Supply Chain Management Exam Bank - 1577 Verified Questions

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Supply Chain Management

Exam Bank

Course Introduction

Supply Chain Management explores the strategic and operational processes involved in the flow of goods, services, and information from raw materials to end customers. The course covers key concepts such as procurement, logistics, inventory management, demand forecasting, supplier relationships, and distribution networks. Emphasis is placed on the importance of coordination and integration at each stage of the supply chain to optimize efficiency, reduce costs, and enhance customer satisfaction. Through case studies and practical examples, students learn to analyze supply chain challenges, implement effective solutions, and understand the impact of technology and globalization on supply chain operations.

Recommended Textbook

Decision Sciences and Operations Management Coursemate 4th Edition by David A. Collier

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Chapter 1: Goods, Services, and Operations Management

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Q1) Which of the following is not a current challenge to OM?

A)globalization

B)technology

C)quality

D)mass production

Answer: D

Q2) The following terms -- interchangeability of parts, division of labor, highly repetitive tasks -- best relate to a focus on

A)quality

B)efficiency

C)quality.

D)time

Answer: B

Q3) Many business-to-business manufacturers think of the physical good they produce as peripheral to their service offerings.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: Value Chains

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Q1) From the pre- and post-service view, transportation service, training service and consulting and technical services would be considered

A)pre-production services

B)a production processes

C)post-production services

D)value creation

Answer: C

Q2) Differentiate a supply chain from a value chain.

Answer: A supply chain is the portion of the value chain that focuses primarily on the physical movement of goods and materials and the supporting flows of information and financial transactions through the supply, production and distribution processes. A value chain is broader in scope than a supply chain and encompasses all pre- and post-production services to create and deliver the entire customer benefit package. A value chain views an organization from the customer's perspective -- the integration of goods and services to create value, while a supply chain is more internally-focused on the creation of physical goods. The value chain idea is more applicable to services where service, information and entertainment play an increasing role in the total bundle of goods and services, that is, the customer benefit package.

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Chapter 3: Measuring Performance in Operations

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Q1) The balanced scorecard model uses the same categories as the Baldrige Award.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Customer satisfaction rating increases as time-on-hold waiting decreases is an example of

A)productivity index

B)interlinking

C)value of a loyal customer

D)operational definitions

Answer: B

Q3) A family rents videos from a local video store. On average, they spend $80.00 a month. The store's contribution margin is 45 percent and the average customer defection is 40 percent. Determine the value of a loyal customer.

Answer: VLC = P*CM*RF*BLC VLC= 80).45)12)1/.4) = $1,080.00

Q4) The only important measurement category in business is financial.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 4: Operations Strategy

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Q1) A flexibility strategy requires capacity for both design and demand flexibility.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The customer benefit package that a firm designs is meant to appeal to all customers.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Requirements that are expected in a good or service are called

A)Order Qualifiers

B)Order Satisfiers

C)Order Exciters

D)Order Winners

Q4) ____ attributes are most likely to be experienced by the customer when using estate planning services.

A)Search attributes

B)Experience attributes

C)Credence attributes

D)Order winners

Q5) What are competitive priorities? Provide some examples of how OM influences the five major types of competitive priorities.

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Chapter 5: Technology and Operations Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Computer integrated manufacturing systems combine hardware, software, database management and communications to automate and control a broad range of production activities.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A firm must make a choice between a manual and a semi-automatic production process for a new product line. Following are the costs for each process: \[\begin{array} { l c c }

\text { Alternatve } & \text { Fixed Cost } & \text { Variable Cost } \\

\text { Manual }& \$ 100,000 & \$ 75.00 \\

\text { Semi-Automatic } & \$ 300,000 & \$ 50.00 \end{array}\]

a. Above what break-even production quantity would the semi-automatic alternative be preferred?

b. Which process is more economical for an annual production volume of 5,000 units?

c. Which process is more economical for an annual production volume of 10,000 units?

Q3) Describe the three stages of the technology development and adoption process.

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Chapter 6: Goods and Service Design

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Sample Questions

Q1) Differentiate between high customer contact systems and low customer contact systems. Include examples of each.

Q2) Which of the following is not a principal dimension of the servicescape?

A)Ambient condition

B)Process and job design

C)Spatial layout and functionality

D)Signs, symbols and artifacts

Q3) The servicescape refers to the place where a service is located.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A bank provides four sequential services to its customers. Over the last quarter, the reliability of each of these services was 92%, 97%, 95% and 90%. What is their overall reliability?

