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Supply Chain Analytics focuses on the application of data analysis, modeling, and quantitative techniques to optimize decision-making within supply chain systems. This course introduces students to tools and methodologies used for demand forecasting, inventory optimization, supplier selection, transportation management, and risk mitigation. Emphasis is placed on leveraging data-driven insights to improve efficiency, reduce costs, and enhance the agility of supply chains. Through case studies, real-world examples, and hands-on projects, students develop the analytical skills necessary to address current and emerging challenges in global supply chain management.
Recommended Textbook
Supply Chain Management Strategy Planning and Operation 6th Edition by Sunil Chopra
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Q1) Describe the cycle view of the processes within a supply chain.
Answer: The cycle view divides the supply chain into a series of 4 cycles between the 5 different stages of a supply chain. The cycles are the customer order cycle, replenishment cycle, manufacturing cycle and procurement cycle. The customer order cycle occurs at the customer/retailer interface and includes all processes directly involved in receiving and filling the customer. The replenishment cycle occurs at the retailer/distributor interface and includes all processes involved in replenishing retailer inventory. The manufacturing cycle typically occurs at the distributor/manufacturer (or retailer/manufacturer) interface and includes all processes involved in replenishing distributor (or retailer) inventory. The procurement cycle occurs at the manufacturer/supplier interface and includes all processes necessary to ensure that the materials are available for manufacturing according to schedule.
Q2) Which of the following statements about push processes is accurate?
A) They may also be referred to as speculative processes.
B) Execution is initiated in response to customer orders.
C) At the time of execution, demand is known with certainty.
D) They may also be referred to as reactive processes.
Answer: A
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Q1) Sketch the generic value chain for a company and briefly describe the contributions of each of its elements.
Answer: The value chain diagram from the text is:
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The value chain begins with New Product Development, which creates specifications for the product. Marketing and Sales generate demand by publicizing the customer priorities that the products and services will satisfy. Marketing also brings customer input back to new product development. Operations transforms inputs to outputs to create the product according to new product specifications. Distribution either takes the product to the customer or brings the customer to the product. Service responds to customer requests during or after the sale. These are core processes or functions that must be performed for a successful sale.
Finance, accounting, information technology, and human resources support and facilitate the functioning of the value chain.
Q2) Intercompany scope is broader than intrafunctional scope.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The places in the supply chain network where product is stored, assembled, or fabricated are known as
A) facilities.
B) inventory.
C) transportation.
D) information.
Answer: A
Q2) What is the range of sale price of the gasoline?
A) 7.51
B) 10
C) 0.69
D) 22.54
Answer: C
Q3) The two major types of facilities are
A) distribution sites and storage sites.
B) production sites and distribution sites.
C) production sites and storage sites.
D) retail sites and distribution sites.
Answer: C
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Q1) In general, traditional brick and mortar retail sales outperform online sales along the dimension of
A) product variety.
B) request fulfillment.
C) time to market for a new product.
D) order status tracking.
Q2) Which distribution network design is being used when inventory is stored locally at retail stores and customers walk into the retail store or place an order online or on the phone and pick it up at the retail store?
A) Manufacturer storage with direct shipping
B) Distributor storage with package carrier delivery
C) Distributor storage with last mile delivery
D) Retail storage with customer pickup
Q3) A customer does not necessarily want the highest level of performance along all dimensions of customer service, including response time, product variety, product availability, customer experience, order visibility, and returnability.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Facility location decisions have a long-term impact on a supply chain's performance because it is cost effective to shut down a facility or move it to a different location.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The facilities in a supply chain network must
A) at least maximize total logistics cost.
B) at least equal the number that maximizes total logistics cost.
C) at least equal the number that minimizes total logistics cost.
D) at least minimize total logistics cost.
Q3) Supply chain network design decisions classified as facility location are concerned with
A) what processes are performed at each facility.
B) where facilities should be located.
C) how much capacity should be allocated to each facility.
