Substantive Criminal Law Final Exam
Course Introduction
Substantive Criminal Law explores the fundamental principles, definitions, and doctrines that determine what constitutes criminal behavior and the legal elements needed for prosecution and punishment. The course examines key areas such as actus reus (guilty act), mens rea (guilty mind), statutory interpretation, and various types of crimes including offenses against persons, property, and public order. Students analyze landmark case law, defenses to criminal liability, and the policy rationales underlying criminal statutes, gaining a comprehensive understanding of how the law defines, prohibits, and sanctions criminal conduct.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Law 12th Edition by Joel Samaha
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13 Chapters
1364 Verified Questions
1364 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Criminal Law and Punishment in Ussociety: An Overview
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Sample Questions
Q1) An offense which is punishable by one year or more in a state prison is called a A) common-law crime.
B) code offense.
C) misdemeanor.
D) felony.
Answer: D
Q2) Case citations always follow the same order.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Crime that is inherently wrong or evil,like murder and rape,is called_______mala Answer: in se
Q4) Violations of federal and state agency rules are called administrative crimes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) Crimes and torts are similar.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Constitutional Limits on Criminal Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the law that criminalizes an act that was innocent when it was committed?
A) bill of attainder law
B) forfeiture law
C) ex post facto law
D) bill of particulars
Answer: C
Q2) Most state constitutions include a ban on retroactive statutes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which amendment to the Constitution ensure that people aren't subject to cruel and unusual punishment?
A) the First Amendment
B) the Fourth Amendment
C) the Eighth Amendment
D) the Fourteenth Amendment
Answer: C
Q4) Defendants in criminal cases enjoy a presumption of . Answer: innocence
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Chapter 3: The Criminal Act: The First Principle of Criminal Liability
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Failing to report child abuse may constitute a criminal omission.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Bill would not be guilty of a crime in most states,because most states require
A) knowing possession
B) mere possession
C) concurrent possession
D) constructive possession
Answer: A
Q3) Status can arise in two ways: (1)it can result from a prior voluntary act or (2)
A) it can result from bad intent.
B) it can result from passive actions.
C) it can result from no act at all,such as sex,age,sexual orientation,race,and ethnicity.
D) it can result from fantasy.
Answer: C
Q4) The requirement that intentions have to turn into deeds is called _______________ criminality.
Answer: manifest
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Chapter 4: The General Principles of Criminal Liability: Mens
Rea, Concurrence, Ignorance, and Mistake
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the only direct evidence of a defendant's mens rea?
A) a confession
B) a motive
C) a picture
D) a polygraph examination
Q2) Discuss what is required for mistake to be a defense.How does this relate to the types of culpability in the Model Penal Code? Be sure to discuss the debate over whether to call mistakes a defense.
Q3) According to the Model Penal Code,what is the most blameworthy mental state?
A) purposely
B) knowingly
C) recklessly
D) negligently
Q4) The connection between Ahmad's intention to stab Tom and the criminal act of stabbing him is an example of
A) concurrence
B) mens rea
C) actus reus
D) mistake
6
Q5) A is something that causes a person to act.
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Chapter 5: Defenses to Criminal Liability I: Justifications
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the four elements of self-defense requires that the defender didn't start or provoke the attack.What is the name of this element?
A) necessity
B) proportionality
C) nonaggressor
D) reasonable belief
Q2) Which defense is based on the high valued placed on individual autonomy in a free society?
A) perfect
B) justification
C) excuse
D) consent
Q3) One purpose of competency hearings is to determine if defendants are still insane. A)True
B)False
Q4) If you don't a fight,you can stand your ground and kill to defend yourself without retreating from any place you have a right to be.
Q5) Explain the "choice of evils" defense and present an example.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Defenses to Criminal Liability II: Excuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The objective test of entrapment focuses on
A) the actions of predisposed criminals.
B) the actions of white-collar criminals.
C) the actions of police.
D) the actions of mentally impaired offenders.
Q2) Which test focuses on criminal acts resulting from mental disease?
A) volitional incapacity
B) substantial incapacity
C) product-of-mental-illness
D) right-wrong
Q3) The defense of duress consists of four elements: the (1)nature of the threat,(2)immediacy of the threats,(3)crimes the defense applies to,and
A) (4)level of belief regarding the threat.
B) (4)lack of belief regarding the threat.
C) (4)existence of the belief regarding the threat.