A)0.9700

B)0.9350

C)0.7630

D)0.7400

Q5) Describe the Taguchi loss function. Contrast it to the "goal post" model.

Q6) List the five elements of a service delivery system.

Q7) Define reliability. Include the four major elements.

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Chapter 7: Process Selection, Design, and Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) In using the Product-Process Matrix, the most appropriate match between products and processes occurs along the diagonal of the matrix.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In designing processes, one often starts at the detail level and moves progressively toward the aggregate.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Automobile factories and hospital laboratory work are examples of

A)Projects

B)Job shop

C)Flow shop processes

D)Continuous flow processes

Q4) Improving process designs nearly always focus on decreasing costs.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What are some management strategies to improve process designs?

Q6) Explain Little's Law and how it can be used.

Q7) Define a value stream map. How does this differ from a regular process map?

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Facility and Work Design

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Sample Questions

Q1) Changes in goods and services for a firm's customer benefit package do not impact facility layouts.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Teams are a way of accomplishing job enrichment.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Product layouts are less flexible than process layouts.

A)True

B)False

Q4) ____ is vertical expansion of job duties to give the worker more responsibility.

A)Job enlargement

B)Job rotation

C)Job enrichment

D)Job design

Q5) All of the following are common objectives of layout studies except

A)Minimize delays in materials handling and customer movement

B)Minimize the number of workstations

C)Provide for good housekeeping and maintenance

D)Maintain flexibility

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Chapter 9: Supply Chain Design

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Sample Questions

Q1) In designing an efficient supply chain, an organization would need high levels of inventory stored in many small distribution centers.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Explain the importance of the bullwhip effect. What can managers do to reduce it?

Q3) Which of the following is true regarding order amplification?

A)The fluctuation of orders is larger than the fluctuation in sales.

B)The amplitude of order quantity over time is smaller than the variation of sales.

C)The less the uncertainty, the greater the amplification in orders.

D)The amplification is greatest near the customer.

Q4) Differentiate between a push system and a pull system. Include the advantages of each.

Q5) The metric "perfect order fulfillment" is often used to measure ____.

A)Delivery reliability

B)Responsiveness

C)Supply chain efficiency

D)Supply chain financial performance

Q6) Explain the difference between a supply chain and a value chain.

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Chapter 10: Capacity Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pharmacy lab is used for only two high volume prescriptions, A and B. The time per setup in minutes), processing time in seconds), order size in units) is given below. Using the information, determine the total capacity required for this lab in minutes.

\[\begin{array} { c c c c }

\text { Prescriptian } & \text { Setup Time minutes) } & \text { Processing Time secands) } & \text { Order Size units) } \\

\hline\text { A } & 75 & 84 & 700 \\

\text { B } & 60 & 54 & 1,500 \end{array}\]

Q2) A food packaging plant has planned shipments over the next six weeks of 9500, 8500, 10000, 8800, 8200, and 9000. The plant normally operates 2 shifts per day, five days per week. During each shift, 1000 food products can be packaged and ready to ship. What is the plant's weekly capacity? At what percentage of capacity is the plant actually operating?

Q3) Constraints determine the throughput of a facility.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is safety capacity? Discuss reasons for using it.

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Chapter 11: Forecasting and Demand Planning

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Sample Questions

Q1) In forecasting, irregular variation that is explainable can normally be discarded.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is not a statistical method?

A)Delphi

B)Exponential smoothing

C)Moving average

D)Linear regression

Q3) Exponential smoothing models "never forget" past data as long as the smoothing constant is strictly between 0 and 1. In contrast, moving average methods "completely forget" all data older than k periods in the past.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Define regression analysis and explain how it is an approach to forecasting.

Q5) As the value of k is increased in a moving average forecasting model, the forecast reacts more slowly to recent changes in the time series.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Managing Inventories

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Sample Questions

Q1) An auto parts store open 350 days per year) in a major metropolitan area reviews its inventory on a periodic basis using a computer system. It has recently been experiencing some problems with a particular part, a tune?up kit. The kit is bought from a U.S. manufacturer. The annual demand for these kits is 10,500. The cost to carry one kit in inventory for one year is $4.90, and the cost to place a replenishment order is $17 per order. Replenishment lead time is 4 days.

a. What should be the review period for these tune-up kits?

b. What is the optimal replenishment level without safety stock?

c. What is the optimal replenishment level with safety stock, assuming a 95 percent service level?

Q2) Which one of the following statements is true?

A)Inventory is any physical asset held for future use or sale.