D) what markets each facility should serve and which supply sources should feed each facility.
Q4) Explain the two situations in which managers use network design models.
Q5) Describe the four phases in the framework for network design decisions.
Q6) Describe the factors that influence supply chain network design decisions.
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Q1) The degree of demand and price uncertainty has a significant influence on the appropriate portfolio of long- and short-term warehousing space that a firm should carry.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The present value of a stream of cash flows is what that stream is worth in today's dollars.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Decisions made during the supply chain design phase regarding significant investments in the supply chain, such as the number and size of plants to build, the number of trucks to purchase or lease, and whether to build or lease warehouse space,
A) can be altered in the short term.
B) cannot be altered in the short term.
C) cannot be altered in the long term.
D) can only be altered in the short term.
Q4) The value of flexibility increases with an increase in uncertainty.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Use a simple moving average of three periods to forecast the demand for July. What is the forecast?
A) 67
B) 58
C) 48.5
D) 45.3
Q2) Leaders in many supply chains have started moving toward collaborative forecasting to improve their ability to match supply and demand.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Long-term forecasts have a larger standard deviation of error relative to the mean than short-term forecasts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Time series forecasting methods are the most difficult methods to implement.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the basic characteristics of forecasts that managers should be aware.
Q6) Discuss key issues of forecasting in practice.
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Q1) What information does a master production schedule provide that an aggregate plan does not?
A) Expense information for the planning period
B) Revenue information for the planning period
C) Specific product family production information
D) A specific machine schedule for each order
Q2) A highly effective tool for a company to use when it tries to maximize profits while being subjected to a series of constraints is
A) aggregate programming.
B) distribution programming.
C) production programming.
D) linear programming.
Q3) The strategy where workforce (capacity) is kept stable but the number of hours worked is varied over time in an effort to synchronize production with demand is the A) flexibility strategy.
B) chase strategy.
C) level strategy.
D) mixed strategy.
Q4) Discuss key issues to be considered when implementing aggregate planning.
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Q1) In this approach to managing capacity, a firm uses a temporary workforce during the peak season to increase capacity to match demand.
A) Time flexibility from workforce
B) Use of subcontracting
C) Use of dual facilities-specialized and flexible
D) Use of seasonal workforce
Q2) Which approach to capacity management would schedule the workforce so that the available capacity better matches demand?
A) Time flexibility from workforce
B) Use of seasonal workforce
C) Use of subcontracting
D) Use of dual facilities-dedicated and flexible
Q3) A firm can vary supply of product by controlling production capacity and inventory.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the importance of collaboration within a supply chain when performing aggregate planning.
Q5) Discuss the impact of promotion on demand within a supply chain.
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Q1) What is the impact of lack of coordination on the performance of the supply chain?
Q2) The bullwhip effect moves a supply chain away from the efficient frontier by increasing cost and decreasing responsiveness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the bullwhip effect and how does it relate to lack of coordination in the supply chain?
Q4) Improperly structured sales force incentives
A) help create stable demand.
B) have very little effect on the timing of customer orders.
C) tend to create spikes in customer orders.
D) ensure that orders are quickly and accurately entered and communicated to other affected supply chain processes.
Q5) The full benefit of coordination is achieved when
A) all adjacent pairs of supply chain partners are coordinated.
B) the entire supply chain network is coordinated.
C) the POS data is shared with the manufacturer.
D) the POS data is shared with the retailer.
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Q1) To reduce the optimal lot size by a factor of k, the fixed order cost S must be reduced by a factor of k.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which cost should reflect the incremental change in space cost due to changing cycle inventory?
A) Cost of capital
B) Obsolescence (spoilage) cost
C) Handling cost
D) Occupancy cost
Q3) The quantity of inventory that a stage of the supply chain either produces or purchases at a given time is
A) an order.
B) a job.
C) a shipment.
D) a lot or batch.
Q4) Discuss the role of cycle inventory in the supply chain.