D) There are only three elements.
Q4) The use of the insanity defense is limited to murder cases.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Diminished responsibility is an excuse defense.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Parties to Crime and Vicarious Liability
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Sample Questions
Q1) The crime of conspiracy and the crime the conspirators agree to commit are separate offenses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vicarious liability for another's criminal conduct has been created by judicial decision.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following prior cases is most pertinent to Jorge's actions?
A) State v.Chism
B) State v.Walden
C) State v.Ulvinen
D) Backun v.United States
Q4) Individuals may be vicariously liable for the actions of their agents'.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In U.S.v.Peoni,the court ruled that accomplice liability also requires proof of intent that the offender committed the crime.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Inchoate Crimes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conspiracy is a specific intent crime.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following would be a valid impossibility defense?
A) Which of the following would be a valid impossibility defense?
B) The victim does not show up at the ambush point.
C) What the defendant plans to do to the victim is not a criminal act.
D) The poison is not strong enough to kill the victim.
Q3) What type of conspiracy is Casey involved in?
A) a small-scale conspiracy
B) a wheel conspiracy
C) a chain conspiracy
D) a large-scale,wheel conspiracy
Q4) All inchoate offenses share how many elements?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q5) Conspiracy is a intent crime.
Q6) The heart of is the agreement between two or more people to commit a crime.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Crimes Against Persons I: Murder and Manslaughter
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Q1) Based on the "born alive" rule,Stewart is guilty of
A) one count of reckless homicide.
B) two counts of reckless homicide.
C) one count of voluntary manslaughter.
D) two counts of voluntary manslaughter
Q2) Excusable homicide is defined as killing in self-defense.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many primary arguments exist in opposition to euthanasia?
A) three
B) one
C) two
D) four
Q4) In a voluntary manslaughter case,adequate provocation is evaluated using a subjective test.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most criminal homicide statutes apply to corporations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Crimes Against Persons II: Sex Offenses, bodily
Injury, and Personal Restraint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Statutory rape is what kind of crime in most states?
A) strict liability
B) vicarious liability
C) specific intent
D) general intent
Q2) A battery is
A) unwanted and unjustified offensive touching.
B) unwanted and unjustified offensive assault.
C) assault.
D) aggravated assault.
Q3) The crime Carlos committed is a bad result crime.What is the bad result in this crime?
A) placing victims in fear
B) placing victims in danger
C) placing victims in awkward situations
D) placing victims in neglect
Q4) Conditional threats to a victim are sufficient to establish the crime of assault.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Crimes Against Property
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Sample Questions
Q1) Receiving stolen property is a crime that applies only to those who sell stolen property for profit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The federal mail fraud statute played an essential role in the government's case against
A) Thomas Maze.
B) Timothy McVeigh.
C) Kenneth Lay.
D) Martha Stewart.
Q3) There are four categories of crimes against property.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The crime of theft grew out of the general social concern with A) violent crime against persons.
B) misbehavior by juveniles.
C) sexual assaults against persons.
D) arson against persons.
Q5) Computer crime often involves ____________ property.
Q6) A whole new vocabulary has grown up to describe the ways hackers commit .
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Crimes Against Public Order and Morals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crimes against public order and morals affect fewer people than the crimes against persons and their property.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are disorderly conduct crimes meant to control?
A) sexual intercourse
B) serious crime
C) sex crime
D) bad manners
Q3) Noncriminal lawsuits brought by cities seeking restraining orders to bar gang members from gang activities are called
A) civil gang injunctions.
B) criminal gang injunctions.
C) preliminary gang injunctions.
D) preliminary criminal injunctions.
Q4) States can control the time,content,and manner of panhandling,but not the place.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The term "victimless crimes" applies only to .
Q6) _______________ can beg honestly on streets and in parks.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Crimes Against the State
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Q1) The crime of damaging or destroying property for the purpose of interfering with and hindering preparations for war and defense during national emergencies is called A) sedition.
B) sabotage.
C) espionage.
D) treason.
Q2) The crime of espionage involves A) sabotage.
B) obstructing the war effort.
C) aiding or giving comfort to enemies of the government.
D) spying.
Q3) What crime is defined as levying war,adhering to enemies,or giving aid or comfort to the enemies of the United States?
A) terrorism
B) sedition
C) treason
D) affray
Q4) Explain what it means to provide material support to terrorists according to the USA PATRIOT Act.
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