-through
C) solubilization
D) sequestration
Q2) What is the term used to describe the process of removing all soiled linen, waste, and instruments from the room and cleaning of furniture, floors, or other contaminated surfaces in preparation for opening new supplies for a subsequent case?
A) changeover
B) concurrent cleaning
C) terminal cleaning
D) turnover
Q3) All of the following are environmental specifications for the decontamination room in CSPD EXCEPT:
A) air exchange rate, minimum of 10 per hour
B) humidity between 35% and 72%
C) positive air pressure maintained
D) temperature between 64°F and 70°F
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The treatment for DIC includes:
A) transfusion of fresh frozen plasma
B) cryoprecipitate
C) heparin
D) all of the above
Q2) Exposure of the population to anthrax and smallpox would be a result of which of the following?
A) bioterrorism
B) a chemical release accident
C) infrastructure incidents
D) natural disasters
Q3) How long should a person performing disaster triage take to categorize patients for treatment?
A) 1 minute or less
B) 1-2 minutes
C) 2-5 minutes
D) 5-10 minutes
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of pharmaceutical agent binds to another agent's receptor site, preventing the other agent from binding there and causing its desired effect?
A) additive
B) agonist
C) anaphylactic
D) antagonist
Q2) Magnesium, calcium, and zinc come from which drug source?
A) animal
B) biotechnology
C) mineral
D) plant
Q3) What is the term for the portion of the endotracheal tube that is inflated to create a closed airway system?
A) cuff
B) jacket
C) neck
D) sleeve
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11
Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) By what action does a "cigarette" drain remove fluid from a wound?
A) active
B) capillary
C) suction
D) wicking
Q2) Which device is used unsterilely in surgery for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis?
A) intravascular catheter
B) nerve stimulator
C) pneumatic tourniquet
D) sequential compression device
Q3) Which part of the operating microscope is most proximal to the target tissue?
A) beam splitter
B) hand controls
C) objective lens
D) ocular lenses
Q4) Instruments should be handed to the surgeon in a functional manner that allows the surgeon to use it without repositioning.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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88 Verified Questions
88 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A way in which the surgical technologist can assist the surgeon by keeping the suture strand out of the way during a continuous running closure is by:
A) following
B) pulling
C) tagging
D) tracking
Q2) Which type of suture ties has an attached needle?
A) free tie
B) ligature reel
C) suture ligature
D) tie-on-a-passer
Q3) Kitners, Cottonoids, and laps are surgical:
A) clamps
B) ligatures
C) sponges
D) tourniquets
Q4) Avitene, Gelfoam, and Surgicel are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
A)Apical
B)Lateral recumbent
C)Auscultation
D)Impervious
E)Perineum
F)Neutral zone
G)Tachypnea
H)Perfusion
I)Depilatory
J)Torsion
Q2) Which term describes the condition of a surgical technologist's skin following skin prep?
A) debrided
B) medically clean
C) surgically clean
D) sterile
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Roentgenography, named for the German physicist who discovered it, is better known today as:
A) echocardiography
B) pulse oximetry
C) radiography
D) ultrasonography
Q2) Type of urography in which contrast media is injected directly into the bladder
A)Fluoroscopy
B)Rad
C)Pulse oximeter
D)Signs
E)Digital subtraction
F)Palpation
G)Retrograde
H)Urinalysis
I)CAT scan
J)Contrast
Q3) EEG leads may be placed directly on the surface of the brain during craniotomy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: General Surgery
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which surgical procedure would the Buie pile forceps be used?
A) appendectomy
B) breast biopsy
C) cholecystectomy
D) hemorrhoidectomy
Q2) Which of the following is the MOST common permanent colostomy?
A) end
B) loop
C) end-loop
D) sigmoid
Q3) End-to-end, end-to-side, side-to-side, and Roux-en-Y are techniques for:
A) bowel anastomosis
B) mastectomy wound closure
C) mesh placement in herniorrhaphy
D) surgical skin prep solution application
Q4) A gastrostomy can be created by all of the following methods EXCEPT:
A) open
B) endovascular
C) laparoscopic
D) percutaneous
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Delivery of the placenta is the conclusion of which stage of labor?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
Q2) Which of the following is routinely done first in a basic gynecologic laparoscopy that may require a small separate setup and glove change before proceeding?
A) cervical conization
B) pelvic ultrasonography
C) insertion of uterine manipulator
D) injection of methylene blue into IV
Q3) Which of the following procedures would likely be assigned a Class III or Class IV wound and may require aerobic and anaerobic culture tubes?
A) dilation and curettage
B) radical hysterectomy
C) cesarean section delivery
D) marsupialization of Bartholin's cyst
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the opening created in the outer tunic for insertion of the infusion cannula for excision of vitreous?