B)When using ABC analysis, "C" items should be reviewed most frequently.

C)Dependent demand is directly related to the demand of other stock keeping units and can be calculated without needing to be forecast.

D)Stockouts occur in a Fixed Quantity System( FQS) whenever the lead-time demand exceeds the replenishment level (M).

Q3) Explain the ABC inventory classification.

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Chapter 13: Resource Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) A POQ for a one-week time period is equivalent to LFL lot sizing.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The words "product family," "budget allocation" and "long-term" fit best with which level of the generic framework for resource planning?

A)Aggregate planning - Level 1

B)Disaggregation - Level 2

C)Execution - Level 3

D)Capacity requirements planning

Q3) The direct inputs to material requirements planning include all of the following except

A)Master Production Schedule

B)Inventory, SKU, and Transaction files

C)Bills of Material

D)Capacity Requirements Plan

Q4) Describe the options that managers have for developing aggregate plans to respond to fluctuating demand.

Q5) Differentiate between a level production strategy and a chase demand strategy.

Q6) What are the components of an MRP record?

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Operations Scheduling and Sequencing

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Sample Questions

Q1) A company is faced with seven tasks that have to be processed through two work centers, work center I and then center II. Assume work center I works continuously and that they are using Johnson's rule. Work centers need not change over to new jobs at the same time. Data appears below in hours:

\[\begin{array} { | c | c | c | }

\hline \text { ask } & \text { Wark Center I } & \text { Work Center II } \\

\hline \text { A } & 2.58 & 3.47 \\

\hline \mathrm { B } & 1.66 & 5.84 \\

\hline C & 2.71 & 2.41 \\

\hline \mathrm { D } & 5.52 & 1.99 \\

\hline E & 3.38 & 7.62 \\

\hline \mathrm { F } & 5.22 & 1.73 \\

\hline \text { G } & 2.89 & 1.11 \\

\hline \end{array}\]

a. What is the sequence of tasks?

b. What is the time in hours to complete all the tasks in both work centers?

c. What is the total idle time in hours for work center I?

d. What is the total idle time in hours for work center II?

Q2) What four 4) decisions are considered in designing an appointment system?

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Chapter 15: Quality Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Using color coded wires to reduce mistakes associated with assembling complex electronic products is an example of poka-yoke.

A)True

B)False

Q2) "Fitness for use" relates to how well quality meets design targets and tolerances.

A)True

B)False

Q3) GE's Six Sigma problem solving approach employs five phases. Which is not one of the phases?

A)Define (D)

B)Measure( M)

C)Analyze (A)

D)Improvise (I)

Q4) Performance standards in services are analogous to manufacturing specifications.

A)True

B)False

Q5) List the three principles of total quality and why they are important.

Q6) Discuss Kaizen and how it differs from a Kaizen Blitz.

Q7) Describe the rationale underlying ISO 9000:2000.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Quality Control and Spc

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Sample Questions

Q1) Over several days, 25 samples of 100 items each were tested for electrical resistance. A total of 60 items failed. Determine \(\bar { p }\) and the control limits for a p chart.

Q2) A steel company is interested in determining if a particular process in its mini?mill is capable of meeting customer expectations. The thickness of steel has an upper limit of .540 mm and a lower limit of .480 mm. The process has a standard deviation of .02 mm.

a. What is the process capability index (C<sub>p</sub>) for this process?

b. What must the standard deviation of the process be changed to for the C<sub>p</sub> to equal 1.00?

Q3) If process quality approaches six sigma levels, then standard types of control charts are not useful.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In general, discuss how to interpret control charts.

Q5) Quality at the source means that quality is controlled by

A)People responsible for the work

B)Quality control managers

C)Front line supervisors

D)Top management

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Chapter 17: Lean Operating Systems

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Q1) Explain the 5Ss.

Q2) A goal of total productive maintenance is to have zero accidents in the entire life cycle of the operating system.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Ford Motor Company has decided to switch to a pull system of manufacturing and distribution for its vehicles. Which one of the following is most likely to occur?

A)Inventory levels will increase.

B)Component parts and subassemblies will be replenished only when needed.

C)Dealer parking lot space will need to be increased.

D)Finished goods inventory will decrease, but raw materials and work-in-process inventories will increase.

Q4) Total productive maintenance (TPM) seeks to do all of the following except ____.

A)Maximize equipment effectiveness

B)Create worker ownership

C)Foster continuous improvement efforts

D)Enable multiple products in small batches to be run on the same equipment

Q5) Contrast batching with single-piece flow.

