Strategic Market Planning
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Strategic Market Planning is a critical course that equips students with the analytical tools and conceptual frameworks necessary to develop, implement, and evaluate effective marketing strategies in competitive environments. Through case studies, simulations, and real-world applications, students learn to assess market opportunities, segment and target customer bases, position offerings, and create integrated marketing plans that align with organizational goals. Emphasis is placed on the integration of market research, competitive analysis, and strategic decision-making to achieve sustainable growth and maximize long-term profitability.
Recommended Textbook
MR2 2nd Edition by Tom J. Brown
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Marketing Research: From Data to Information to Action
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Handyman Tools Company commissioned a survey designed to determine whether homeowners prefer plastic or metal casings on electric screwdrivers. The results of this survey will likely be used as input into decisions concerning which element of the marketing mix?
A) Price
B) Product
C) Publicity
D) Promotion
E) Place Answer: B
Q2) Marketing research:
A) is simply asking consumers for their likes, dislikes, needs, and wants in a one-on-one situation.
B) spans the informational boundary between the firm and its environment.
C) can only be employed to assess the impact of past or contemplated adjustments in the marketing mix.
D) is most generally used for marketing control purposes.
E) is most generally a marketing implementation function.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Research Question: Formulation of the Problem
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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE?
A) Serendipity is synonymous with planned change.
B) Strategy-oriented decision problems focus on selecting alternative courses of action.
C) The marketing problem should be defined clearly so that research can be designed properly.
D) Change is a fundamental source of marketing problems.
E) Discovery-oriented problems are common with unplanned changes in the marketing environment.
Answer: A
Q2) ____________________ decision problems are common with unplanned changes in the marketing environment.
Answer: Discovery-oriented
Q3) Normal thinking is not always the best way to understand the true nature of a problem.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Exploratory, Descriptive, and Causal Research Designs
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Q1) You would like to determine the demographic characteristics of owners of recreational vehicles. The appropriate research strategy would be:
A) a case study.
B) exploratory research.
C) descriptive research.
D) a field experiment.
E) laboratory research.
Answer: C
Q2) In an experiment, the experimenter can manipulate the _____ variables, but has no control over the _____ variables.
A) dependent; independent
B) independent; outcome
C) outcome; causal
D) dependent; outcome
E) independent; causal
Answer: B
Q3) A test market in which the company sells the product through its normal distribution channels is called a(n) ____________________.
Answer: standard Trueest market
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Chapter 4: Collecting Secondary Data from Inside and
Outside the Organization
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Q1) You are searching for relevant secondary data via computer searching. After determining what you already know and what you wish to know about your topic, what is the next step?
A) Go to the library and begin searching through relevant marketing publications.
B) Consult an authority in the field.
C) Consult a reference librarian for help.
D) Consult a specialized index that relates to your topic.
E) Generate a list of key terms and names.
Q2) The primary advantage of using online computer searches to gather secondary data is:
A) savings in time spent.
B) savings in cost of assembling data.
C) the accuracy of the data obtained.
D) the ability to take advantage of expert help from a reference librarian.
E) data are furnished in machine-readable formats.
Q3) How do organisations assess exposure to and effectiveness of advertising in the mass media?
Q4) Two advantages offered by secondary data are ____________________ and ____________________.
6
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Chapter 5: Collecting Primary Data by Observation
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Q1) Scanner data are probably the most common type of ____________________ data.
Q2) Disguised observation is a more accurate way of recording consumer behavior than undisguised observation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A general advantage of the questionnaire approach over the observational approach is its versatility or wide scope.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an example of data collected by communication?
A) Supermarket scanner data
B) Telephone interview data
C) Data collected by mailing questionnaires
D) Face-to-face personal interview
E) Data collected through online polls
Q5) Discuss the two basic means of obtaining primary data.
Q6) Researchers believe that motives tend to be less stable than behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q7) ____________________ refers to an individual's overall evaluation of something. Page 7
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Collecting Primary Data by Communication
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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE?
A) Mailing lists to serve as the sampling frame for a mail survey may be generated internally by the firm or purchased externally.
B) In recent years, one of the keys to using a mail questionnaire is the ability to direct the questionnaire to a specific individual, not just a position (e.g., Vice President of Marketing).
C) The quality of the mailing list determines the sampling control in a mail study.
D) Mail questionnaires typically provide more sample control than telephone or personal interviews.
E) They are all true.
Q2) Which of the following items is associated with administrative control?
A) Cost
B) Time
C) Directing the inquiry to the designated respondent
D) Interviewer bias
E) Both a and b.
Q3) ____________________ interviews imply a direct face-to-face conversation between the interviewer and the respondent.
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Chapter 7: Asking Good Questions
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Q1) Almost nothing in marketing research can be measured without error.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sometimes a researcher will include an internal consistency check to ensure that reliable answers are being given by respondents. This is normally carried out by having two different questions that measure the same construct embedded somewhere in the questionnaire.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As defined in the text, measurement consists of:
A) the assignment of numbers (representing quantities of attributes) to objects according to rules.
B) using a given scale to make comparisons.
C) determining the frequency of a particular attribute.
D) the assigning of numbers (denoting aggregates of properties) solely for identification purposes.
