
Course Introduction

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Stress Management is a course designed to equip students with practical strategies and theoretical knowledge to recognize, understand, and effectively cope with stress in various aspects of life. The course explores the physiological and psychological impacts of stress, common stressors encountered in academic, personal, and professional settings, and evidence-based techniques for reducing and managing stress. Through interactive activities, self-assessment exercises, and discussions, students will develop skills in mindfulness, time management, relaxation techniques, cognitive restructuring, and healthy lifestyle habits. By the end of the course, participants will have a comprehensive toolkit to foster resilience, maintain well-being, and enhance overall quality of life.
Recommended Textbook
Stress Health and Well Being Thriving in the 21st Century 1st Edition by Rick Harrington
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15 Chapters
750 Verified Questions
750 Flashcards
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Q1) What is the Hassles and Uplifts Scale?
Answer: Lazarus and his colleagues created a scale for hassles and another one for uplifts.Lazarus later developed the Hassles and Uplifts Scale which combines measures for both constructs.Examples of hassles on The Hassles Scale include misplacing things,noise,filling out forms,too many interruptions,and having to wait whereas uplifts on The Uplifts Scale include engaging in a hobby,laughing,having fun,eating out,and completing a task.The Lazarus group gave their scales to a middle-aged adult sample and reported that the sample's top three most frequent hassles in rank order were concerns about weight,health of a family member,and rising prices of common goods and uplifts were relating well with your spouse or lover,relating well with friends,and completing a task.
Q2) Cannon and Selye paved the way for research in fields like psychoendocrinology.
What do psychoendocrinologists examine?
A) The effects of psychological processes on endocrine dysfunction
B) The effects of endocrine dysfunction on mental processes
C) The relationship between stress levels and endocrine function
D) The relationship between psychological processes and endocrine function
Answer: D
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Q1) What is learned helplessness?
Answer: Seligman proposed that whereas some people confronting stressors can learn to be helpless-known as learned helplessness (a passive state analogous to depressed states).Persons in a state of learned helplessness believe that their efforts will not affect outcomes--they expect defeat--because they do not see a relationship between their efforts and results.
Q2) Explain the concept of mindfulness and its roots.
Answer: The idea of actively cultivating conscious awareness and attention has roots in Buddhist traditions and is part of the practice of mindfulness.Mindfulness can be defined as "the state of being attentive and aware of what is taking place in the present." A similar but slightly different definition of mindfulness is "awareness of the present with acceptance."
Q3) What does it mean to thrive?
A) To be content and meet basic expectations
B) To show vigorous growth or to flourish
C) To be successful at everything one tries and never fail
D) To be free of significant adversity or risk
Answer: B
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Q1) What are the targets of the autonomic nervous system's motor neurons?
Answer: The targets of the autonomic nervous system's motor neurons include the smooth muscle cells as well as the cardiac muscle (heart muscle)and pacemaker cells (the specialized heart cells that create the heart's rhythms and therefore regulate its pace of contraction).
Q2) What is the function of the medulla?
Answer: The medulla of the brain stem contains vital life support centers that control autonomic processes such as heart rate,blood pressure,respiration,and digestion.This was the area of the brain responsible for increasing your heart rate,stroke volume,and blood pressure after you heard a bang at your window and perceived it as a potential threat.
Q3) Each adrenal consists of an outer covering, the ____, and an inner core called the
A) pre-ganglionic fibers, paraventricular nucleus
B) sympathetic-adrenal medulla axis (SAM), sympathetic-adrenal cortex axis (SAM)
C) adrenal cortex, adrenal medulla
D) adrenal medulla, adrenal cortex
Answer: C
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Q1) The ____ group in an experimental study serves as a comparison group.
A) dependent variable
B) independent variable
C) experimental
D) control
Q2) List and explain several problems with the SLE (stressful life events)model.
Q3) Briefly compare the different functions of cross-sectional designs and longitudinal designs.
Q4) What is validity? How does it relate to reliability?
Q5) What cells are like James Bond special agents? Describe these cells.
Q6) The second punch of the immune system's one-two punch known as ____ (refers to the body's non-cellular fluid)is mediated by antibodies and has greater target precision but less speed.
A) viscous immunity
B) cell-mediated immunity
C) humoral immunity
D) cambiatic immunity
Q7) Describe Pearson Product Moment correlation coefficients.