Q6) Compare and contrast a push system vs. a pull system.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Project Management

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Q1) The critical path is the sequence of activities that takes the longest time.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A statement of work would be developed in the "Organize" step of the project life cycle.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Define critical path and explain how it is identified once a project schedule is calculated

Q4) Describe the four major steps in the project-planning process.

Q5) In which stage in the project life cycle would crashing likely be performed?

A)Define

B)Plan

C)Organize

D)Control

Q6) We should not crash activities on the critical path.

A)True

B)False

Q7) Explain the stages of the project life cycle.

Q8) Explain the role of the project managers and some principles for success.

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Chapter 19: Work Measurement, Learning Curves, and Standards

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Q1) Personal fatigue and delay allowances are added to ____ to arrive at ____.

A)Standard time; normal time

B)Standard time; desired time

C)Normal time; desired time

D)Normal time; standard time

Q2) For a work sampling study, there is a 95% probability that the processing time of an activity has an error of less than 0.06 minutes. The best estimate we have for "p" is 0.30. Determine the size sample that should be used for this work sampling study.

Q3) Locksmith Inc. has an order from a bank for 50 specially designed safes, one for each bank branch. It is estimated that the first safe will require 75 hours of shop time and a 90% learning curve is expected. The labor rate is $15.00 per hour and the pricing policy of the company is to triple the labor cost of the order.

a. How many labor hours should the 50th unit require?

b. How many labor hours will the whole order require?

c. What is the customer's price for each safe?

Q4) Explain the use of regression analysis in establishing standard times.

Q5) Discuss the two different sides of the debate over work standards.

Page 21

Q6) Define work sampling. Give both manufacturing and service applications.

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Chapter 20: Queuing Analysis

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Q1) The multiple-server queuing model assumes jockeying can take place.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Discuss the seven key assumptions for the multiple-server waiting line model.

Q3) Describe at least four queue disciplines.

Q4) ____ is the use of a criterion that allows new arrivals to displace members of the current queue and become the first to receive service.

A)Shortest Processing Time SPT)

B)A random queue discipline

C)Preemption

D)A reservation

Q5) A sandwich shop near campus has a special counter, open from 11 am to 1 pm, which is used exclusively for selling pre-made sandwiches. This is much faster than making sandwiches to order at lunch time. The clerk can handle a customer in about one minute. Customers arrive at a rate of 40 per hour on average.

a. How long in minutes) does a customer have to wait?

b. What percentage of the time is the employee working?

c. What is the average number of customers waiting in line?

d. What is the probability of there being 3 or more customers in the system?

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Chapter 21: Modeling Using Linear Programming

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Q1) Solutions to a linear programming model that satisfy all constraints are referred to as optimal.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Excel solver can handle basic linear programming but not the special transportation problem.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Constant terms in the objective function are called object function ____.

A)Variables

B)Decision solutions

C)Coefficients

D)Constraints

Q4) Neither the R<sub>m</sub>, increase in the total production levels during Month 'm' compared to Month m-1, or the D<sub>m</sub>, decrease in the total production level during Month 'm' compared to Month m-1, can be negative because only positive changes would be permitted due to the non-negativity requirement.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 22: Simulation

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Q1) All of the following are verification techniques except A)Developing logical flow charts

B)Testing the probability distribution used to drive the simulation and behavior of system entities

C)Breaking the problem into smaller pieces or modules

D)Codes can be checked by others, not just the programmer

Q2) Under what situation would an analytical queuing model be used? When would a simulation model be used?

Q3) Face validity involves asking people familiar with the real system to evaluate the assumptions and logic of a model.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Differentiate and explain the importance of verification and validation.

Q5) Explain the major differences between a fixed-time and a next-event simulation model. Include advantages and disadvantages of each.

Q6) Discuss three advantages and three disadvantages of simulation models.

Q7) A simulator is a general purpose simulation model.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 23: Work Measurement, Learning Curves, and Standards

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Q1) In what type of situation would the expected monetary value criterion be useful? In what type situation would it not be useful?

Q2) Describe how the following criteria are applied to a decision problem in which the object is maximization.

a.Maximax

b.Maximin

c.Minimax regrets

Q3) Making decisions in an emergency room of a hospital is an example of a decision analysis situation.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A model that starts with the future-most point and moves toward the current time period is called a ____.

A)Payoff table

B)Maximax decision

C)Decision tree

D)Satisficing

Q5) Define the four major elements of a decision problem.

Q6) Differentiate between uncertainty and risk.

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