E) numbers which can be assigned to the physical properties of objects.
Q4) Consistency is the hallmark of validity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Designing the Questionnaire
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT recommended to facilitate handling and control of a questionnaire?
A) Stapling multiple pages together.
B) Leaving enough room for open-ended questions.
C) Numbering the questions.
D) Using paper no larger than 8 1/2 x 11 inches.
E) All of the above are all recommended to facilitate handling and control of questionnaires.
Q2) A split-ballot refers to:
A) the practice of using different phrasing or different orders for the alternatives on subsets of questionnaires to combat order bias.
B) the practice of splitting the questionnaire responses in half for more accurate analysis.
C) an administrative procedure in state elections.
D) averaging in scale construction.
E) None of the above.
Q3) ____________________ refers to the potential for responses to be affected by the sequence in which alternatives are presented.
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11
Chapter 9: Developing the Sampling Plan
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Q1) A researcher cannot pinpoint the actual average family income in a city unless he conducts a census study.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the major problems with mail surveys is nonresponse bias. In an effort to minimize this, a researcher decides to limit the sample to his personal friends from whom he is sure to get replies. This is an example of a:
A) probability sample.
B) nonprobability sample.
C) random sample.
D) sequential sample.
E) quota sample.
Q3) Which of the following is a probability sample?
A) Quota sample
B) Convenience sample
C) Cluster sample
D) Judgment sample
E) Snowball sample
Q4) Compare and contrast probability and nonprobability sampling.
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Chapter 10: Data Collection: Enhancing Response Rates
while Limiting Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Errors introduced into the study during data processing are:
A) Type I errors.
B) nonobservation errors.
C) sampling errors.
D) total errors.
E) office errors.
Q2) Blame for response errors can lay with the researcher, respondent or both.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Commercial research firms typically validate ____ of completed interviews.
A) 100%
B) 80 to 100%
C) 60 to 70%
D) 10 to 20%
E) 20 to 30%
Q4) The lower the ____________________ rate, the more likely it is that nonresponse error will affect research results.
Q5) The number of completed interviews with responding units divided by the number of eligible responding units in the sample is called ____________________.
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Chapter 11: Data Preparation for Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A questionnaire uses a 1-5 Likert scale to determine job satisfaction. When entering the data into a file, a researcher types a 7 instead of the 4 that the respondent had circled on the questionnaire. Which of the following types of analysis can uncover this mistake?
A) Analysis of variance
B) Regression
C) Double-entry
D) Frequency analysis
E) Both c and D
Q2) The BEST way to handle missing items when analyzing the data is to:
A) leave the item blank and report the number blank as a separate category.
B) eliminate the case with the missing item in analyses using the variable.
C) substitute values for the missing item.
D) eliminate the case from all further analyses.
E) There is no single best way for handling missing items.
Q3) Compare and contrast the various methods or options for dealing with missing data in analyses.
Q4) ____________________ is a source of nonsampling error that arises when a respondent agrees to an interview but refuses, or is unable, to answer specific questions.
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Chapter 12: Analysis & Interpretation: Individual Variables
Independently
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Q1) A(n) ____________________ interval is a projection of the range within which a population parameter will lie at a given level of confidence based on a statistic obtained from an appropriately drawn sample.
Q2) Which types of measurement are used to group respondents or objects into groups or categories and are thus referred to as categorical measures?
A) Nominal and interval
B) Ordinal and ratio
C) Ratio and interval
D) Nominal and ordinal
E) Ordinal and interval
Q3) Refer to Exhibit 12.2. What is the average number of televisions per household?
A)2.00
B)1.85
C)1.52
D)2.25
E)2.74
Q4) The hypothesis that a proposed result is not true for the population is called the ____________________ hypothesis.
Q5) Discuss the most commonly used descriptive statistics.
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Chapter 13: Analysis & Interpretation: Multiple Variables
Simultaneously
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Q1) If the F-value in ANOVA produces a significantly high p-value (a.k.a. "Sig." in SPSS) of 0.11 or more, then it is appropriate to proceed with a post-hoc test (e.g., Duncan).
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you have a significant and very strong (e.g., > 0.90 correlation coefficient), you may assume there is a causal relationship between the two variables.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Suppose the ordinary least-squares approach to a regression analysis produced the following: Y = 20 - 39X
R² = .90
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) For every unit change in X there is a corresponding negative change in the average value of Y of 39 units.
B) 90 percent of the variation in Y is associated with variation in X.
C) The slope of the line is 20.
D) The average value of Y given x = 10 is -370.
E) If X = 0, then Y = 20.
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Chapter 14: The Research Report
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Sample Questions
Q1) An analyst wishing to show the fluctuations in coffee consumption by month over the past two years should probably use a:
A) grouped bar chart.
B) pie chart.
C) line chart.
D) stratum chart.
E) divided bar chart.
Q2) Complicated technical details and charts are usually placed in the:
A) body.
B) introduction.
C) summary.
D) appendix.
E) bibliography.
Q3) Pie charts are useful for illustrating trend relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If the body of the report uses references, the report should include a
Q5) Distinguish between a conclusion and a recommendation for a research report.
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