Q8) What is reliability?
Q9) Describe the first layer of the human protective and immune systems. Page 6
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Q1) ____ is characterized by a hypersensitivity of the skin to particular foods or environmental allergens that results in the skin becoming inflamed, feeling itchy, and perhaps scaling or flaking.
A) Allergic rhinitis
B) Atopic dermatitis
C) Non-atopic dermatitis
D) Topical dermatitis
Q2) Stress may play ____ in the development of some health conditions, and in other conditions it appears to play ____ yet contributes to the exacerbation of symptoms.
A) the only role, one role of many
B) a major part, a more significant part
C) no causal role, a causal role
D) a causal role, no causal role
Q3) Does stress play a role in the development of lupus or its prognosis?
Q4) What are endothelial cells?
Q5) What is allergic rhinitis (AR)and what are some of its symptoms?
Q6) Describe systemic autoimmune disorders.
Q7) What are atopic disorders?
Q8) What is the relationship between essential hypertension and stress?
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Q1) ____ refer(s)to particular characteristics or structural elements of personality that predispose a person to respond in certain ways.
A) Disposition
B) Personality states
C) Temperament
D) Personality traits
Q2) What are moderation models?
Q3) High neuroticism is consistently ____ associated with subjective well-being.
A) but only slightly negatively
B) and robustly negatively
C) but only slightly positively
D) and robustly positively
Q4) Whereas ____ are considered more temporary internal phenomena, ____ are considered more enduring and stable personality characteristics.
A) traits, states
B) states, traits
C) dispositions, temperaments
D) temperaments, dispositions
Q5) Explain differential exposure.
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Q1) What is the first step for someone with debilitating chronic anxiety? The next recommended step?
Q2) Deep abdominal breathing is the preferred method for anxiety reduction. Describe this technique of breathing.
Q3) Define ruminative thinking.
Q4) Meta-analytic studies report that exposure therapy is the most effective treatment for ____ when combined "with relaxation training and/or breathing retraining techniques."
A) panic disorder
B) GAD
C) phobias
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
Q5) What reasons account for the ineffectiveness of the catharsis strategy?
Q6) Describe a person with a major depressive disorder.
Q7) How does engaging in aerobic exercise work as a strategy for dealing with depression?
Q8) Describe cognitive behavioral therapy.
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Q9) What is the most effective behavioral approach in treating anxiety disorders? Describe this type of therapy.

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Q1) An important part of using the ____ approach is to accept responsibility for our thoughts, feelings, and actions.
A) low-drama
B) high-drama
C) positive reciprocity
D) negative reciprocity
Q2) The fourth step of the demand-withdraw pattern is called ____, in which the withdrawing person withholds attention and puts up a wall that blocks communication and cooperation as a way to punish the demanding person.
A) defensiveness
B) contempt
C) stonewalling
D) criticism
Q3) ____ attributions refer to temporary situational factors.
A) External stable
B) External unstable
C) Internal stable
D) Internal unstable
Q4) What is the central challenge of bicultural adaptation?
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Q1) Describe the Pareto principle in relation to time management strategy.
Q2) In the ____ dimension of Maslach's three dimensional model of burnout, a person feels emotionally depleted, drained, and lacking in emotional resources.
A) emotional exhaustion
B) cynicism
C) depersonalization
D) reduced efficacy
Q3) Define circadian rhythm. What behavioral changes occur when this is disturbed?
Q4) In ____, two or more role demands are incompatible with each other.
A) role conflict
B) role ambiguity
C) role overload
D) qualitative overload
Q5) Describe the level of intervention called secondary prevention.
Q6) Differentiate burnout from depression.
Q7) List the two conditions in which the determination of a misfit occurs.
Q8) Describe the positive psychological state called vigor. List the top three activities positively related to vigor.
Q9) Discuss the effort-reward imbalance (ERI)model.
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Q1) One of the first theoretical groupings of coping strategies, suggested by Folkman and Lazarus (1980), splits coping strategies into the two broad-based categories. ____ coping involves dealing with the perceived cause of the distress whereas ____ coping entails managing the distress caused by the problem.