A) dacryocystorhinostomy
B) iridotomy
C) sclerotomy
D) vitrectomy
Q2) Tetracaine drops are used in ophthalmologic procedures to:
A) fill the posterior cavity to prevent retinal detachment
B) numb the surface of the eye and surrounding structures
C) irrigate the cornea to prevent drying and abrasions
D) flush traumatic laceration tissue to prevent post-op SSI
Q3) How would a definitive diagnosis of detached retina be obtained if hemorrhage is present in the eye?
A) angiography
B) CT scan
C) direct view with ophthalmoscope
D) surgical vitrectomy
Q4) Donor corneas must be screened for HIV, HBV, and CJD prior to transplant.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Baron, Frazier, House, and Rosen are names of which type of instrument?
A) forceps
B) knife
C) pick
D) suction
Q2) In which instrument tray would you find a Ballenger swivel knife, Cottle elevator, Knight scissors, and Takahashi forceps?
A) BMT
B) FESS
C) SMR
D) T&A
Q3) What is the term for creating a surgical opening into the tympanic membrane?
A) antrostomy
B) myringotomy
C) septoplasty
D) turbinectomy
Q4) PE tubes placed during myringotomy procedures must be removed following resolution of otitis media.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of sterile drape is commonly used for oral and maxillofacial procedures?
A) plastic incise
B) thyroid
C) pediatric laparotomy
D) U-drape
Q2) AP projection x-ray that shows the hard palate, nasal septum, orbital floor, and zygoma
A)Gingiva
B)Enophthalmos
C)Panoramic
D)Pulp
E)Alveolar process
F)Weider
G)Dentin
H)Caldwell
I)Malocclusion
J)Molars
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following letters represents the incisional configuration MOST commonly used for scar revision procedures?
A) C
B) H
C) U
D) Z
Q2) Patients with cleft palates may have difficulty sucking, swallowing, or forming sounds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the term for the process of removing necrotic tissue or eschar prior to skin grafting?
A) debridement
B) defacement
C) degradation
D) dessication
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which surgical approach would the latissimus dorsi, internal and external oblique muscles be transected for access to the operative site?
A) inguinal oblique
B) suprapubic
C) subcostal flank
D) transverse abdominal
Q2) Which suture configuration is used to anastomose vessels in transplants?
A) fine, absorbable, single-armed
B) fine, nonabsorbable, double-armed
C) heavy, absorbable, single-armed
D) heavy, nonabsorbable, double-armed
Q3) Which signal should alert the surgical team that prostate capsule perforation is imminent and may conclude the procedure?
A) coughing
B) flatulence
C) groaning
D) leg jerking
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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty EXCEPT:
A) chronic arthritis pain
B) humeral shaft fracture
C) osteonecrosis of humeral head
D) moderate impingement syndrome
Q2) Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo:
A) acromioplasty
B) external fixation
C) open reduction, internal fixation
D) total shoulder arthroplasty
Q3) What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint?
A) acromium
B) acetabulum
C) tuberosity
D) trochanter
Q4) Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion are:
A) indications for Bankart repair
B) normal outcomes of total shoulder repair
C) serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty
D) treated conservatively with steroids and physical therapy
23
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The coronary arteries originate from the:
A) ascending aorta
B) descending aorta
C) pulmonary artery
D) subclavian artery
Q2) What is the term for a collapsed lung?
A) atelectasis
B) decortication
C) emphysema
D) pneumonitis
Q3) Where is the apex of the heart located within the mediastinum?
A) superiorly on the right side
B) inferiorly on the right side
C) superiorly on the left side
D) inferiorly on the left side
Q4) Aortic valve stenosis and aortic regurgitation are often as a result of :
A) rheumatic fever
B) tuberculosis
C) heart block
D) angina
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peripheral vessel angioplasty stents may be made of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) titanium
B) fascia lata
C) polypropylene
D) stainless steel mesh
Q2) What are the operative mortality rates of patients with ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and shock?
A) 10% to 20%
B) 20% to 40%
C) 50% to 60%
D) > 80%
Q3) Which arterial aneurysm is more likely to rupture due to lack of detection over time?
A) femoral
B) iliac
C) popliteal
D) radial
Q4) Suture pledgets are used to bolster anastomosis sites when tissue is friable.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which surgical procedure would petroleum gauze nasal packing be used as part of the dressing?
A) burr holes for evacuation of subdural hematoma
B) carpal tunnel release
C) lumbar microdiskectomy
D) transsphenoidal hypophysectomy
Q2) Mode of electrosurgical energy frequently used for thermal hemostasis in and around delicate neural structures
A)Paraplegia
B)Brain stem
C)Exothermic
D)Radiculopathy
E)Collateral flow
F)CUSA
G)Bipolar
H)Tunneler
I)Brain abscess
J)Stereotaxis
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