Q5) A key to reducing cycle inventory is the reduction of lot size.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The expected shortage per replenishment cycle (ESC) is the average units of demand that are satisfied from inventory in stock per replenishment cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Continuous review policies for inventory replenishment require safety inventory to cover demand during
A) lead time only.
B) the review interval only.
C) both lead time and the review interval.
D) neither lead time or the review interval.
Q3) A shortage occurs in a replenishment cycle
A) only if the demand during the lead time exceeds the ROP.
B) only if the demand during the lead time is less than the ROP.
C) only if the demand during the lead time exceeds the average demand.
D) only if the demand during the lead time is less than the average demand.
Q4) Cycle inventory is inventory carried to satisfy demand that exceeds the amount forecasted for a given period.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An increase in forecast accuracy increases both the overstocked and understocked quantity and decreases a firm's profits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the previous problem, the manufacturer performs additional market research. Based on this research, they determine that they can increase the price to $150 and are able to reduce the standard deviation of the forecast to = 30. At the same time, they have made an arrangement with an outlet store that will purchase unsold equipment for $60 each. How will these changes affect the cost of overstocking, cost of understocking, optimal cycle service level and optimal order size?
Q3) The professor's suitcase has room for 50 boxes of souvenirs. What is his expected profit?
A) $10,241
B) $11,975
C) $9,863
D) $8,127
Q4) Explain how tailored postponement can improve profitability.
Q5) Explain the relationship between product availability and supply chain profitability.
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Q1) The cost of various facilities in the shipper's supply chain network is
A) transportation cost.
B) inventory cost.
C) facility cost.
D) processing cost.
Q2) ________ carriers offer a very fast and fairly expensive mode of transportation for cargo.
A) Air
B) Truck
C) Rail
D) Water
Q3) The most common problems in the use of IT in transportation relate to
A) cross-enterprise collaboration.
B) network security.
C) vibration-resistant hardware.
D) maintaining an Internet connection while in motion.
Q4) Milk runs reduce outbound transportation costs by consolidating large shipments.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain why transportation systems should be tailored.
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Q1) If each Jerk Store location is acting independently, how many packets of seasoning should they stock?
A) 2840
B) 3069
C) 3233
D) 3678
Q2) Using the output from supplier scoring and assessment to identify the appropriate supplier(s) is
A) procurement.
B) sourcing.
C) supplier scoring and assessment.
D) supplier selection.
Q3) Cost of Goods Sold (COGS) represents
A) less than 20 percent of sales for most major manufacturers.
B) less than 50 percent of sales for most major manufacturers.
C) well over 50 percent of sales for most major manufacturers.
D) well over 80 percent of sales for most major manufacturers.
Q4) Why should replenishment lead time be considered in supplier selection decisions?
Q5) What are some of the benefits of effective sourcing decisions?
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Q1) Customers will have a negative perception of revenue management tactics if they are simply presented as a mechanism for extracting maximum revenue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Revenue management may be defined as
A) the use of differential costing based on product or capacity availability to decrease supply chain cost.
B) the use of differential costing based on customer segment, time of use, and product or capacity availability to increase profitability.
C) the use of differential pricing based on customer segment, time of use, and product or capacity availability to decrease supply chain surplus.
D) the use of differential pricing based on customer segment, time of use, and product or capacity availability to increase supply chain surplus.
Q3) Explain how revenue management is beneficial.
Q4) Unused capacity from the past is extremely valuable.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) McDonough and Braungart (2002) discuss the importance of ________ design if we are to truly limit the landfill inventory generated by a supply chain.
A) cradle to grave
B) cradle to cradle
C) manageable sustainability
D) recyclable content
Q2) A(n) ________ measure of performance is more effective at capturing improvement.
A) scope
B) relative
C) absolute
D) statistical
Q3) Most supply chain design innovations that lower transportation costs paradoxically tend to increase fuel consumption and emissions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In reality, there are no actions in a supply chain that improve both sustainability and supply chain surplus.
A)True
B)False
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