A) Emotion-focused; problem-focused
B) Problem-focused; emotion-focused
C) Social support seeking; meaning-making
D) Meaning-making; social support seeking
Q2) ____ is a distorted thinking category in which one exaggerates or downplay the importance of something. "My stomach hurts. It must be appendicitis." "Yes I smoke but I'll outlive all you nonsmokers."
A) Overgeneralization
B) Magnification or minimization
C) Discounting the positives
D) Mental filter
Q3) What issues arise in retrospective coping inventories? How do researchers attempt to get around these problems?
Q4) Which is most accurate, the retrospective or the momentary reports?
Q5) Discuss the goodness of fit hypothesis.
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Q1) In general, high risk individuals for physical activity are those with a known history or symptoms of cardiovascular, pulmonary (i.e., lung), or metabolic disease (e.g., diabetes). Moderate risk individuals are men over the age of ____ or women over the age of __.
A) 45, 55
B) 40, 50
C) 55, 40
D) 55, 45
Q2) What is the social interaction hypothesis?
Q3) A recent meta-analytic study found that ____ exercise was associated with improvements in cognitive processing speed, attention, executive control, and memory. Such findings are supported by brain studies that demonstrate less cortical brain tissue loss and greater hippocampus volume in aerobically fit older adults.
A) vigorous and regular
B) anaerobic
C) aerobic
D) high-intensity but occasional
Q4) What are the keys to maintaining an exercise program?
Q5) What are the effects of weight-bearing exercise on bone health?
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Q1) According to the Institute of Medicine's Food and Nutrition Board's most current guidelines for a healthy balance of macronutrients, we should consume ____% to ____% of our total macronutrients from carbohydrates, 10% to 35% from protein, and 20% to 35% from fats.
A) 25, 45
B) 35, 55
C) 45, 65
D) 65, 75
Q2) Why are antioxidants important?
Q3) Individuals who attempt to regulate their negative affect through eating are referred to as ____.
A) dangerous eaters
B) emotional eaters
C) troubled eaters
D) disturbed eaters
Q4) Americans consume far too much of what mineral? How much is too much and why?
Q5) What does it take to get all the vitamins and minerals necessary for good health? Do you think you get enough of them? Why or why not?
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Q6) Why was fiber once thought to be useless and why is this false?
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Q1) Describe the first systematic desensitization session of working with a therapist.
Q2) List the four muscle groups found in progressively abbreviated versions of muscle relaxation.
Q3) ____ awareness is the ability to differentiate a tense muscle from a relaxed one.
A) Muscle sense
B) Kinesthetic sense
C) Imaginal muscle sense
D) Autogenic sense
Q4) How can a practitioner achieve normal waking state at the end of an autogenic session?
Q5) Schulz developed six formulas or exercises that focus on different systems of the body. For the viscera exercise, the practitioner is to focus on an image of the ____ with warm rays extending to the organs of the body.
A) solar plexus
B) heart
C) forehead
D) abdomen
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Q1) Describe the cerebral hemisphere balance theory.
Q2) Unlike tension-type headache's relation to skeletal muscle tension, the ____ headache appears to be vascular in origin.
A) Cluster
B) Hormone
C) migraine
D) organic
Q3) ____ theory suggests that mantra meditation restricts consciousness of our external world and in-effect temporarily deletes it from our active neural circuitry.
A) Rhythm
B) Blank-out
C) Cerebral hemisphere balance
D) Desensitization
Q4) Apart from oxygen consumption levels characteristic of a hypometabolic state, what other physiological indicators of relaxation did early investigators find?
Q5) Describe a theory for why attacks occur in Raynaud's phenomenon.
Q6) Compare the occurrence of hypometabolic states during sleep to decreases in oxygen consumption during meditation.
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Q1) Provide tips on how to become an activarian if one is a sedentarian.
Q2) Like deep relaxation, meditation ideally involves ____ minutes ____ a day.
A) 10, once
B) 10, twice
C) 20, once
D) 20, twice
Q3) Seligman's (2011)authentic happiness and well-being theories are anchored by his construct of ____ strengths.
A) signature
B) restorative
C) spiritual
D) emotional
Q4) If you drink, keep alcohol consumption to moderate levels-no more than ____ drinks per day for women and ____ per day for men.
A) two, three
B) three, two
C) one, two
D) two, one

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Q5) What are the benefits of the practice of meditation?
Q6) How can empathy be conveyed?
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